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Question 1:
Identify two implementation strategies of changed data capture provided through ODI Knowledge Modules. (Choose two.)
A. extracting source data to flat files
B. triggers
C. Oracle GoldenGate
D. before-and-after database image comparison
Correct Answer: BC
Question 2:
How does the data flow when moving records between two servers by using Database Links and an Agent installed on a middle-tier server? (Choose the best answer.)
A. from the source database into flat files that are then loaded into the target database
B. directly from the source database to the target database
C. from the source database onto the server running the Agent and then into the target database
D. from the source database into the machine running ODI Studio and then into the target database
You are a project developer using ODI and want to consolidate your own local metadata repositories.
Identify the true statement. (Choose the best answer.)
A. You must consolidate your own local metadata repositories. The local metadata must be transmitted via ftp and synchronized with a dedicated proprietary engine, creating a common metadata model for all the developers.
B. You must consolidate your own local metadata repositories. You have to invoke a dedicated web service to synchronize the metadata by using Oracle Service Bus.
C. You need not consolidate your own local metadata repositories, because the ODI proprietary metadata server allows all developers to share the common metadata of a specific project.
D. You need not consolidate your own local metadata repositories because ODI uses a centralized relational metadata repository that all the developers share.
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
How should you define the Work Schema of a Physical Schema? (Choose the best answer.)
You have been tasked with designing a Mapping that must perform an initial load and incremental updates using the same transformation logic.
How should you proceed? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Create a single Mapping with two Physical Designs: one for the initial load and one for the incremental updates.
B. Create a single Mapping with a single Physical Design and modify it appropriately when an initial load is required or when an incremental update is required.
C. Create two Mappings: one for the initial load and one for the incremental updates. Duplicate the transformation logic.
D. Create a single Mapping and use variables in the Logical Design to do an initial load when required or an incremental update otherwise.
Your customer wants a project in ODI, which contains a user function, to translate commands with different syntax for different technologies but with the same functionality.
How can you achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The project must be explicitly mapped within an ODI mapping.
B. A customized knowledge module is needed.
C. An ODI procedure must be associated with it.
D. It can be defined for every technology listed in the topology.
If multiple changes occur on the source system but have not yet been processed by ODI, the J$ table contains entries for each change for the records sharing the same PK.
What happens at run time when a Mapping gets executed? (Choose the best answer.)
A. All distinct entries are processed.
B. Only the latest entry is processed based on the JRN_DATEfield.
C. Only the first entry is processed based on the JRN_DATEfield.
D. A PK violation occurs due to the duplicated entries and the entries are inserted in the E$ table.
When Oracle Data Integrator (ODI) and Oracle GoldenGate are used together, which option represents the phases of an ELT process that Oracle GoldenGate performs? (Choose the best answer.)
You create two mappings that both use the same changed data and run at different times. One runs every 15 minutes and the other runs once every day.
What must you do to ensure that the Mapping that gets executed more often does not consume the changed data required by the other Mapping? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Use Consistent CDC, do not perform a purge of the journal data when the first Mapping gets executed, and manually change the JRN_SUBSCRIBERcolumn in the corresponding J$table to keep the changed data present for the second Mapping.
B. Create a third mapping to copy the changed data to a staging table, which is used as the source of the second Mapping.
C. Duplicate the source data store for each Mapping.
D. Create two distinct subscribers for each Mapping.
Correct Answer: A
(http://odiexperts.com/changed-data-capture-cdc/)
At last
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Question 1:
Which Oracle Event Processing (OEP) data cartridge should you use to track the GPS location of buses and generate alerts when a bus arrives at its predetermined bus stop position?
A. JDBC Data
B. Oracle Spatial
C. Hadoop Big Data
D. NoSQLDB Big Data
E. Java Data
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
Which two statements are true about the defined Oracle JMS Adapter outbound connection?
A. It supports connections to JMS distributed queues.
B. It uses default credentials when connecting to the remote JMS provider.
C. It supports zero message loss via distributed transactions.
D. It requires the JMS consumer to explicitly commit transactions.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 3:
Which two statements are true about working with tasks in Business Process Workspace?
A. A user can create personal to-do tasks that are unassociated with a process instance.
B. Delegating a task means transferring the task to another user or group.
C. You can see how long each completed step has taken to finish.
D. You can display the process model and view the path a process instance has taken.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 4:
For each enrollment request message, a health insurance carrier\’s web service always returns a response message acknowledging the receipt of the enrollment request. If there are problems fulfilling the requested enrollment, the web service may respond at a later time with an additional response message detailing why the enrollment could not be fulfilled.
Which Oracle SOA Suite service component should be used to implement this integration pattern?
A. BPEL Process
B. Mediator
C. Business Rule
D. Human Workflow
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
Consider the current values of BPEL variables InputVariable andOutputVariable:
Then consider the following BPEL activity Assign1: <assign name=”Assign1”and;
<from variable =”InputVariable” part = “query_Input” query=”/ns2: query_Input/ns2:Row_Id”/>
<to variable =”OutputVariable” part = “query_Output” query=”/ns2: query_Outnput/ns2:RowId”/>
Which two changes allow Assign1 to work with the current values of InputVariableandOutputVariable?
A. adding the attribute bpelx :insertMissingToData=” yes”to line 2
B. adding the attribute bpelx :insertMissingFromData=”yes” to line 2
C. correcting the namespace prefixes in line 5
D. correcting the namespace prefixes in line 8
Correct Answer: BC
Question 6:
You have modeled a composite with an inbound adapter service wired to a BPEL process component.
Which method do you use to model a rejection handler for the inbound adapter service?
A. Define the rejection-handler logic in rejection-handlers.xmlin the $MW_HOME/soa/connectors directory.
B. Define the rejection-handler logic inline as a child element of the section of the inbound adapter in composite.xml.
C. Define the rejection-handler logic in a top-level catch block in the BPEL process where the QName of the fault should be bpws: rejected messages.
D. Define the rejection-handler logic in fault policies. for the composite, and then associate the fault policies. with the composite.
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
To support the deployment of a new provisioning system, a company wants to install and configure a production domain with Oracle SOA Suite and Oracle Service Bus.
Which statement is true about the required effort?
A. Separate domains must be configured for Oracle SOA Suite and Oracle Service Bus.
B. The Oracle Repository Creation Utility (RCU) must be run twice to create the required schemas.
C. The installation of Oracle SOA Suite includes the installation of Oracle Service Bus.
D. A supported version of WebLogic Server must be installed before installing Oracle SOA Suite.
Correct Answer: D
Question 8:
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle Enterprise Scheduler Service (ESS) facility?
A. It is a Java EE application that is deployed to a WebLogic Server to provide distributed job request processing across a single WebLogic Server or a collection of WebLogic Servers.
B. It is shipped as a separate product and you can install it after you have completed the SOA Suite installation.
C. It is used extensively by Fusion Applications so it is well-tested.
D. It is administered via the WebLogic Server Administration Console.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 9:
What two architectural factors most heavily influence the interoperability of the Oracle Adapters with Oracle Service Bus (OSB) and Oracle SOA Suite?
A. Oracle Adapters are based on the Java EE Connector Architecture (JCA) 1.5 specification.
B. Oracle Adapters use native APIs to connect to the supported back-end applications.
C. Oracle Adapters are deployed to the same Oracle WebLogic Servers as Oracle Fusion Middleware.
D. Use of Oracle Adapters Extended Architecture (XA) features is completely optional.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 10:
Oracle SOA Suite is being used to virtualize service calls to a third-party human resources provider. The planned service payloads will require minimum transformation. Routing is simple because service calls will be mapped one-for-one to existing third-party services. Which two components should be used to handle this service virtualization?
A. BPEL Process
B. Proxy Service
C. Mediator
D. Business Service
Correct Answer: AD
Question 11:
Which two are available as conditions for an alert rule in BAM 12c?
A. between two times
B. when rows are deleted from a data object
C. a particular day of the week
D. when a web service is invoked
Correct Answer: BD
Question 12:
Oracle Adapters are deployed to the Oracle SOA Suite server. Which three SOA Suite components can use Oracle Adapters?
A. BPEL Process
B. Mediator
C. Proxy Service
D. Human Workflow
E. Business Rule
Correct Answer: ADE
Question 13:
You have modeled a Composite X for which the following fault policy action has been configured for
remote faults:
2
2
At runtime, when a remote fault occurs at outbound invoke, this ora-retry action is triggered. After
the two configured retries are exhausted, which one occurs?
A. The transaction of Composite X rolls back.
B. The instance is marked “open. faulted” and is available for auto-recovery.
C. The instance is marked “closed. faulted” and is available for error recovery from Enterprise Manager where the user can choose actions on the instance such as replay, rethrow, and abort.
D. The default retryFailureAction is initiated and it rethrows the error back to the caller service.
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Which tool would you use to enable more detailed logging of SOA components?
A. WebLogic Console
B. Enterprise Manager
C. BPM Workspace
D. WebLogic Diagnostics Framework (WLDF)
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
Which expiration and escalation setting can be used to route a task a specified number of levels up a management chain if the assignee does not respond in a given time period?
A. Never expire
B. Expire after
C. Route to manager
D. Renew after
E. Escalate after
F. Management chain
Correct Answer: A
At last
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Which statement is true about a case activity that is defined as “Automatic” and “Conditional”?
A. The activity is run automatically as soon as the case starts.
B. The activity is run by the system only after it is initiated by the user.
C. The activity is automatically run by the system as soon as it is activated by a case rule.
D. Only a BPMN case activity can be defined as “Automatic” and “Conditional”.
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
You have a requirement to dynamically assign tasks at run time based on the employee\’s title. Which three could be used to accomplish this assignment? (Choose three.)
A. Use parametric roles to map the individual parametric role assignments and then map individual users to specific titles in the workspace using extended user properties.
B. Use parametric roles to map the individual parametric role assignments and then map LDAP groups to specific titles in the workspace using extended user properties.
C. In LDAP, ensure that individual users have been given titles and, in the workspace, associate the LDAP title attribute to a parametric role.
D. Use a business rule in the human task to dynamically assign work items to specific users or an LDAP group based on employee title.
E. In the process, edit the properties of the swimlane and assign a “title” string data object in the process payload to define a parametric role.
Correct Answer: ABD
Question 5:
Which human workflow service is used to get the list of outcomes defined for a task?
A. IRuntimeConfigService
B. ITaskQueryService
C. ITaskService
D. ITaskMetadataService
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Query the list of tasks using ITaskQueryService.
When automatically generating an ADF form from a human task, the difference between using the “Auto-Generate Task Form” and the “Launch Task Form Wizard” is that the _____.
A. “Launch Task Form Wizard” option launches a six-step “BPM Custom Form Wizard” and the “Auto-Generate” option creates the ADF project, task flow, and ADF form with one key click
B. “Launch Task Form Wizard” option does not create a new ADF project every time it is run
C. “Auto-Generate” option gives you the choice to use an existing ADF page template as the form is being created.
D. “Launch Task Form Wizard” option automatically creates an ADF page template and task flow template
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
Which two statements are correct on the use of business objects in a BPM project? (Choose two.)
A. A business object is defined by a complex data time.
B. Business objects are often defined in WSDL documents.
C. A business object can inherit data and behavior from a parent business object.
D. You can create a business object at either the project level or the process level.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 8:
The initial performer of a task is determined by the role associated with the swim lane in which the task is modeled except when you use a(n) _______.
A. complex task
B. user task
C. FYI task
D. group task
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A complex user task uses a complex routing flow that is defined within the human task.BPM Studio offers a number of human task patterns out of the box, to make it easy to implement the most common types of human tasks. For example, the Simple pattern just assigns individual users or groups. The Management pattern is used for a sequential list of approvers up the management chain.
The initiator is the person who kicks off the process. For most of these, swimlane roles are used to determine assignments. For the Complex task, however, the swimlanes are irrelevant, and routing and assignments are typically more complicated.
Note: Swimlanes are the horizontal lines that run across the process editor. All flow objects must be placed within a swimlane. Swimlanes can also be used to group flow objects based on the roles defined within your process. Swimlanes that contain user tasks must have roles assigned to them. Swimlanes visually display the role responsible for performing each flow object within your process.
Additionally, you can have multiple swimlanes that are assigned to the same role. Swimlanes can make your process more readable when you must use the same role in different parts of the same process.
Question 9:
You are analyzing the different methods available to manage the life cycle of the OWSM policies in your SOA/BPM environment. Identify two statements that correctly describe OWSM policy attachments. (Choose two.)
A. Although you can boss attach and detach security policies in JDeveloper, you can detach them only in Enterprise Manager.
B. An application developer typically uses JDeveloper to create new security policies rather than select them from a prebuilt list.
C. When you use JDeveloper to associate a security policy with a web service, the policy is not really attached until application development.
D. OWSM policies can be attached and detached with WLST.
Correct Answer: CD
Question 10:
Which statement is true about using a data-first approach in Web Form Designer?
A. The process must already have an object-based process variable created.
B. The human task must already have an object-based data element defined.
C. A corresponding process data object is automatically created and mapped into and out of the human task.
D. As widgets are dragged onto the form from the palette, the firm \’s underlying XSD is automatically updated.
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
Which three actions are available when using business rules for a case? (Choose three.)
A. Activate activities.
B. Set an activity\’s relevance.
C. Change a milestone deadline.
D. Change a required activity to an optional activity.
E. Modify case data.
Correct Answer: CDE
Question 12:
Which two product features might a process analyst use the most in contrast to a process developer? (Choose two.)
A. Process simulation.
B. Business rules.
C. Mediator services.
D. WebForms.
E. BPM Studio.
F. ADF forms.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 13:
Human workflow is implemented as a _________.
A. component within the BPEL service engine
B. separate Java server running on WebLogic Server
C. service engine within the SOA infrastructure
D. component within the BPMN service engine
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Which two statements are accurate in describing features of the Business Process Workspace? (Choose two.)
A. To see tasks containing a particular word in the task title, you need to create a custom view.
B. The definition and data for a new view can be shared with a colleague.
C. A custom view needs to be created to enable the delegation of a task to another user.
D. In a task view, the task list can be sorted based on any visible column heading.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 15:
A task is considered overdue when _______.
A. there are no more renewals
B. the current date is beyond the due date
C. the current date is beyond the expiration date
D. the current date is beyond both the expiration date and the due date
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A task is considered overdue after it is past the specified due date. This data is in addition to the expiration policy. A due date can be specified irrespective of whether an expiration policy has been specified. The due date enables Oracle BPM Worklist to display a due date, list overdue tasks, highlight overdue tasks in the inbox, and so on.
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Question 1:
What is the purpose of the use of “command” In the CLI?
A. Use a specified server pool as the default for all commands requiring a server pool argument.
B. Use a specified virtual machine name as the default for all commands requiring a virtual machine argument.
C. Use a specified user name as the default for all commands requiring a user name argument.
D. Use a specified server name as the default for all commands requiring a server argument.
E. Use a specified group name as the default for all commands requiring a group argument.
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
What component of Oracle VM Product is specifically responsible for the automatic failover process?
A. OCFS2
B. Server Pool Master
C. Oracle Clusterware
D. utility server
E. virtual machine server
Correct Answer: B
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11081_01/doc/doc.21/e10898/ha.htm To enable HA, you must first make sure all Virtual Machine Servers in the server pool:
Use the same shared storage.
Are they in the same OCFS2 or NFS cluster?
Are Oracle VM Server Release 2.1.2 or above?
Have the same cluster root, which is a specially designated shared storage used for heat beating in the cluster. For example, the cluster root might be example.com:/OVS for an NFS cluster, or /dev/sdd6 for an OCFS2 cluster. The heartbeat file would be located at example.com:/OVS/.server_pool_hb for an NFS cluster. There is no heartbeat file for an OCFS2 cluster as one is in-built into the file system.
Has the cluster root been mounted at /OVS? All other storage may be mounted at the standard location of / OVS/uuid.
Have moved any /OVS mount points (set in fstab for Releases 2.1 or 2.1.1) to the /etc/ovs/repositories file. All storage, even that mounted at /OVS, must be maintained in the /etc/ovs/repositories file. You can move the mount points to the /etc/ovs/repositories file with the following command:
# /usr/lib/ovs/ovs-cluster-check –alter-fstab
Have a shared cluster root at /OVS, and not local, using clustered OCFS2 on SAN, or ISCSI storage, or NFS on NAS. The default local storage is OCFS2 and is not supported with HA.
Question 3:
A low-priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the two valid
network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?
A. [max_rate=lMb/s]
B. [rate=lMb/s@20ms]
C. [rate=250Kb/s]
D. [max_rate=unlimited]
E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]
Correct Answer: BC
Question 4:
What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?
A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.
B. Enable firewalling in dom0.
C. Install virus-checking software in dom0.
D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.
E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.
Correct Answer: AE
Question 5:
Networking is not working for several guests on a particular host. Which two commands can help troubleshoot the networking?
A. xm list -1 will show all of the network interfaces for all of the virtual machines, which can be used to see which bridge is having problems.
B. config_network.py -l will show which network interfaces are in use, and which are having problems.
C. brctl show will show the status of each bridge, and which VIFs are connected to it. This can then be used to determine which bridge is having problems.
D. System-config-network will list the virtual interfaces, which can be inspected to see which are having problems.
E. ifconfig -a will show a list of all network interfaces and their current status, which will help determine which bridge is having problems.
Correct Answer: CE
Question 6:
What is the effect of running a server pool restore?
A. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the Oracle VM Manager database Isdeleted, and the data in the server pool master and virtual machine servers are used to restock the database.
B. When you restore a server pool, all servers are removed from the pool, and the data in the database is removed, restoring the server pool to its initial state.
C. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the server pool master will be deleted and will be synchronized with the latest information from the Oracle VM Manager database. The server pool master is responsible for updating the individual Oracle VM servers\’ agent databases.
D. When you restore a server pool, a signal is sent out to each server in the pool, which response with the current state of all of the virtual machines it hosts. This data is used to restore the data in the Oracle VM database.
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Which three are part of the JeOS toolkit?
A. Linux command to customize the JeOS images and create the template
B. JeOS license file
C. Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System. img
D. Microsoft Windows JeOS images to use for the System. img
E. Template reconfiguration scripts
F. Red Hat Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
Correct Answer: ABE
Linux command is available to customize the JeOS images and for creating the template you will get a script that will allow creating the template so that template reconfiguration scripts will be the right answer and a license file should be there. So the correct 3 options I specified there.
Question 8:
Which statement best describes the pricing metric for Oracle VM configurations?
A. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no charge.
B. Oracle VM Server license and support contract are purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no charge.
C. Oracle VM Server license and support contract are purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager license and support contract are purchased for each server.
D. Oracle VM Server license and support contract are purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager license and support contract are purchased for one server.
E. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager support is purchased for one server.
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
A virtual machine is copied onto portable media and transferred to another machine In a different server pool. The virtual machine is then run on the new host, but it falls to boot. What are two potential problems?
A. The virtual machine was not exported properly using the Oracle VM Manager.
B. The virtual machine configuration file needs to be changed to update the new paths to its virtual disk.
C. The virtual machine configuration file lists bridges that do not exist on the new host.
D. The virtual machine has not been registered with Oracle VM yet.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 10:
Which disk protocol is the default disk type for disks in a para-virtualized guest?
A. HD (IDE)
B. SD (SCSI)
C. XVD
D. RAW
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
When an Oracle VM server starts, by default how does it map physical NICs to Xen bridges?
A. Each physical NIC is mapped to one or more virtual networks, each of which is assigned a Xen bridge.
B. One Xen bridge will be created for each physical NIC.
C. All physical NICs are mapped to a single Xen bridge.
D. No mapping of physical NICs to Xen bridges is done by default.
E. The first physical NIC is assigned to dom0\’s management; a Xen bridge is then created for each of the remaining cards.
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
In a hardware virtualized environment, which answers best describe the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blackback driver is used in the guest
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
What two steps are required to create a root repository in an Oracle VM server pool?
A. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with either a device path or an NFS path.
B. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.
C. Use the repos.py command with the–new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository and a device path.
D. Use the repos.py command with the path. –root option, along with either a device path or an NFS path.
E. Use the repos.py command with the–root option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.
Correct Answer: AE
Question 14:
When converting the hardware virtualized machine to full PV, the guest falls to boot. What line in VM? cfq is likely leftover from the HVM configuration?
A. listen = \’0.0.0.0\’
B. pae =1
C. builder=\’hvm\’
D. serial=\’pty\’
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
My suggestion is to use builder=\’hvm\’ because it works fine for once I failed to boot the server but when I made it builder=\’hvm\’ it booted fine. Another thing is if you use Linux os as a mother os then you can leftover this builder=\’hvm\’ but if you use windows2003 then you have to use builder=\’hvm\’.
Question 15:
In a hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest
Correct Answer: C
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Question 1:
You deploy more than one application to the same WebLogic container. The security is set on the JavaEE level and all deployed JavaEE applications use the same security roles. What is your recommendation for architecture with that requirement?
A. Combine all applications into a single one.
B. Define global roles on the WebLogic Domain level.
C. Use Ms. Active Directory to keep the roles there.
D. Use Oracle Identity and Access Management solution to simplify the management.
E. Keep role mapping in the external WebLogic Role Mapped developed for that solution.
Correct Answer: B
Note:
* Types of Security Roles: Global Roles and Scoped Roles
There are two types of security roles in WebLogic Server:
/ A global security role can be used in any security policy. Oracle provides several default global roles that
you can use out of the box to secure your WebLogic resource
/ A scoped role can be used only in policies that are defined for a specific instance of a WebLogic resource
(such as a method on an EJB or a branch of a JNDI tree). You might never need to use scoped roles. They
are provided for their flexibility and are an extra feature for advanced customers.
Incorrect:
Not E: Role mapping is the process whereby principals (users or groups) are dynamically mapped to
security roles at runtime. In WebLogic Server, a Role Mapping provider determines what security roles
apply to the principals stored a subject when the subject is attempting to perform an operation on a
WebLogic resource.
Because this operation usually involves gaining access to the WebLogic resource,
Role Mapping providers are typically used with Authorization providers.
Question 2:
When your WebLogic Server solution needs to be scaled out with additional capacity and you don’t want to add additional hardware, which three techniques should you use?
A. Assign more than one managed server to the physical hardware that allows better CPU utilization.
B. Assign more than one application to one managed server to better utilize threads within a single JVM process.
C. Assign the same application to more than one managed server to load balance requests between servers.
D. Assign the same heap size to the managed services across the cluster for easier control of the memory footprint
E. Create a virtualized environment with a hypervisor for an easier solution
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 3:
A highly available WebLogic cluster in UNIX is configured for automatic server migration. Node Manager is configured on both machines to start managed servers.
How should you simulate a managed server failure to test whether automatic server migration is working?
A. Shut down the managed server from the WebLogic console.
B. Shut down the managed server using the WLST command through Node Manager.
C. Run “kill -9” once to kill the managed server process.
D. Run “kill -9” to kill the managed server process, and run “kill -9” one more time if the managed server is restarting.
Correct Answer: A
Note:
*It is recommended that you shut down WebLogic Server instances through the Administration Console.
*If automatic server migration is enabled, the servers are required to contact the cluster leader and renew their leases periodically. Servers will shut themselves down if they are unable to renew their leases. The failed servers will then be automatically migrated to the machines in the majority partition.
Question 4:
A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?
A. Sessions can\’t be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.
B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying the application.
C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can\’t be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying applications.
D. Use a flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.
E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are preserved without any extra settings.
Correct Answer: D
Restrictions on Production Redeployment Updates
WebLogic Server can host a maximum of two different versions of an application at one time.
Note:
* When you redeploy a new version of an application, you cannot change: An application\’s deployment targets
An application\’s security model
A Web application\’s persistent store settings
To change any of the above features, you must first undeploy the active version of the application.
Incorrect:
*(not A)
Production redeployment enables you to update and redeploy an application in a production environment
without stopping the application or otherwise interrupting the application\’s availability to clients. Production
redeployment saves you the trouble of scheduling application downtime, setting up redundant servers to
host new application versions, manually manage client access to multiple application versions, and
manually retiring older versions of an application.
*(not C) Not dependent on whether the application is JRockit or Hotspot.
*(not E)
The production redeployment strategy is supported for:
Standalone Web Application (WAR) modules and enterprise applications (EARs) whose clients access the application via a Web application (HTTP).
Enterprise applications that are accessed by inbound JMS messages from a global JMS destination, or from inbound JCA requests.
All types of Web Services, including conversational and reliable Web Services, but not 8. x Web Services.
Production redeployment is not supported for:
Standalone EJB or RAR modules. If you attempt to use production redeployment with such modules, WebLogic Server rejects the redeployment request. To redeploy such modules, remove their version identifiers and explicitly redeploy the modules.
Applications that use JTS drivers. For more information on JDBC application module limitations, see JDBC Application Module Limitations in Configuring and Managing JDBC Data Sources for Oracle WebLogic Server.
Applications that obtain JDBC data sources via the DriverManager API; in order to use production redeployment, an application must instead use JNDI to look up data sources.
Applications that include EJB 1.1 container-managed persistence (CMP) EJBs. To use production redeployment with applications that include CMP EJBs, use EJB 2. x CMP instead of EJB 1.1 CMP.
Reference: Reference; Deploying Applications to Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, Redeploying Applications in a Production Environment
Question 5:
A common approach to solving application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which two reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?
A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.
B. Adding more hardware is costly and time-consuming.
C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded database, network appliance, or storage system.
D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 6:
A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multimode Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide significant performance benefits?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication
Correct Answer: C
XA Affinity and Failover When accessed within a global transaction, the member data source from which the JDBC connection was obtained is pinned to the global transaction for the life of the transaction. This ensures that all database operations performed on connections obtained from the Multi Data Source, for a particular transaction, all execute on the same RAC instance. XA affinity results in improved performance and is even a requirement for older versions of RAC, such as prior to 11g.
The XA failover is also supported by the Multi Data Source and transaction manager implementations. If a pinned RAC instance suffers a failure, then a global transaction can complete utilizing a different RAC instance using a connection obtained from one of the other member data sources.
Reference: Oracle WebLogic Server Active GridLink for Oracle Real Application Clusters(RAC)
Question 7:
A customer needs to implement a Highly Available solution for JMS that has a primary data center and a backup. Which three steps would you perform when designing your solution?
A. Store Transaction Logs in a database and use Database stores for JMS to make replication between sites easier.
B. Use file-based Transaction Logs and JMS stores and implement a separate replication solution for files in addition to the database in case database replication fails.
C. Implement Oracle RAC at each site to provide a highly available solution within each data center.
D. Configure Whole Server Migration to migrate WebLogic Managed Servers from the primary to the secondary site.
E. Configure Automatic Service Migration for JMS high availability within a data center.
Correct Answer: ACE
Note:
Question 8:
Which WebLogic optimization allows one non-XA resource to participate in a distributed transaction?
A. enabling Pinned to Thread
B. enabling Logging Last Resource
C. increasing the Statement cache size
D. setting the statement cache type to LRU
E. setting the initial and maximum capacity to the same number
Correct Answer: A
XA Affinity and Failover When accessed within a global transaction, the member data source from which the JDBC connection was obtained is pinned to the global transaction for the life of the transaction. This ensures that all database operations performed on connections obtained from the Multi Data Source, for a particular transaction, all execute on the same RAC instance. XA affinity results in improved performance and is even a requirement for older versions of RAC, such as prior to 11g.
The XA failover is also supported by the Multi Data Source and transaction manager implementations. If a pinned RAC instance suffers a failure, then a global transaction can complete utilizing a different RAC instance using a connection obtained from one of the other member data sources.
Reference: Oracle WebLogic Server Active GridLink for Oracle Real Application Clusters(RAC)
Question 9:
A customer has a Stock Watch application that publishes stock recommendations to different customers and programs. The stock recommendation message should be processed by only one of the JMS Servers in the cluster. Which JMS model should be used?
A. JMS Queue
B. Distributed JMS Queue
C. Uniform Distributed Topic
D. Partitioned Distributed Topic
Correct Answer: A
JMS queue
A staging area that contains messages that have been sent and are waiting to be read. Note that, contrary
to what the name queue suggests, messages don’t have to be delivered in the order sent. A JMS queue
only guarantees that each message is processed only once.
Incorrect:
Not B: (Only one queue required)
*A distributed destination is a set of destinations (queues or topics) that are accessible as a single, logical
destination to a client. A distributed destination has the following characteristics:
It is referenced by its own JNDI name.
Members of the set are usually distributed across multiple servers within a cluster, with each destination member belonging to a separate JMS server.
*A distributed queue is a set of physical JMS queue members. As such, a distributed queue can be used to create a QueueSender, QueueReceiver, and QueueBrowser. The fact that a distributed queue represents multiple physical queues is mostly transparent to your application.
Not Topic:
JMS topic
A distribution mechanism for publishing messages that are delivered to multiple subscribers.
Question 10:
A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multimode Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide a signification benefit?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC.
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication
Correct Answer: C
Active GridLink for Oracle RAC In Oracle WebLogic Server 10.3.4, a single data source implementation has been introduced to support an Oracle RAC cluster. It responds to FAN events to provide Fast Connection Failover (FCF), Runtime Connection Load-Balancing (RCLB), and RAC instance graceful shutdown. XA affinity is supported at the global transaction Id level. The new feature is called WebLogic Active GridLink for RAC; which is implemented as the GridLink data source within WebLogic Server.
Note:
* The WebLogic Server JDBC subsystem has supported Oracle RAC since WLS version 9.0, originally developed for Oracle9i RAC. This support is based on a particular type of data source configuration, called a multi-data source. A multi-data source is a data source abstraction over one or more individual data sources. It serves JDBC connections from each of the member data sources according to a specified policy.
A RAC multi-data source configuration requires that each member data source obtain connections to a particular RAC instance.
Reference: How-To: Use Oracle WebLogic Server with a JDBC GridLink Data Source
Question 11:
A customer needs to ensure that the number of threads servicing an application does not exceed the number of database connections available to the application. What steps must you take to address this situation?
A. Configure a Max Threads Constraint and add your application to the list of applications for the Constraint.
B. Configure a Work Manager with a Maximum Threads Constraint tied to the Connection Pool and configuration your application to use the Work Manager.
C. Configure a Work Manager with a Minimum Threads Constraint tied to the Connection Pool and configure your application to use the Work Manager.
D. Configure a global MaxThreads constraint and target it to the server or clusters where your application is deployed.
E. Configure the startup parameter “-Dwls-maxThreads” to be the same as the number of database connections configured.
Correct Answer: B
To manage work in your applications, you define one or more of the following Work Manager components:
Fair Share Request Class:
Response Time Request Class:
Min Threads Constraint:
Max Threads Constraint:
Capacity Constraint
Context Request Class:
Note:
*max-threads-constraint–This constraint limits the number of concurrent threads executing requests from the constrained work set. The default is unlimited. For example, consider a constraint defined with maximum threads of 10 and shared by 3 entry points. The scheduling logic ensures that not more than 10 threads are executing requests from the three entry points combined. A max-threads-constraint can be defined in terms of the availability of resources that requests depend upon, such as a connection pool.
A max-threads-constraint might, but does not necessarily, prevent a request class from taking its fair share of threads or meeting its response time goal. Once the constraint is reached the server does not schedule requests of this type until the number of concurrent executions falls below the limit. The server then schedules work based on the fair share or response time goal.
*WebLogic Server prioritizes work and allocates threads based on an execution model that takes into account administrator-defined parameters and actual run-time performance and throughput.
*WebLogic Server uses a single thread pool, in which all types of work are executed. WebLogic Server
Administrators can configure a set of scheduling guidelines and associate them with one or more applications, or with particular application components.
prioritizes work based on rules you define, and run-time metrics, including the actual time it takes to execute a request and the rate at which requests are entering and leaving the pool.
The common thread pool changes its size automatically to maximize throughput. The queue monitors throughput over time and based on history, determines whether to adjust the thread count. For example, if historical throughput statistics indicate that a higher thread count increased throughput, WebLogic increases the thread count. Similarly, if statistics indicate that fewer threads did not reduce throughput, WebLogic decreases the thread count.
This new strategy makes it easier for administrators to allocate processing resources and manage performance, avoiding the effort and complexity involved in configuring, monitoring, and tuning custom execute queues.
Reference: Using Work Managers to Optimize Scheduled Work
Question 12:
What are the three steps you should take to tune a JDBC Connection pool in WebLogic from the initial settings in a production environment?
A. Ensure the maximum size is increased to an appropriate setting.
B. Set the minimum and maximum size of the connection pool to the same value.
C. Increase the statement cache size.
D. Add more heap to the JVM.
E. Add more nodes to the cluster.
Correct Answer: ACE
A:
*Troubleshooting Slow Response Time from the Client and Low Database Usage These symptoms are
usually caused by a bottleneck upstream of the database, perhaps in the JDBC connection pooling. Monitor
the active JDBC connections in the WebLogic Console and watch for excessive waiters and wait times;
increase the pool size, if necessary.
*Attribute: Maximum Capacity
A maximum number of physical database connections that this connection pool can contain. Different JDBC
Drivers and database servers may limit the number of possible physical connections.
C: Attribute: Statement Cache Size
The algorithm used to maintain the statement cache:
LRU – After the statementCacheSize is met, the Least Recently Used statement is removed when a new statement is used.
Fixed – The first statementCacheSize number of statements is stored and stays fixed in the cache. No new statements are cached unless the cache is manually cleared.
E: If the queue appears starved but adding execute threads does not improve performance, there may be resource contention. Because CPU utilization is low, the threads are probably spending much of their time waiting for some resource, quite often a database connection. Use the JDBC monitoring facilities in the console to check for high levels of waiters or long wait times. Adding connections to the JDBC connection pool may be all that is required to fix the problem.
Note:
* If you had a JDBC connection pool where the Initial Capacity and Maximum Capacity attributes were different, you might want to create a gauge monitor to monitor the maximum and a minimum number of connections. By setting the Threshold Low value to be one less than the Initial Capacity, your gauge monitor trap could monitor the ActiveConnectionsCurrentCount attribute of the JDBCDataSourceRuntime MBean and alert you whenever the number of active connections is less than the Initial Capacity (which might indicate database connectivity problems).
Question 13:
You have a durable subscriber, and the subscriber is down or not reachable when the message is produced. Which two options regarding the expiry of these messages are true?
A. after the subscriber is unavailable for 10 minutes
B. when the subscriber is available
C. after the subscriber is unavailable for after an hour
D. are available until the specified time elapses
E. are expired instantly
Correct Answer: BD
By default, JMS messages never expire. When applications send messages to queues or topics with durable subscribers, WebLogic must retain the message until it is consumed. This is fine in most point-to-point messaging applications because consumers are constantly consuming messages. Any message sent to a queue will typically be consumed in a relatively short period of time.
If the consumers get disconnected, they will usually reconnect as soon as possible and start processing any messages that might have built up in the queue.
D: For durable subscribers to a topic, this is not necessarily true. The messaging system is forced to retain any message that has not been consumed by a durable subscriber, regardless of whether that durable subscriber will ever return. In this case, WebLogic is at the mercy of the durable subscriber to unsubscribe when it no longer wishes to receive the messages.
If the durable subscriber logic is flawed in such a way that the subscribers do not unsubscribe properly, the messaging system will start to fill up with messages that may never be delivered. This calls for real caution in using durable subscribers.
Fortunately, there is another way to help deal with this problem. Message expiration can be set at the connection factory level. Using a connection factory\’s default time-to-live attribute, we can specify the number of milliseconds that WebLogic should retain an undelivered message after it is sent.
Question 14:
Identify the two options that can be used to patch WebLogic Server without Incurring application downtime.
A. automated process using the Admin Server
B. automated using JDeveloper
C. manual process with or without Smart Update
D. scripted with WLST
E. automated process using Enterprise Manager 12c
Correct Answer: CD
Note:
* Rolling Upgrade is the process of upgrading a running WebLogic Server cluster with a patch, maintenance pack, or minor release without shutting down the entire cluster or domain. During the rolling upgrade of a cluster, each server in the cluster is individually upgraded and restarted while the other servers in the cluster continue to host your application.
Question 15:
WebLogic 12c, the Maven plug-in has been enhanced with which Maven goal?
A. wls: unzip, wls:install-domain, wls:start-domain, wls:wlst, wls:appc
B. wls: install, wls:install-domain, wls:start-domain, wls:wlst, wls:appc
C. wls: unzip, wls:create-domain, wls:start-domain, wls:wlst, wls:appc
D. wls: install, wls:create-domain, wls:start-server, wls:wlst, wls:appc:
Correct Answer: D
wls-maven-plugin–Delivered in WebLogic Server 12c, provides enhanced functionality to install, start and stop servers, create domains, execute WLST scripts, and compile and deploy applications.
Reference: Developing Applications for Oracle WebLogic Server, Using the WebLogic Development Maven Plug-In
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