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From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Last updated	Latest update
Leads4Pass	15	Oracle Database 12c SQL	1z0-071 dumps	2024

Question 1:

Which three statements are true about views in an Oracle database?

A. A SELECT statement cannot contain a where clause when querying a view containing a WHERE clause in its defining query

B. Rows inserted into a table using a view are retained in the table if the view is dropped

C. Views can join tables only if they belong to the same schema.

D. Views have no segment.

E. Views have no object number.

F. A view can be created that refers to a non-existent table in its defining query.

Correct Answer: BDF

Question 2:

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which statement will execute successfully, returning distinct employees with non-null first names?

A. SELECT DISTINCT * FROM employees WHERE first_ name IS NOT NULL;

B. SELECT first_ name, DISTINCT last_ name FROM employees WHERE first_ name IS NOT NULL;

C. SELECT Distinct * FROM employees WHERE first_ name < > NULL;

D. SELECT first_ name, DISTINCT last_ name FROM employees WHERE first_ name < > NULL;

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Examine the description of the transactions table:

Which two SQL statements execute successfully?

A. SELECT customer_id AS “CUSTOMER-ID”, transaction_date AS DATE, amount+100 “DUES” from transactions;

B. SELECT customer_id AS \’CUSTOMER-ID\’,transaction_date AS DATE, amount+100 \’DUES\’ from transactions;

C. SELECT customer_id CUSTID, transaction_date TRANS_DATEamount+100 DUES FROM transactions;

D. SELECT customer_id AS “CUSTOMER-ID”, transaction_date AS “DATE”, amount+100 DUES FROM transactions;

E. SELECT customer id AS CUSTOMER-ID, transaction_date AS TRANS_DATE, amount+100 “DUES AMOUNT” FROM transactions;

Correct Answer: CD

Question 4:

Examine the data in the NEW_EMPLOYEES table:

Examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table: You want to:

Update existing employee details in the EMPLOYEES table with data from the NEW EMPLOYEES table.

Add new employee detail from the NEW_ EMPLOYEES able to the EMPLOYEES table.

Which statement will do this:

A. MERGE INTO employees e USING new employees ne WHERE e.employee_id = ne. employee_ id WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET e.name = ne. name, e.job_id = ne.job_id,e.salary =ne. salary WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (ne. employee_id,ne.name, ne.job_id,ne.salary) ;

B. MERGE INTO employees e USING new_employees n ON (e.employee_id = ne.employee_id) WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET e.name = ne. name, e.job id = ne.job_id,e.salary =ne. salary WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (ne. employee_id,ne.name,ne.job_id,ne.salary);

C. MERGE INTO employees e USING new employees ne ON (e.employee_id = ne.employee_id) WHEN FOUND THEN UPDATE SET e.name =ne. name, e.job_id=ne.job_id, e.salary =ne.salary WHEN NOT FOUND THEN INSERT VALUES (ne.employee_id,ne.name,ne.job_id,ne.salary) ;

D. MERGE INTO employees e USING new_employees n WHERE e.employee_id = ne.employee_id WHEN FOUND THEN UPDATE SET e.name=ne.name,e.job_id =ne.job_id, e.salary=ne.salary WHEN NOT FOUND THEN INSERT VALUES (ne. employee_ id,ne. name,ne. job id,ne. salary) ;

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

You execute the following commands:

SQL > DEFINE hire date = \’01-APR-2011\’

SQL >SELECT employee_id, first_name, salary

FROM employees

WHERE hire_date > \’andhiredate\’

AND manager_id > andmgr_id;

For Which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?

A. none, because no input is required

B. both the substitution variables \’\’hiredate\’ and \’mgr_id\’.

C. only hiredate\’

D. only \’mgr_id\’

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

There is a parent/child relationship between EMPLOYEE_ID and MANAGER_ID.

You want to display the last names and manager IDs of employees who work for the same manager as the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 123.

Which query provides the correct output?

A. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_id FROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.manager_id = m.employee_id) AND e.employee_id = 123;

B. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_id FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.employee_id = m.manager_id) WHERE e.employee_id = 123;

C. SELECT e.last_name, e.manager_id FROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.employee_id = m.employee_id) WHERE e.employee_id = 123;

D. SELECT m.last_name, e.manager_id FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.manager_id = m.manager_id) WHERE e.employee_id = 123;

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which two queries return rows for employees whose manager works in a different department?

A. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp WHERE manager_ id NOT IN ( SELECT mgr.employee_ id FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. department_ id < > mgr.department_ id );

B. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT NULL FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. manager id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp.department_id<>mgr.department_id );

C. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp LEFT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp. department id < > mgr. department_ id;

D. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp RIGHT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee id AND emp. department id <> mgr.department_ id WHERE emp. employee_ id IS NOT NULL;

E. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp. department_ id<> mgr.department_ id;

Correct Answer: DE

Question 8:

Which three statements are true about Structured Query Language (SQL)?

A. It guarantees atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability (ACID) features

B. It best supports relational databases

C. It is used to define encapsulation and polymorphism for a relational table

D. It requires that data be contained in hierarchical data storage

E. It is the only language that can be used for both relational and object-oriented databases

F. It provides independence for logical data structures being manipulated from the underlying physical data storage

Correct Answer: ABF

Question 9:

Examine this SQL statement: SELECT cust_id, cus_last_name “Last Name” FROM customers WHERE country_id = 10 UNION SELECT cust_id CUST_NO, cust_last_name FROM customers WHERE country_id = 30 Identify three ORDER BY clauses, any one of Which can complete the query successfully.

A. ORDER BY 2, 1

B. ORDER BY “CUST_NO”

C. ORDER BY 2,cust_id

D. ORDER BY CUST_NO

E. ORDER BY “Last Name”

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 10:

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which query requires explicit data type conversion?

A. SELECT SUBSTR(join date, 1, 2) – 10 FROM employees;

B. SELECT join_ date + \’20\’ EROM employees;

C. SELECT join_ date`\’ salary FROM employees;

D. SELECT join _ date FROM employees WHERE join date > *10-02-2018\’;

E. SELECT salary + \’120.50\’ FROM employees;

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table:

Which two SELECT statements will return these results:

CUSTOMER_ NAME

Mandy

Mary

A. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer_ name LIKE \’ % a % \’ ;

B. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer name LIKE \’Ma%\’ ;

C. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer_ name=\’*Ma*\’;

D. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE UPPER (customer_ name ) LIKE \’MA*. ;

E. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer name LIKE \’Ma*\’;

F. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE UPPER (customer name) LIKE \’ MAand\’;

G. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer_ name KIKE .*Ma*\’;

Correct Answer: AB

Question 12:

View the exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.

Which SQL statement would retrieve from the table the number of products having LIST_PRICE as NULL?

A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price is NULL

B. SELECT COUNT (NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price is NULL

C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price i= NULL

D. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price is NULL

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which two are true about the USING clause when joining tables?

A. All column names in a USING clause must be qualified with a table name or table alias.

B. It can never be used with a natural join.

C. It is used to specify an equijoin of columns that have the same name in both tables.

D. It can never be used with a full outer join.

E. It is used to specify an explicit join condition involving operators.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 14:

Examine This Statement Which returns the name of each employee and their manager,

SELECT e.last name AS emp, m.last_name AS mgr

FROM employees e JOIN managers m

ON e.manager_ id = m. employee_ id ORDER BY emp;

You want to extend the query to include employees with no manager. What must you add before JOIN to do this?

A. CROSS

B. FULL OUTER

C. LEFT OUTER

D. RIGHT OUTER

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Examine this command:

TRUNCATE TABLE test;

Table truncated.

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. The structure of the TEST table is removed.

B. All the indexes on the TEST table are dropped.

C. All the constraints on the TEST table are dropped.

D. Removed rows can not be recovered using the ROLLBACK command.

E. All the rows in the TEST table are removed.

Correct Answer: AC

Share the latest 2024 Oracle 1z0-071 dumps exam questions and answers

From	Number of exam questions	Time
Leads4Pass	15/388	March 2024

Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?

A. displaying a date in a nondefault format

B. finding the number of characters in an expression

C. substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string

D. combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output

Correct Answer: ABC

In Oracle Database, SQL functions provide a wide range of capabilities for manipulating and transforming data. Among the tasks you can perform using built-in SQL functions in Oracle Database, the correct answers are:

A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format: Oracle provides the TO_DATE and TO_CHAR functions for working with date values. The TO_CHAR function, in particular, can convert a date to a string in various formats, allowing dates to be displayed in non-default formats according to the needs of the application or user preferences.

B. Finding the number of characters in an expression: The LENGTH function is used in Oracle to find the number of characters in a string expression. This function can be very useful for validation, formatting, or processing decisions based on the length of character strings.

C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string: The REPLACE function allows you to substitute all occurrences of a specified character string within a text expression with another string. This can be used for data cleaning, formatting, or manipulation tasks where certain text patterns need to be replaced with different text.

While option D (combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output) is a common task in SQL, it is typically achieved using the concatenation operator || rather than a specific built-in function. However, it’s important to note that functions like CONCAT can also be used for combining two values, but for more than two, you would generally use the concatenation operator directly in your SQL statements.

Thus, the correct answers as provided, A, B, and C, are tasks that can indeed be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database, highlighting the versatility and power of Oracle’s SQL function library for data manipulation and formatting.

Which two statements are true about Oracle databases and SQL?

A. Updates performed by a database user can be rolled back by another user by using the ROLLBACK command.

B. The database guarantees read consistency at the select level on user-created tables.

C. When you execute an UPDATE statement, the database instance locks each updated row.

D. A query can access only tables within the same schema.

E. A user can be the owner of multiple schemas In the same database.

Correct Answer: BC

In Oracle databases and SQL, the true statements among the options given are:

B. The database guarantees read consistency at select levels on user-created tables.

Oracle Database ensures read consistency, meaning that a query sees a consistent snapshot of the data as it existed at the point in time when the query began. This applies to all user-created tables. Oracle uses mechanisms such as undo data to provide this level of consistency, ensuring that readers do not block writers and vice versa. This feature is crucial for maintaining data accuracy and integrity during concurrent data access.

C. When you execute an UPDATE statement, the database instance locks each updated row.

Oracle employs row-level locking automatically when an UPDATE statement is executed. This means that when a row is being updated, it is locked to prevent other transactions from modifying it until the transaction is either committed or rolled back. This locking mechanism helps in maintaining data integrity and prevents update conflicts.

Now, let’s briefly address why the other statements are not true:

A. Updates performed by a database user can be rolled back by another user by using the ROLLBACK command.

This statement is not true. A ROLLBACK command can only affect the transaction of the session that issues it. One user cannot roll back the transactions of another user. Transactions are isolated among users/sessions, adhering to the ACID properties of database systems.

D. A query can access only tables within the same schema.

This statement is not accurate. A query can access tables in other schemas if the user executing the query has been granted the necessary permissions. Oracle allows cross-schema access through proper security and permission settings.

E. A user can be the owner of multiple schemas in the same database.

This statement is incorrect. In Oracle, a schema is essentially the same thing as a user. A schema is tied to a database user, and a user owns a single schema. However, a user can have objects in other schemas and can access objects in other schemas if permissions are granted.

Therefore, the correct answers are B and C, reflecting key aspects of Oracle’s database management and data integrity mechanisms.

Evaluate these commands Which execute successfully CREATE SEQUENCE ord_seq

INCREMENT BY 1

START WITH 1

MAX VALUE 100000

CYCLE

CACHE 5000;

Create table ord_items(

ord_no number(4) default ord_seq.nextval not null,

Item_no number(3),

Qty number(3),

Expiry_date date,

Constraint it_pk primary key(ord_no,item_no),

Constraint ord_fk foreign key (ord_no) references orders(ord_no));

Which two statements are true about the ORD_ITEMS table and the ORD_SEQ sequence?

A. Any user inserting rows into table ORD_ITEMS must have been granted access to sequence ORD_SEQ.

B. Column ORD_NO gets the next number from sequence ORD_SEQ whenever a row is inserted into ORD_ITEMS and no explicit value is given for ORD_NO.

C. Sequence ORD_SEQ cycles back to 1 after every 5000 numbers and can cycle 20 times

D. IF sequence ORD_SEQ is dropped then the default value for column ORD_NO will be NULL for rows inserted into ORD_ITEMS.

E. Sequence ORD_SEQ is guaranteed not to generate duplicate numbers.

Correct Answer: AB

You execute the following commands:

SQL > DEFINE hiredate = \’01-APR-2011\’

SQL >SELECT employee_id, first_name, salary

FROM employees

WHERE hire_date > \’andhiredate\’

AND manager_id > andmgr_id;

For Which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?

A. none, because no input is required

B. both the substitution variables \’\’hiredate\’ and \’mgr_id\’.

C. only hiredate\’

D. only \’mgr_id\’

Correct Answer: D

In the given SQL command sequence, there’s an attempt to use substitution variables with the DEFINE command and within the SELECT query. However, the way these variables are referenced in the query impacts whether you’ll be prompted for input.

The command:

DEFINE hiredate = ’01-APR-2011′

This sets a substitution variable hiredate to a specific date. In Oracle SQL*Plus or SQLcl, the DEFINE command is used to create or modify a substitution variable.

The query:

SELECT employee_id, first_name, salary
FROM employees
WHERE hire_date > ‘andhiredate’
AND manager_id > andmgr_id;

In this query, the intention seems to be to use the previously defined hiredate substitution variable and another variable mgr_id that hasn’t been defined within the provided commands.

The correct way to reference a substitution variable in SQLPlus or SQLcl is to precede it with an ampersand (&) for single substitution or double ampersands (&&) for defining a variable that retains its value after first substitution. However, the way hiredate is referenced ('andhiredate') is incorrect because of the quotes and the prefix ‘and’ instead of ‘&’. Due to this incorrect referencing, SQLPlus or SQLcl will not recognize it as a substitution variable within the context of this command. Thus, it will not prompt for its value; instead, it would treat 'andhiredate' as a literal string.

For the mgr_id variable, it is correctly referenced as andmgr_id; (assuming a typo in the question – it should be &mgr_id;), so SQL*Plus or SQLcl would prompt for its value because it’s correctly prefixed with an ampersand and hasn’t been defined prior to its use.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

D. only ‘mgr_id’

You will be prompted to input a value for the mgr_id substitution variable, because it’s the only one correctly, indicated as a substitution variable that hasn’t been defined prior.

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which two queries return rows for employees whose manager works in a different department?

A. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp WHERE manager_ id NOT IN ( SELECT mgr.employee_ id FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. department_ id < > mgr.department_ id );

B. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT NULL FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. manager id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp.department_id<>mgr.department_id );

C. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp LEFT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp. department id < > mgr. department_ id;

D. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp RIGHT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee id AND emp. department id <> mgr.department_ id WHERE emp. employee_ id IS NOT NULL;

E. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND

Correct Answer: DE

Examine the data in the PRODUCTS table:

Examine these queries:

SELECT prod name, prod list FROM products WHERE prod 1ist NOT IN(1020) AND category _id=1;

SELECT prod name, | prod _ list FROM products WHERE prod list < > ANY (1020) AND category _id= 1; SELECT prod name, prod _ list FROM products WHERE prod_ list <> ALL (10 20) AND category _ id= 1; Which queries generate the same output?

A. 1 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 2

Correct Answer: A

Examine the description of the PROMOTIONS TABLE:

You want to display the unique promotion costs in each promotion category. Which two queries can be used?

A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;

B. SELECT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions ORDER BY 1

C. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promoting ORDER BY 2:

D. select DISTINCT promo_categoryIl `has\’||promol_cost as COSTS FROM promotions ORDER BY 1:

E. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost ||\’in\’IIDISTINCT promo_category promotions ORDER BY1:

Correct Answer: AD

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which statement increases each employeeandapos;s SALARY by the minimum SALARY for their DEPARTM ENT_ID?

A. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary =(SELECT e2. salary + MIN(e2.salary) FROM employees e2 WHERE e1.department_ id = e2. department_id GROUP BY e2. department_id) ;

B. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary = salary + (SELECT MIN(e1. salary) FROM employees e2 WHERE e1.department_id = e2 .department_id);

C. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary = salary+(SELECT MIN (salary) FROM employees e2) ;

D. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary= (SELECT e1.salary + MIN(e2.salary) FROM employees e2 WHERE e1. department_ id = e2.department_id);

Correct Answer: D

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_LAST_NAME column of data type VARCHAR2.

The table has two rows whose CUST_LAST_NAME values are Anderson and Ausson.

Which query produces output for CUST_LAST_NAME containing Oder for the first row and Aus for the second?

A. SELECT REPLACE(REPLACE(cust_last_name, ‘son

Correct Answer: A

Which three statements are true about the DESCRIBE command?

A. It can be used by SQL Developer.

B. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view.

C. It can be used only from SQL*Plus.

D. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint.

E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column.

F. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that constraint.

Correct Answer: ABD

The DESCRIBE command in Oracle Database is a useful tool for understanding the structure of database objects. Here are the true statements regarding the DESCRIBE command:

A. It can be used by SQL Developer.

True. SQL Developer, a popular integrated development environment (IDE) for working with Oracle Database, allows users to execute the DESCRIBE command to view the structure of database objects, such as tables, views, and more.

B. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view.

True. The DESCRIBE command can be used to display the structure of a view, including information about the columns that constitute the view.

C. It can be used only from SQL*Plus.

False. While the DESCRIBE command is commonly associated with SQL*Plus, Oracle’s command-line interface, it can also be used in other environments, such as SQL Developer, SQLcl, and other tools that interface with Oracle Database.

D. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint.

True. When you use the DESCRIBE command on a table, it will indicate which columns have the NOT NULL constraint applied to them.

E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column.

False. The DESCRIBE command provides a concise overview of the structure of a table or view, including column names, data types, and whether a column is nullable. However, it does not display all types of constraints (like CHECK, UNIQUE, FOREIGN KEY) that are defined for each column. For comprehensive constraint information, data dictionary views such as USER_CONSTRAINTS and USER_CONS_COLUMNS would need to be queried.

F. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that constraint.

False. Similar to statement E, the DESCRIBE command does not explicitly show if a column is part of a PRIMARY KEY constraint. Information about primary keys can be obtained by querying the appropriate data dictionary views.

Given these clarifications, the correct answers are A, B, and D.

You must create a SALES table with these column specifications and data types: (Choose the best answer.)

SALESID: Number STOREID: Number ITEMID: Number QTY: Number, should be set to 1 when no value is specified SLSDATE: Date, should be set to the current date when no value is specified PAYMENT: Characters up to 30 characters, should be set to CASH when no value is specified

Which statement would create the table?

A. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT = 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT = “CASH”);

B. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT \’SYSDATE\’, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT CASH);

C. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT = 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT = “CASH”);

D. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT \’CASH\’);

Correct Answer: D

The correct statement to create the SALES table with the specified column specifications and data types, along with default values, is:

D. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT ‘CASH’);

This statement correctly uses the DEFAULT keyword to specify default values for columns without the need for an equals sign (=), uses SYSDATE for the current date without quotes, and correctly encloses the string default value ‘CASH’ in single quotes, as per SQL syntax requirements.

View the exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and CUSTOMERS tables.

Which INSERT statement should be used to add a row into the ORDERS table for the customer whose CUST_LAST_NAME is Roberts and CREDIT_LIMIT is 600? Assume there exists only one row with CUST_LAST_NAME as Roberts and CREDIT_LIMIT as 600.

A. INSERT INTO (SELECT o.order_id, o.order_date, o.order_mode, c.customer_id, o.order_total FROM orders o, customers c WHERE o.customer_id = c.customer_id AND c.cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND c.credit_limit=600) VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), 1000);

B. INSERT INTO orders (order_id, order_date, order_mode, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), order_total) VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, andcustomer_id, 1000);

C. INSERT INTO orders VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), 1000);

D. INSERT INTO orders (order_id, order_date, order_mode, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), order_total) VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, andandcustomer_id, 1000);

Correct Answer: C

Which two statements are true regarding the GROUP BY clause in a SQL statement? (Choose two.)

A. You can use column alias in the GROUP BY clause.

B. Using the WHERE clause after the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows after creating groups.

C. The GROUP BY clause is mandatory if you are using an aggregate function in the SELECT clause.

D. Using the WHERE clause before the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows before creating groups.

E. If the SELECT clause has an aggregate function, then those individual columns without an aggregate function in the SELECT clause should be included in the GROUP BY cause.

Correct Answer: DE

In SQL, the GROUP BY clause is used to arrange identical data into groups with the help of aggregate functions like SUM(), AVG(), MAX(), MIN(), and COUNT(). Let’s address the true statements among the provided options:

A. You can use column alias in the GROUP BY clause.

False. Most SQL databases do not allow the use of column aliases in the GROUP BY clause because the GROUP BY operation occurs before the selection of columns (and thus before aliases are applied). Aliases are typically allowed in the ORDER BY clause.

B. Using the WHERE clause after the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows after creating groups.

This statement seems to be misleadingly formulated. The WHERE clause is actually used before the groups are created, to filter rows entering into the aggregation process. The HAVING clause is used to filter groups after they have been created by the GROUP BY clause.

C. The GROUP BY clause is mandatory if you are using an aggregate function in the SELECT clause.

False. You can use aggregate functions in the SELECT clause without a GROUP BY clause if you are aggregating over the entire result set. The GROUP BY clause is only mandatory if you want to aggregate data in grouped subsets of the entire result set.

D. Using the WHERE clause before the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows before creating groups.

True. The WHERE clause filters rows before they are grouped by the GROUP BY clause. This allows for the exclusion of certain rows from the groups based on specific criteria.

E. If the SELECT clause has an aggregate function, then those individual columns without an aggregate function in the SELECT clause should be included in the GROUP BY clause.

True. This is a fundamental rule of SQL. When using aggregate functions in a SELECT statement that also selects individual columns, those individual columns must be included in the GROUP BY clause to define how the data should be grouped for the aggregation to apply.

Therefore, the correct answers are D and E, as they accurately describe how the GROUP BY clause functions in a SQL statement.

Which two actions can you perform with object privileges?

A. Create roles.

B. Delete rows from tables in any schema except sys.

C. Set default and temporary tablespaces for a user.

D. Create FOREIGN KEY constraints that reference tables in other schemas.

E. Execute a procedure or function in another schema.

Correct Answer: DE

Object privileges in Oracle and other SQL databases refer to the rights to perform specific actions on database objects (such as tables, views, procedures, etc.) owned by another user. These privileges must be granted explicitly to a user or a role by the owner of the object or a user with the GRANT OPTION privilege for that object. Among the given options, the two actions that can be performed with object privileges are:

D. Create FOREIGN KEY constraints that reference tables in other schemas.

This action requires the REFERENCES object privilege on the table in the other schema that you want to reference with a FOREIGN KEY constraint. This privilege allows a user to define a foreign key that references the primary key or a unique key of the table owned by another user.

E. Execute a procedure or function in another schema.

This action requires the EXECUTE object privilege on the specific procedure or function. With this privilege, a user can execute a stored procedure or function that is owned by another user.

Let’s clarify why the other options are not correct in the context of object privileges:

A. Create roles.

Creating roles is not an object privilege but a system privilege. Roles are database objects that group together other privileges (both system and object privileges) that can be granted to users or other roles.

B. Delete rows from tables in any schema except sys.

Deleting rows from a table requires the DELETE object privilege on that specific table. However, the privilege is specific to each table and does not inherently allow deletion from tables in any schema except SYS by default.

C. Set default and temporary tablespaces for a user.

Setting default and temporary tablespaces for a user is an action related to user account management, not an object privilege. It requires ALTER USER system privilege or equivalent administrative rights.

Therefore, the correct answers are D and E, as they are actions that can be directly associated with object privileges in a database.

Reference: http://www.cruzroja.es/help/wvtdbobp.htm

Examine the description of the COUNTRIES table:

Examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS table:

Examine the description of the LOCATIONS table:

Which two queries will return a list of countries with no departments? (Choose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: BD

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Lead4Pass	15	Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional	1z0-1046-22 dumps

New Question 1:

A manager returned from US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his source location of the UK Subsidiary. Which is the option a Human Resource representative should exercise to reinstate the manager\’s records in the source legal employer?

A. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.

B. Entering the return will automatically reinstate the record on the return date.

C. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfiled to capture the return date. Update this segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.

D. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignment\’s in the source legal employer is reinstated automatically on the return date.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

For the Change Manager transaction. the first-level approval is set to the Application Role type. The name of the application role is HR Specialist Sales. In the Change Manager approval rule configuration, the Enable Auto Claim option is deselected.

Which two actions take place when the transaction for manager change is initiated for employees? (Choose two.)

A. The transaction has to be approved by all HR Specialist Sales representatives for it to be approved.

B. If one of the HR Specialist Sales representatives rejects the transaction, others can still approve it.

C. One of the HR Specialist Sales representatives should “Claim” the transaction for it to be assigned for approval.

D. The transaction goes for approval to all the workers who inherit the HR Specialist Sales role.

E. The transaction goes into error because it was not auto-claimed.

F. The transaction will be auto-claimed and assigned randomly to anyone who has the HR Specialist Sales role.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 3:

You are implementing Core HR for a customer. Work timings, standard working hours, organization manager, and cost center information must be captured while setting up the work structure. Identify the organization type against which you can maintain all these fields.

A. Reporting Establishment

B. Department

C. Business Unit

D. Legal Entity

E. Enterprise

F. Division

Correct Answer: B

New Question 4:

As an implementation consultant, you have been assigned the task of configuring the Person Name Format within Workforce Information. Which two configurations can be done through this task? (Choose two.)

A. the name fields that appear in the Person Details section when you are hiring an employee

B. the appearance of a worker\’s name when it appears in search results

C. what name fields are required when completing the Person Details section when hiring or updating a worker\’s person details

D. the way a worker\’s name appears on top of employee-level pages

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 5:

In an organization, a line manager is going on a long vacation and wants all his approval notifications to flow to his supervisor for approval in his absence.

How can he accomplish this task?

A. A system administrator always has to reassign the approval notification to the supervisor in the line manager\’s absence.

B. The application automatically delegates the approval to his supervisor based on the leave applied for by the line manager.

C. He has to configure new approval routing policies.

D. A Vacation rule can be set under the Preferences section of worklist notification\’s Human Capital Management server.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 6:

As an implementation consultant, you have been assigned the task of configuring Person Spotlight within HCM Experience Design Studio. Which two configuration changes can you make to the Person Spotlight pages? (Choose two.)

A. Reorder the pages/tabs of Person Spotlight.

B. Change the content that displays within a page/tab.

C. Add additional pages/tabs.

D. Change the name of a page/tab.

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 7:

An HR administrator is unable to enter the details of an intern due to the unavailability of the right choice of values. The HR administrator is unaware that the worker type “Intern” has not been set up in the application. Select four valid system person types (which are part of the person model) that the HR administrator should be aware of. (Choose four.)

A. Contract Worker

B. Person of Interest

C. Contingent Worker

D. Employee

E. Non-Worker

F. Pending Worker

Correct Answer: CDEF

New Question 8:

You are a Global Resources Implementation consultant and your client wants to track external training within the worker talent profile. What steps should you follow to create this new content type, and ensure it displays on the Skills and Qualifications page?

A. Create a new content item, create a new content type, and link the content item to the person’s profile.

B. Create a new content type, create content items for that type, and link the content type to the model profile.

C. Create a new content type, create content items for that type, and link the content type to the person’s profile.

D. Create a new content item, create a new content type, and link the content item to the model profile.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 9:

As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals under Manage Employment tasks as Auto Approve. Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for auto-approval? (Choose two.)

A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.

B. Set up dynamic approval rule.

C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.

D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.

E. Select the Number of Levels as 0.

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 10:

An organization is running a fitness program. They want to identify a Fitness Representative who will be responsible for a group of people in the organization. How should you set this up?

A. Create a new job Fitness Representative and associate that with the person.

B. Define the person\’s area of responsibility to reflect Fitness Representative.

C. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfield to capture the information.

D. Deploy a Key Flexfield to capture the information.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 11:

An organization wants to include a security profile in an HCM data role and then provision the data role to a user. Identify the option which lists the HCM object types for which the security profiles can be created.

A. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Location, Grade, Document Type, Payroll, Payroll Flow

B. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Location, Grade, Document Type, Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process

C. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Country, Grade, Document Type, Payroll, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process

D. Person, Organization, Position, Legislative Data Group, Country, Document Type, Payroll, Payroll Flow, Payroll Flow, Workforce Business Process

Correct Answer: D

New Question 12:

Which two statements are true about Action and Action Reasons? (Choose two.)

A. There is always a one-to-one relationship between Action Type and Action.

B. It is mandatory to associate Actions with Action Reasons.

C. The history of effective date changes can be tracked well by using the Actions framework.

D. Terminations predictive analytics uses Actions and Reasons data to identify whether a termination is voluntary or involuntary.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 13:

A manager checks the availability of a worker. The manager is not aware that the worker does not have a work schedule assigned.

Which of the three items will be used to determine the availability of a worker? (Choose three.)

A. Calendar Events

B. Absences

C. Standard Working Hours

D. Time Sheet

E. Contract Data

Correct Answer: ABC

New Question 14:

Which three options are true about the Global Person model? (Choose three.)

A. Person records are global, independent of legal employers, and created only once for any person. If the person leaves the enterprise, the person\’s work relationships are terminated.

B. Person records continue to exist even when the person has no current work relationships in the enterprise and no current contact relationships with other workers.

C. Person records cease to exist when a person is terminated from an organization.

D. Person records hold information that is personal, such as name, date of birth, and disability information, or that may apply to more than one work relationship, such as national ID.

E. Person records are auto-archived two years after a person is terminated from an organization.

Correct Answer: ABD

New Question 15:

As a Line Manager within an organization, you are able to perform a search on restricted worker information within the Directory. What values are you able to search that other workers and HR administrators are unable to within the Directory?

A. work location, department, job title, and school education

B. work location, department, areas of expertise, and areas of interest

C. worker competencies, languages, licenses and certifications, and school education information

D. work location, department, and languages

Correct Answer: D

…

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Question 1:

You are setting up Oracle Cloud Sourcing. You would like participants to provide Insurance and Freight cost for the quotation/RFQ (Request For Quotation) lines. Identify the configuration that will fulfill this requirement.

A. Add Cost Factors for Freight and Insurance

B. Personalize the negotiation UI (User Interface) to add the Freight and Insurance attributes.

C. Add negotiation lines separately to capture Freight and Insurance.

D. Define a negotiation style and enable DFF (Descriptive FlexField) for Freight and Insurance

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Your customer requires that a consignment order should automatically get created whenever a self-service requester creates a purchase requisition. Identify the setup required to fulfill this requirement.

A. Select the “Source from consignment” check box and set “Urgent” to “Yes” during requisition creation through self-service.

B. Assign all the requisition lines to the consignment buyer.

C. Enable all the requisition line items to be sourced from the consignment source.

D. Create a consignment agreement with touchless buying options enabled in the Controls tab to automatically generate orders.

Correct Answer: A

How can I create a purchase order for consignment inventory items? You begin by creating a purchase order with a document style for a consignment order. Choose your consignment supplier and add the consignment items to this order.

Verify that the items were sourced by consignment agreement and that Consignment Line is checked on the line.

Submit the order for approval.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/procurementcs_gs/OAPRC/OAPRC1007479.htm

Question 3:

A customer wants to be able to see the recoverable and nonrecoverable components of inclusive taxes in addition to existing exclusive taxes on purchase orders. In the Manage Configuration Owner Tax task, which option can achieve this?

A. Enable the Supplier Inclusive Tax for Calculated Tax option, for purchase orders.

B. Enable the Allow Supplier Tax Variance Calculated Tax option for purchase orders.

C. Enable the Inclusive Treatment for Calculated Tax option for purchase orders.

D. Enable the Enforce Calculated Tax from Reference Document option for purchase orders.

E. Enable the Exclusive Treatment for Calculated Tax option for purchase orders.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Identify three profile options that are used to configure Self Service Procurement. (Choose three.)

A. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

B. POR_DISPLAY_CATEGORY_ITEM_COUNT

C. PO_PRC_AGENT_CATEGORY_ASSIGNMENT

D. POR_SEARCH_RESULTS_SKIN

E. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

Correct Answer: ACE

Embedded Analytics is dependent on the availability of Oracle Business Intelligence and Analytics Applications. In addition, the profile POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS needs to have been set to Yes before the metrics are visible to

end users.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E48434_01/doc.1118/e49610/F1007477AN13B51.htm

Question 5:

During an Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, you have been asked to provide View access to all purchasing documents to all buyers in Procurement Business Unit

A. What will you do to configure this change?

B. Define all buyers as employees in procurement Business Unit A.

C. Configure a new document style and assign it to each buyer in “Manage Procurement Agent.”

D. Modify “Configure Procurement Business Function” for procurement Business Unit A and provide access to all buyers.

E. Update each buyer\’s access using “Manage Procurement Agent” for procurement Business Unit A.

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Identify two activities that a Buying Organization will be able to perform after it provides the Supplier Portal access to Suppliers. (Choose two.)

A. Create Negotiation flow internally on behalf of prospective suppliers.

B. Import supplier data and related entities.

C. Consolidate suppliers and supplier sites to clean up duplicate suppliers or support supplier acquisitions.

D. Evaluate prospective suppliers by routing their registrations through a collaborative review process by using a flexible rules engine.

E. Collect information about prospective suppliers through a self-guided registration flow.

Correct Answer: DE

E: The buying organization can collect information about the products and services categories supplied by the company on the registration flow by enabling Products and Services using the Configure Supplier Registration flow.

D: The Supplier Registration process is used by companies to submit their registration request in order to become a supplier of the buying organization. The buying organization then reviews the registration request using a collaborative review

process and determines if it wants to consider this company as a new source of supply.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E56614_01/procurementop_gs/OAPRC/F1007476AN1079E.htm

Question 7:

While creating a Contract Purchase Agreement, a buyer tries to add a Contract Template to it, but the List of Values (VOL) is empty. Identify three applicable reasons for this issue.

A. The Contract Template is in `Approved\’ status.

B. The document type associated with the Contract Template is `Purchase Order\’.

C. The document type associated with the Contract Template is `Contract Purchase Agreement\’.

D. The Contract Template is not `Approved\’.

E. The document type associated with the Contract Template is `Blanket Purchase Agreement\’.

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37017_01/doc.1115/e22658/F424214AN124DD.htm

Question 8:

In Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI), which subject area should you use to report on spend for purchase orders and their associated requisitions?

A. Procurement

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

You are creating a Purchase Order based on the style `Cloud Purchasing Style\’. While entering a Purchase Order line, you find that the line type named GOODS is available but the line type named LINE does not appear. Identify a reason for this behavior.

A. The line type LINE is not among the selected line types for the document style `Cloud Purchasing Style\’.

B. The Goods check box is not checked for the Purchase Bases field of the Commodities option in the `Create Document Style\’ task.

C. The status of the `Cloud Purchasing Style\’ is not Active.

D. Display Name for the Purchase Order is not set in the `Create Document Style\’ task.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

While configuring offerings, you deselected the “Supply Chain Financial Orchestration of Procurement Flows” check box and locked the feature. However, because of changes in the business requirements, you are required to enable the feature. Identify the prerequisite step to perform this change.

A. Navigate to the “Select Feature Choices” page of the Procurement Offering and unlock the feature.

B. Set the implementation status to “In Progress” of the Procurement Offering.

C. Change the Provisioned to “No” of the Procurement Offering.

D. Deselect the “Enable for Implementation” check box of the Procurement Offering.

Correct Answer: D

If you used Inventory Management intercompany functionality prior to Release 9, then after your upgrade to Release 9, you must do the following to enable inter-company supply chain flows using Supply Chain Financial Orchestration: References:

Oracle Procurement Cloud Release 9 Whats New (5 May 2015), page 24

Question 11:

Which seeded role needs to be associated with the supplier user account so that a supplier can respond to the invited negotiations?

A. Supplier Bidder

B. Supplier Customer service representative

C. Supplier Contract Manager

D. Supplier Self-Service Administrator

E. Supplier Sales Representative

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

During Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, one of the requirements of the customer is to capture the revision history of Purchase Orders when `notes to receiver\’ is entered or updated as part of a Change Order. Identify the setup that needs to be performed in order to capture change history when a user updates `notes to receiver\’ as part of the Change Order.

A. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in Configure Requisitioning Business Function\’ for the requisitioning Business Unit.

B. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in Common Payables and Procurement Options\’ for the procurement Business Unit.

C. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in the Change Order template for the Purchase Order.

D. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in the supplier site assignment for the supplier site.

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Your organization has multiple procurement business units. A Qualification manager wants to launch an initiative for the assessment of suppliers. However, the manager is unable to select the qualification model that he or she defined earlier. Identify the cause for this behavior.

A. The qualification model is not yet approved.

B. The Qualification manager is not defined as a procurement agent.

C. The Qualification manager does not have the “Manage Suppliers” action enabled in the procurement agent definition.

D. The Qualification manager has not selected the correct procurement BU.

Correct Answer: C

Supplier Managers are derived from the users defined in procurement agents. All procurement agents with Manage Suppliers function for the BU that the registration was created will receive the approval notification. References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/procurementcs_gs/OAPRC/OAPRC1007476.htm

Question 14:

Identify two correct statements about Local area and Contextual areas in the common UI Shell. (Choose two.)

A. Local area includes components that directly affect the Contextual area.

B. Local area can drive the contents of the regional area and the contextual area.

C. Local area is the main work area and typically contains the transaction form.

D. Contextual area provides quick access to tools that support the business processes.

E. Contextual area can drive the contents of the local area.

Correct Answer: AC

Local Area: The local area is in the center of the UI Shell where users do their work. It is the main work area and typically contains the transaction form with the menus and controls that enable users to be productive. Controls in, and the

content or state of, the local area generally affects the contents of the contextual area.

Main Area: This term designates the combination of the Local Area and the Contextual Area. Contextual Area: The contextual area is in the right-hand pane of the UI Shell, with controls and contents that generally are affected by controls in,

or the content or state of, the local area; although in specific cases the contextual area can also affect the contents of the local area (causing a local area to reload).

References:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E36909_01/fusionapps.1111/e15524/ui_impl_uishell.htm

Question 15:

While creating a Purchase Order, you observe that the system is defaulting Net 30 as the payment term instead of the intended payment term Net 15. Identify two ways to achieve the desired default. (Choose two.)

A. Set Net 15 for the supplier site.

B. Set Net 30 for the supplier site and leave the payment term blank in procurement options.

C. Update Net 15 in procurement options and leave the payment term blank for this supplier at all levels.

D. Update Net 15 in procurement options and Net 30 for the supplier site.

Correct Answer: AB

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Question 1:

Your company is looking for a simplified method for managing a group of reports. Identify the type of report used in WMS Cloud that compiles multiple existing reports into a single document while executing each report in a single order.

A. CrossTab Report

B. Express Report

C. Linked Report

D. Chained Report

E. Standard Report

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Your customer wants to receive an IB shipment and capture pallet weight at the time of receiving. Which parameter must be set in the Receiving RF screen to meet this requirement?

A. Set Capture-catch-weight as “Prompt for catch wt”.

B. Set Mode as Blind-ASN Receiving.

C. Set rch-sku-not-on-shmnt to “Prompt for catch wt”.

D. Set Single-Sku-management as Assume Single SKU.

E. Set Blind-License Plate Number-receive-mode as by SKU scan.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/owm70/owmcs_gs-cloud/OWMRN/OWMRN.pdf

Question 3:

Your customer wants to store the inventory in Active and Reserve locations after receiving it. Inventory is

received in cases pack quantity and assigned to an IBLPN. Inventory is categorized into Bin Shelves and

Bulk flow items and the item’s dimensions are available in WMS Cloud.

Which three putaway configurations are required to meet this? (Choose three.)

A. Locations Size type and Item Putaway item should be configured prior to Putaway

B. Putaway rule overrides Putaway priority and selects the location based on the item dimension

C. Putaway rule will act according to the Priority defined.

D. This is not supported in WMS Cloud.

E. Selection Criteria will evaluate and apply the Putaway priority.

F. Putaway priority will drive the location selection.

Correct Answer: AEF

Question 4:

You have hired a new employee to do picking in the warehouse. The employee complains that he/she cannot work because the RF Picking transactions are not displayed as one of the RF options. Which two scenarios will cause the transaction to be missing as an RF option in the user\’s menu? (Choose two.)

A. The RF Picking transaction is not associated with her/his group\’s assigned RF Menu.

B. The employee\’s Group has a blank RF Menu.

C. The employee is assigned to the “Supervisor” group.

D. The employee\’s email is not set up in his/her user profile.

E. The employee has forgotten his/her password.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 5:

You are creating a standard report for a client to display LPN Numbers (for multi-SKU LPNs) and their associated items. The two data fields you have in your report are LPN Number and Item Code. Identify what controls need to be set to create a sub-total for the number of items for each LPN.

A. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for LPN.

B. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Total” and check the Group By box for LPN.

C. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for Item.

D. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Total” and check the Group By box for the item.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which five combinations of lot and expiry date are valid scenarios in WMS Cloud? (Choose five.)

A. Two IB LPNs of the same item have different lots and the same expiry dates.

B. Two IB LPNs of the same item have the same lot and the same expiry date.

C. The IB LPNs have an item with the same lot and different expiry dates.

D. An item is lot-tracked but not expiry-date-tracked.

E. An item is expiry-date-tracked but not lot-tracked.

F. Two IB LPNs of the same item have different lots and different expiry dates.

Correct Answer: BCDEF

Question 7:

In which two ways can you execute the detail cycle count of LPN Detail by SKU scan? (Choose two.)

A. using “Cycle Cnt” screen with screen parameter content-count set to “SKU -scan”

B. using “Cycle count for LPN deferred/immediate updates” with screen parameter SKU scan mode set to “By Sku Scan”

C. using the “Resv Nbr Cnt” screen and with screen parameter content-count set to “SKU -scan”

D. using “Cycle Cnt” screen with screen parameter content-count set to “Null”

Correct Answer: BD

Question 8:

Your customer is a Third Party Logistics operator (3PL) and ships multiple customer\’s orders from two centralized facilities, one on each coast of the country. How do you set up the Facility, Company, and User hierarchy in the system (in sequential order)?

A. Because of the distance between Facilities, you recommend two WMS Cloud instances for your customer.

B. Create the 3PL\’s customer\’s Companies first, then the Users, next assign customers and Users to the Facilities, and finally create an Admin account for the 3PL in each facility.

C. Create the Parent 3PL Company, then the Facilities, next the Companies, and next re-create each User in each facility he or she is eligible for work.

D. Create the Parent 3PL Company, then nested Locations Zones to represent the facilities and the customer Companies and finally add the Users.

E. Create the Parent Company as the 3PL, then the two facilities, next the Users in the facilities, and the Companies that represent the customers, and the users to the companies.

Correct Answer: E

Question 9:

The following configuration is set for the Advance Shipment Notification type: 10% Under Receipt Warning, 10% Over Receipt Warning, and 20% Over Receipt error. Which two statements match the condition set if the ASN Qty is 100? (Choose two.)

A. When the Operator receives 125 units, the RF screen displays an Over Receipt warning message.

B. When the Operator receives 101, the RF screen displays an Over receipt warning message.

C. When the Operator receives 110, the RF screen displays an Over Receipt warning message.

D. When the Operator receives 89, the RF screen displays an Under Receipt warning message.

E. When the Operator receives 130 units, the RF screen displays an Over Receipt error message.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 10:

You are performing the Split IB LPNs RF transaction and seeing an error message: Shipment Verification

status mismatch.

Which three are valid? (Choose three.)

A. The from-IBLPN and the to-IBLPN might be received against two different ASNs respectively.

B. This error message will disappear if the RF screen parameter required-validations is set up as No Validation.

C. This error message will disappear if the RF screen parameter split-uom is left bank.

D. If the to-IBLPN is received via the Recv Shipment RF transaction, the from-IBLPN might be from the Create RF transaction.

E. The from-IBLPN and the to-IBLPN might be received against the same ASN.

Correct Answer: BCE

Question 11:

Identify the export type that is not supported in an Express Report.

A. CSV

B. RTF

C. PowerPoint

D. Excel

E. PDF

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

You are using the WMS Cloud at the Stores as well as the DC. Your workflow at that Store requires that you quickly pick up orders for the customer when they arrive. Which configuration allows you to achieve this workflow requirement?

A. Create an Order Type with the flag “Allocate during Pick” enabled so that you can pick chargesat the store without waving.

B. Set the Order Type to “Pick Without Wave”. This allows the RF options to automatically pick up those orders and display them to pickers.

C. Create a Flow-Through process and configure each customer\’s address as a “Designation Location”

D. Change the Order Type to “Rush” and wave it because the customer is waiting.

E. Create a wave template with Wave Template Type “Store”, then the wave will allocate orders in a FiFO sequence.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/owm70/owmcs_gs-cloud/OWMRN/OWMRN.pdf

Question 13:

As an Inventory Super User, you are configuring LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet fields at Item Details

screen.

Which statement is true about LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet?

A. LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet are used to define a number of Ob LPN per tier during shipping.

B. LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet are used to define a number of IB LPN per tier during receiving.

C. LPNs per tier and Tier per Pallet are used to define the standard number of LPNs acceptable per pallet during receiving.

D. LPNs per tier and Tiers per pallet are used to define the standard number of case and pack for an Item during receiving.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://learn.oracle.com/ords/launchpad/learn?page=item-masterandcontext=0:44189:44200

Question 14:

Which three configurations are required to sort the SKU A and B while receiving? (Choose three.)

A. An IB Shipment Type should be created to receive Purchase Order with sort SKUs.

B. Use Custom Field in Vendor UI to map the item that needs to be sorted.

C. Break Rule with Criteria needs to be set for the Sorting Rule.

D. Receive Station Location for Sorting should be created and mapped with the Sorting Rule.

E. Putaway Type should be configured for the SKU.

F. The Locations Size type should be defined for each Receive Station Location.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 15:

You are configuring the WMS Cloud to have multiple facilities and, as an added measure of control, you

want to easily identify the facility by looking at the barcode printed on the outbound carton.

Identify two valid configurations that are available in the Sequence Counter UI that you can use for the

OBLPN. (Choose two.)

A. You can set up the count increment in Facility 1 to increase by 1, the count increment in Facility 2 to increment by 2, and so on.

B. You can set up the sequence counter OBLPN to “Append Facility Code to Prefix”.

C. You can specify different counts for the different facilitates within the Sequence Counter.

D. You can configure the sequence length for this facility to be different from the other facilities.

E. You can specify the “Color Code” in the Sequence Counter.

Correct Answer: BC

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Question 1:

You are implementing the entire suite of Supply Chain Management Cloud for an auto component manufacturing and distribution company. This company has a manufacturing facility where different auto electrical components are produced to fulfill the demand that originates from various customers. One of the components that the company sells to its customers requires specialized operations; therefore, the company outsources it to an external manufacturer instead of producing it in its own facility.

Which two steps are required to fulfill the demand for this component through outsourced manufacturing? (Choose two.)

A. Define this component as an Item with the “Contraanufacturing” field enabled and the “Make or Buy” attribute set to “Buy.”

B. Define this component as an Item with the “Contract Manufacturing” field enabled and the “Make or Buy” attribute set to “Make.”

C. Select the Customer Sales Order Fulfillment check box under the Procurement offering.

D. Create a sourcing rule of the Buy type for this component in the selling inventory organization.

E. Model the manufacturer to which the component production is outsourced as a Supplier in the enterprise.

F. Create a sourcing rule of the Make type for this component in the selling inventory organization.

Correct Answer: BE

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17c/scmcs_gs/FAIMS/FAIMS1823005.htm#FAIMS1922710

Question 2:

Identify the task that the seeded Warehouse Operator role can perform.

A. monitor and release sales orders for picking in the warehouse

B. search for a pick slip and confirm it

C. process and confirm outbound shipments

D. generate outbound shipping documentation

E. generate pick slips for picking material for outbound material movement

Correct Answer: B

The warehouse operator does the following work:

Pick loads, including monitoring and performing the picking activity, and create pick slips for outbound shipments, replenishment, and requisition.

Search for a pick slip and confirm the pick slip in a single action.

Question 3:

How does Order Management interact with multiple fulfillment systems to fulfill sales order lines?

A. It has a web service broker that routes requests from the Fulfillment Task Layer.

B. It has a web service broker that routes requests from the External Interface Layer.

C. The Fulfillment system routing is defined in the orchestration.

D. The sales order lines are converted to Fulfillment Lines and fed to the Fulfillment systems.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

You are in the process of setting up a constraint that prohibits update to an extensible flexfield in a fulfillment line if Ship From Warehouse is X and the fulfillment line is booked. You are able to see the extensible flexfield on the “Manage Constraint Entities” page but not on the “Manage Processing Constraints” page.

What could be the reason?

A. The “generate packages” program was not submitted.

B. The “Publish extensible flex field” process was not run.

C. The extensible flexfield is not enabled.

D. A “Record Set” needs to be created for the extensible flexfield to be visible on the “Manage Processing Constraints” page.

Correct Answer: D

A record set is a group of records that are bound by common attribute values for the purpose of constraint evaluation. You can define conditions and specify a record set to be validated for a given condition as defined by the validation template.

Question 5:

Your company wants to default the preferred fulfillment warehouse and scheduled ship date as the order requested date during order import and skip the scheduling task for a particular order type.

What are the two business rules that must be configured to achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Define a branching condition rule.

B. Define a lead time expression rule.

C. Define a line selection criteria rule for the scheduling task.

D. Define a compensation pattern rule.

E. Define a pre-transformation defaulting rule.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 6:

Identify the Order Management configuration setup that must be performed by a system administrator in order to define an external source system connector.

A. The source system needs to be called by using the web service from Cloud Order Management.

B. The source systems link needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

C. The connector service needs to be registered by using Manage Web Service.

D. The source system needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

You are using the Check Availability feature to explore alternative ways of promising a batch of five fulfillment lines in simulation mode.

Which three attributes can you change to explore other promising options? (Choose three.)

A. Requested Quantity

B. Requested Ship-from warehouse

C. Requested shipping method

D. Allow substitute items

E. Requested ship date

F. Scheduled ship date

Correct Answer: BCD

The values for the attributes that begin with requested, such as the Requested Item attribute and the Requested Ship-from Warehouse attribute, are initially determined by what the values are when you select the line in the Order Orchestration work area. You cannot change the values for many of the requested attributes, such as the Requested Item attribute, the Requested Quantity attribute, and the Requested Ship Date attribute.

You can change or clear the values for the Requested Ship-from Warehouse attribute and the Requested Shipping Method attribute. There are also some additional attributes you can change, such as whether substitutions are allowed, to influence the results when you explore other promising options.

Question 8:

Your company has a cost-of-change policy that changes a customer when the order is allocated, with no changes allowed after the goods are staged.

Which fulfillment status will trigger compensation and impose charges on the customer when the sales order quantity is changed?

A. Backordered

B. Ready to Release

C. Released to Warehouse

D. Staged

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E51367_01/scmop_gs/FAOFO/F1433056AN132D9.htm

Question 9:

Identify two tasks that are used to set up statuses in the orchestration process configuration in the Functional Setup Manager. (Choose two.)

A. Manage Orchestration Status Values

B. Manage Task Status Condition

C. Manage Status Values

D. Manage Orchestration Status

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

Which change mode takes a snapshot at the stages mentioned below:

When the orchestration process starts When a change order is received at an orchestration process step

A. Incremental

B. Simple

C. None

D. Advanced

Correct Answer: D

http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/fusion-apps/orderorchestrationguide-e22707-01-1514572.pdf

Question 11:

In which fulfillment process does a specific sales order demand trigger a supply creation, and a firm link is established between the sales order and the supply?

A. Consignment order

B. Internal Transfer

C. Configure to order

D. Back-to-back

E. Drop Ship

Correct Answer: D

The back-to-back fulfillment process is one in which specific sales order demand triggers supply creation, and a link is established between the sales order and the supply.

Question 12:

Your company is in the business of selling kitchen appliances.

Which three entities can you include while defining pricing rules that control how Oracle Pricing Cloud calculates the price each time? (Choose three.)

A. Shipping change lists

B. Discount List

C. Pricing Profile

D. Pricing Strategy

E. Cost List

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 13:

Your company wants to notify the external system when there is a high possibility that an order is going to be delayed.

Which four steps are required to invoke the external system connector to notify that an order is going to be delayed? (Choose four.)

A. Set up the Jeopardy threshold for the orchestration process task.

B. Set up the lead time for the orchestration steps in the orchestration process definition.

C. Register the web service connector.

D. Create a routing rule for the orchestration process task.

E. Enable a business event trigger point for Jeopardy and associate the connector.

F. Set up the Use Defined Lead time in the Available To Promise Rule.

Correct Answer: ABDE

Question 14:

Your company wants to define different status conditions for fulfillment lines that have different categories assigned to a single orchestration process in Order Management Cloud. Which two configurations would you perform to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Define a fulfillment line status rule set for each category.

B. Create a unique step for each category and assign different “next expected task statuses.”

C. Define orchestration process status values for each category.

D. Assign the status catalog to the orchestration process.

Correct Answer: CD

An orchestration process is a predefined business process that coordinates the orchestration of physical goods and activities within a single order and automates order orchestration across fulfillment systems.

Question 15:

Which two statements are true about the functional capabilities of Oracle Cloud Configurator? (Choose two.)

A. For users who do not have access to Oracle Fusion Product Hub, Oracle provides an alternative option to create models directly in the workspace area.

B. Only the optional structure and attributes of a Product Item are imported from Product Hub to Configurator and not the mandatory elements because they cannot be configured by an end user.

C. Multiple drafts of the same model can be modified at the same time, but they must be in different workspaces.

D. The user interface pages are tightly connected to the model. You cannot add, delete, or reorder pages without affecting the model structure.

Correct Answer: BC

“Configurator models are imported from items maintained in Oracle Fusion Product Hub (which is accessed by the Product Information Management work area) that have a Structure Type of Model. Only the optional structure and attributes of the product item are imported because the required elements of the product item cannot be configured by an end user. The option classes and optional standard items for each model item are also imported.” “Configurator models are versioned objects.

A model can go through multiple drafts before being released in a series of versions. There can be multiple drafts of the same model being modified at the same time, but they must be in different workspaces. A message notifies you if you add a model to a workspace when another draft exists in another workspace. There can only be a single released version of a model with the same effective start date.”

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Question 1:

Which two tasks must be defined to set up the Facilities Schedule?

A. Manage Facility Time Cards

B. Manage Facility Operations

C. Manage Facility Workday Patterns

D. Manage Facility Shifts

E. Manage Facility Holidays

Correct Answer: CD

Question 2:

Your client has decided that Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage, so any new supply from current manufacturing will be added to the current inventory by the Open Transactions Interface. The immediate requirement is to go live with Inventory and Order Management.

Which two seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control?

A. Average Cost Update

B. Miscellaneous Issues and Receipts

C. All Transaction Types Related to Work in Process

D. All Internal Transactions

E. Backflush Subinventory Transfer

Correct Answer: CE

Question 3:

Which attribute value allows the usage of common inventory for project-specific demand?

A. Allow use of common supplies: No andHard Pegging Level: Project Group

B. Allow use of common supplies: Null and Hard Pegging Level: Project Group

C. Allow use of common supplies: No and Hard Pegging Level: Project and Task

D. Allow use of common supplies: Null and Hard Pegging Level: None

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which three values are applicable for the profile option ?; Transaction Processing Mod”; for subinventory transfer and inter-organization transfer? (Choose three.)

A. Background Processing

B. Blind Processing

C. Online Processing

D. Offline Processing

E. Sequential Processing

F. Concurrent Processing

Correct Answer: ACF

Question 5:

Your client wants the purchasers to be able to run the min-max plan for items under their control and then manage the POs created out of these. Which parameters can they use to be able to do this?

A. From Planner to Planner

B. From Buyer to Buyer

C. From Item to Item

D. Sort by

E. Planning Level

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.

A. Changes to a reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain Orchestration work area.

B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand inventory.

C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.

D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.

E. One reservation is created for demand and supply.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 7:

You have a high-value item that you want to audit on an unscheduled basis to deter pilfering. Which two methods could you use to do this? (Choose two.)

A. Based on Item Category

B. Manual Cycle Count

C. Blind Inventory Count

D. ABC Count

E. Automated Cycle Count

Correct Answer: AB

Question 8:

You defined an Inventory Organization that is meant to track the contract manufacturing process outsourced to a supplier.

Where do you mention that this Inventory Organization is meant for one particular supplier?

A. Manage Inventory Organizations

B. Manage Contract Manufacturing Relationships

C. Manage Item Organizations

D. Manage Subinventories

E. Manage Inventory Organization Locations

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which two statements are true in regard to using the EnterpriseStructures Configurator?

A. The guided interview-based process helps you set up the enterprise with best practices.

B. It recommends job and position structures.

C. It creates a chart of accounts.

D. It allows you to create your Enterprise, Business Units, and Warehouses in a single step.

E. You cannot modify the recommendation from the tool. You must do it after you perform the initial configuration.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 10:

Your client wants certain inventory items of high importance to be counted periodically to improve the average level of inventory accuracy.

What type of counting would you recommend?

A. Serialized Count

B. ManualCount

C. Cycle Count

D. Zero Quantity Count

E. Blind Count

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

As part of implementing Oracle Cloud for your customer, you defined multiple Business Units. The customer wants you to define an Inventory Organization that is associated with all the business units and not just one particular business unit.

How do you achieve this?

A. It is not possible to define an Inventory Organization that is associated with more than one business unit.

B. Define the Inventory Organization without associating it with any location.

C. Leave the Management Business Unit field blank in the Inventory Organization definition.

D. Leave the Profit Center Business Unit field blank in the Inventory Organization definition.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Your organization has lot-controlled and non-lot-controlled material and stores all defective material in a subinventory called “Defect.” The organization does not want defective material to be available for reservations or for subsequent shipping to customers.

Which option satisfies this requirement?

A. Put a hold on the lot.

B. Disallow all inventory transactions for the subinventory “Defect.”

C. Assign the subinventory a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.

D. Tag the lot as a defective product.

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Your company is an automobile spare manufacturing organization, which follows a discrete process. It has its own manufacturing and distribution centers located globally. It has these business units: US – USA business unit CAN – Canadian business unit UK – UK business unit MX – Mexican business unit IND – India business unit SPA – Spain business unit FRA – France business unit NL – Netherlands business unit GER – Germany business unit These are the inventory organizations that exist in each business unit: Inventory Org – business unit

GM (Master Org) – US US1 (Child Org) – US US2 (Child Org) – US CA1 (Child Org) – CAN MX1 (Child Org) – MX IN1 (Child Org) – IND SP1 (Child Org) – SPA FR1 (Child Org) – FRA NL1 (Child Org) – NL DE1 (Child Org) – GER Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Items defined in the GM organization can be assigned to US1, US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.

B. You can define an item in the IN1 inventory organization and assign it to the DE1 inventory organization.

C. Item organizations are also supported to serve as inventory organizations.

D. Operational Attributes can be controlled only at the Master Level.

E. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same business unit to assign items.

F. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across business units.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 14:

For an Item to be enabled for the back-to-back order process, which attribute do you need to set?

A. Organization attribute: Allow Back to Back Processing

B. Item attribute: Allow purchase orders off of sales orders

C. Item attribute: Reservations Enabled

D. Item attribute: Back-To-Back Enabled

E. Organization attribute: Allow Reservations

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Which three statements are true regarding PAR Location Management?

A. If the stock level falls below the target on-hand quantity for the locator, inventory generates the appropriate replenishment document based on the item sourcing for the subinventory.

B. PAR location management replenishment is calculated at the organization level or subinventory level.

C. A receipt is required on inter-organization expense destination transfer orders between the from and to organizations

D. Periodic Automated Replenishment (PAR) enabled facilities that do not store perpetual inventory (such as hospitals) to perform locator-level replenishment.

E. Organizations can perform locator-level stock counting for both quantity and non- quantity tracked sub-inventories.

Correct Answer: CDE

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Question 1:

Which two are use cases for Management Reporting?

A. Creating drill-through analyses using rich visualizations

B. Creating statutory reports withXBRL Support

C. Creating reports with narrative reporting

D. Creating a book of static reports.

E. Creating static reports against an on-premise Hyperion Planning data source

F. Creating static reports against a Planning and Budgeting Cloud (PBCS) data source

Correct Answer: AB

Question 2:

During the author phase, what are the two ways to reset the workflow on a doclet?

A. Restart the docket.

B. Delete the doclet from the Report Package.

C. Once a document is submitted, you cannot change the status.

D. Reject the document.

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/eprcs_common/MRPRO/managing_the_author_phase _144971.htm#MRPRO-GUID-1FC20A0D-7A84-41E3-B9DF-27577755A558

Question 3:

Which two items are true about creating Custom Applications in Enterprise Performance Reporting Cloud Service?

A. Dimensions and their members are assigned to a model to the group and manage them for data entry and reporting.

B. Up to three Custom Applications can be created per environment.

C. Up to five models can be utilized within an application.

D. In order to load data to a Custom Application, the models and Dimensions must first be deployed and the application validated.

E. Only Service Administrators and/or Application Administrators can create a Custom Application.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 4:

Which statement about the setup of Disclosure Management security is NOT true?

A. It grants access to master documents and dockets using Explorer in the Disclosure Management Smart View extension.

B. Permissions available for Disclosure Management include View and Administrator

C. It grants access to master documents and dockets by using Access Control Lists (ACLs).

D. It defines permissions for Disclosure Management artifacts from the EPRCS web client.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

If you want to add a logo to your Doclets, where would you make this update?

A. Author Phase

B. Report Package

C. Style Sample

D. Design Phase

E. Format Grid

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

What operations can you NOT perform within the Validation mode of Disclosure Management?

A. check and validate the XBRL mappings against the metadata in the taxonomy

B. provide error messages from the mapping tool

C. show details of mappings in the document

D. use XBRL taxonomy schema rules and calculations to validate data accuracy and compliance

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Which two file formats are supported by Management Reporting?

A. .des

B. HTML

C. Excel

D. PDF

E. .epr

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/eprcs_common/ADEPR/ADEPR.pdf

Question 8:

You need to add the number 10 to column A in a management report. Which two are acceptable formula syntaxes for doing this?

A. SUM([A],10)

B. SUM(A, 10)

C. =SUM([A],10)

D. =SUM(A, 10)

E. [A]+10

F. A+10

Correct Answer: CD

Question 9:

Which is FALSE about managing the Sign Off Phase?

A. You cancel the Sign Off and reopen the Report Package for more editing.

B. If you determine that no changes are necessary as a result of a Signer\’s Rejection, you can resend the Sign Off request without unlocking (the report package.

C. When the Sign Off Request action takes place on a Report Package the report package status is Changed to “Sign Off In Progress.”

D. After a Sign Off Instance is created, no edits can be made to the Report Package content.

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Which of the following is a snapshot of the Report Package when you create this, the system renders

all of the checked-in versions of the Doclets into a draft version of the report?

A. Reference Doclet

B. Review Instance

C. Review Phase

D. Review Cycle

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/eprcs_common/MRPRO/managing_the_review_phase _106336.htm#MRPRO-GUID-0CF6217E-D109-4E34-953A-952339F416FE

Question 11:

You have created a package and want to include data that can be only downloaded and viewed. What type of document would you use?

A. Approved

B. Doclet

C. Reference

D. Supplemental

E. Finalized

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

Which are valid steps when creating a Package?

A. Create Report, Add Users, Apply Security, Distribute

B. Report Center, Create Doclet, Apply Phases, Approval. Finalize

C. Create Package, Assign Phases, Add Doclet, Organize Sections, Add Author

D. Design, Author, Review, and Approve

E. Create Doclet, Add Package, Apply Users/Groups, Add Author

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which two statements are TRUE about Alias Tables utilized within a Custom Application?

A. Additional Alias Tables cannot be deleted after they have been created.

B. Additional alias tables for dimension members can be viewed in the Detailed View of the web user interface.

C. Additional alias tables for dimension members can be viewed when querying data in Smart View.

D. The initial Alias Table is named “Default” but can be renamed as needed.

E. Additional alias tables for dimension members can be viewed in the Table View of the web user interface.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 14:

Which two methods can be used to delete an existing management report grid?

A. Press the X button in the top right-hand corner.

B. Right-click the grid and choose Delete.

C. within Report Actions, select Delete.

D. Drag and drop the grid off of the report.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

Which three steps are required for the validation process performed during Instance Document generation?

A. Confirm the report language used.

B. Validate the taxonomy.

C. Generate the instance document.

D. Create the Instance document.

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation: Validation is a three-step process. First, you validate the taxonomy. The next step is the generation of the instance document, which creates an XML file associated with the instance document. XBRL is an XML-based framework and relies on XML syntax to declare semantic meaning such as XLink and XML Schema. The last step is the creation of the instance document, which can be exchanged with other business entities or filed with a regulatory agency.

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/eprcs_common/UDEPR/generating_instance_docu ments_182x8e51bd9f.htm

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Question 1:

From which two dates defined in the period can you schedule reconciliations? (Choose two.)

A. end date

B. prior period end date

C. close date

D. start date

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/GUID-52A3F1EF-7D35-41F5-A284-861268631470.pdf

Question 2:

Which statement is always true of data loads from Data Management?

A. You must select either Actual or Budget as the scenario for the data.

B. You cannot load data into reconciliations with a status of Closed.

C. Only users with the administrator role can run data loads.

D. If there is no change in the balance, the reconciliation is not updated.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which keyword in a Teams import file identifies the section with the team members?

A. #team_children

B. #team

C. #team_items

D. #dependents

Correct Answer: A

#team_children identifies a list of team members Chapter 19-9 https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/adarc/GUID-3B2518AE-A5E5-44CD-A032-5CB119F087FE.pdf

Question 4:

Which two Bank File formats does Account Reconciliation support using pre-built adapters in Data Management? (Choose two.)

A. SWIFT MT940

B. BAI

C. EDI

D. XML

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/erpia/considerations_for_arcs_102x30053848.html

Question 5:

Which statement about loading pre-mapped balances is FALSE?

A. You can drill back into the ERP from the reconciliation screen.

B. You must select a currency bucket for the import.

C. You must select a period to which to load the balances.

D. You can import from either tab-separated or comma-separated files.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/admin_import_premapped_balances_102xfdf77b0f.html

Question 6:

You want to load balances for both the Entered currency bucket and the Functional currency bucket in a single data load. Which tool should you use?

A. `Import pre-mapped balances\’ option on the Periods page

B. Data Management data load rule

C. Smart View

D. Supplemental Data Management form

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Which is required for a valid profile?

A. at least one level of review

B. at least one question

C. at least one rule

D. at least one currency bucket

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

In a reconciliation profile, the Account Payable Reviewers team is assigned as the reviewer, and you want to require that ALL team members approve the reconciliation. Which action should you perform?

A. In the Instructions tab of the profile, add instructions for all team members to review the reconciliation.

B. On the Workflow tab of the Profile, select All Reviewers in the Require Action By field.

C. Add a rule of the type Require Team Review to the Rules tab.

D. Do not select a Primary User for the Account Payable Reviewers team.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/GUID-52A3F1EF-7D35-41F5-A284-861268631470.pdf (105)

Question 9:

When a user requests that responsibility for reconciliation be reassigned to John, who is another regular user, John should be able to approve the request. How can this be configured?

A. In his User Preferences, John should select the Approve Reassignments option.

B. Add John to the Reassignment Approvers security group.

C. On the Reassignment Requests tab in System Settings, in the Allow Reassignment Request Approval By option, select Users.

D. On the Manage Users tab of the Access Control page, assign John the Reassignment Approvers role.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/admin_reassignment_requests_latest.108xe8804cd8.html

Question 10:

In which row does an unmatched transaction with an accounting date of April 30th display in the period-end reconciliation for May 31?

A. It is excluded from the report

B. Unmatched Supported

C. Matched In Transit

D. Unmatched

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/GUID-66348188-2CE7-4B0E-B239-0EBB40EC1C5F.pdf

Question 11:

Where can a service administrator navigate to view, by the user, how many reconciliations were completed on time, how many are late, and how many were rejected?

A. Reconciliations List

B. Overview Dashboard

C. Compliance Dashboard

D. Worklist

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/GUID-66348188-2CE7-4B0E-B239-0EBB40EC1C5F.pdf (2-14)

Question 12:

Which statement regarding user-defined attributes is FALSE?

A. You can assign access by user role.

B. They can include calculated values.

C. They can be assigned default values.

D. You can no longer add/edit attributes after reconciliations are created.

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Which is NOT an attribute type for reconciliation compliance attributes?

A. Yes/No

B. True/False

C. Number

D. Location

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_attributes_define_100xd4952d5d.html

Question 14:

Which two statements are correct about deleting reconciliations? (Choose two.)

A. The reconciliation status must be Pending.

B. Only the preparer of the reconciliation can delete the reconciliation.

C. The balances loaded for a period are not deleted when the reconciliation is deleted.

D. Only a Service Administrator or a Power User can delete a reconciliation.

Correct Answer: CD

Only the admin or power user can delete the recon

Question 15:

Which ability does NOT belong to users with the Power User role?

A. edit formats to which they are assigned access

B. prepare reconciliations

C. review reconciliations

D. edit profiles to which they are assigned access

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/cgsad/4_managing_epm_cloud_users_roles_arcs.html

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Question 1:

Your client needs to associate a product item with a product group but cannot make the association. What should you check to identify the cause?

A. Validate that the product item is active and published.

B. Verify that Eligible for Service is selected on the product item.

C. Verify that Root Catalog is selected on the product groups.

D. Validate that AllowDuplicate is selected on the product item.

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

Which four actions does the REST API for Service Requests (SRs) allow?

A. Update SR milestone

B. Create SR

C. Update SR assignee

D. Delete SR by SR number

E. Delete SR by SR title

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 3:

You need to extract all Service Request (SR) data from your Engagement Cloud site from the last 12 months.

Identify two valid approaches to get this large volume of data.

A. You can schedule a single export as an ESS job (also known as a “scheduled process”) for all 12 months of SR data.

B. You can download large volumes of SR data from the Analytics interface.

C. You must retrieve large volumes of data through a REST API endpoint.

D. You can schedule incremental exports as ESS jobs (also known as a “scheduled process”) on a periodic basis, such as weekly or monthly.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 4:

What four actions do the as-delivered Service Request components included in a Digital Customer Service (DCS) application enable a DCS user to do?

A. Chat with an Agent about a service request.

B. View and edit attachments to a Service Request.

C. Create a Service Request.

D. Delete a Service Request.

E. Add a message to a Service Request.

Correct Answer: ABCD

Question 5:

When creating localized Digital Customer Service applications, in which order would you perform the following steps?

1. Update the English message as needed for your DCS application.

2. Export the English language message bundle.

3. Translate the English message bundle to all desired languages.

4. Import translated message bundles.

A. 1,3,2,4

B. 3,2,4,1

C. 2,4,3,1

D. 1,2,3,4

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which two are required to publish a completed Digital Customer Service (DCS) application?

A. a single “publish” action to complete the task

B. nothing (DCS applications are always available to all users.)

C. moving the application to Stage and subsequently to Production status

D. system administrator approval

Correct Answer: BC

Question 7:

Your client has already established a product catalog of sales products and now wants to include service products to categorize service requests. You suggest the creation of a new catalog.

What are the two advantages of creating a new service catalog instead of using an existing one?

A. requires less work and effort

B. allows the use of a simpler hierarchy

C. allows the display of a product hierarchy specifically for service purposes

D. allows you to use the same product hierarchy as the sales

Correct Answer: AD

Question 8:

You created two assignment rules for service requests using the Use Score option. For some service requests, both rules return a result with the same total points.

What will be the expected result in the assignment of a queue for these service requests?

A. An error will occur; no queue is assigned to the service request.

B. The queue defined in the first evaluated rule is always assigned to the service request.

C. The queue defined by default is the one assigned to the service request.

D. The service request assignment will be unpredictable.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Select three correct limits and restrictions when importing data from a file.

A. Both create and update operations are available for imported records.

B. By default, the import starts immediately after it is activated.

C. Groovy Scripts and object workflows that have been configured for the object being imported are always executed.

D. The maximum number of records in each CSV file should not exceed the maximum limit of 10,000,000 records.

E. If the values in the imported CSV file contain a new line character, then they must be enclosed within quotation marks.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 10:

Your customer sells a wide variety of Mobile phones. To classify service requests efficiently you plan to create a new primary category called Mobile Phones.

Which four steps are required to define this new category?

A. Select Create Category > Create Top-Level Category.

B. Check the Active flag.

C. Select the task Manage Service Request Categories.

D. Select Status = “Active”.

E. Select Service Catalog in Functional Areas.

F. Select Create Category > Create Child Category.

G. Complete Category Name.

Correct Answer: ACDF

Question 11:

Identify the sequence of steps you must follow to disable the Service Communication channels.

A. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Click the pencil icon in the Features column for Service > Deselect all the options.

B. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Select the “Disable” column in “Service entitlements”

C. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Click the pencil icon in the Features column for Communication Channels > Deselect the “Communication” option.

D. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Click the pencil icon in the Features column for Service > Deselect the “Communication Channels” option.

E. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Deselect the “Enable” column in “Communication Channels”.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Which three statements are true about building Digital Customer Service (DCS)applications?

A. Many DCS applications can be active in production at the same time.

B. DCS includes a “reference implementation template” that illustrates recommended implementation practices.

C. Only one version of a DCS application can be active in production at any time.

D. DCS application can be embedded in other sites.

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 13:

If you want to disable the ability to delete activities for all users, what action should you perform?

A. Remove the “delete activities” button from all pages used by the users who have this access.

B. Remove the “delete activities” role from all the users who have this role.

C. Remove the “delete activities” privilege from all the roles for users who have this access.

D. Remove the users of the roles who have the “delete activities” access.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Your customer has noticed that emails are being retrieved every day only at 3:00 PM. This behavior began three days ago and no configuration changes were made during that time.

What is the cause of this new behavior?

A. a configured job to process inbound emails

B. an inbound message filter per time schedule

C. a configured profile option to schedule the retrieval of emails

D. an inbound message filter per sender

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Your customer has informed you about a possible error in the screen pop-up when receiving a call. The problem is that the edit contact screen pop is shown whenever a call is received but most of the time the calls are regarding open Service Requests. As a result, agents have to navigate to that page, losing time and being ineffective.

What is causing the problem?

A. Rules do not follow an order. When a call is received, the “edit contact” screen pop appears because it is the default rule that has been selected, regardless of the service request number or other tokens received.

B. Rules follow a priority order. When the system finds a contact token it automatically opens the “edit contact” page, because that rule has been configured before the Service request rule, regardless if a service Request token is also available.

C. A configuration in the pages tab of the screen pop is missing, the URL to the page to be displayed has not been provisioned. The URL is empty so the system shows the contact edit page.

D. Screen pops are not configurable. When a call arrives, the system automatically opens the page of the object in question, these cases being the contact page.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 1:

Which three security design principles can help reduce overall security maintenance and troubleshooting, while still balancing security control? (Choose three.)

A. Creating groups over assigning individual access permissions to users

B. Configuring single sign-on (SSO)

C. Assigning a higher level role than necessary, then scaling back access permissions

D. Using inherited permissions

E. Assigning global read access to each cube, then fine-tuning none and write access within dimensional security

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 2:

In Projects, which three types of revenue and expense assumptions drive data calculations? (Choose three.)

A. Project rates

B. Standard rates

C. Discount rates

D. Program mappings

E. Plan start year

F. Working days and hours

Correct Answer: ADF

Question 3:

In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have to import members? Choose the best answer.

A. Pay Type

B. Property

C. Component

D. Account

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/ wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html

Question 4:

Which three are predefined Workforce business rules? (Choose three.)

A. Transfer

B. Plan Departure

C. Promote Employee

D. Change Job

E. Remove Existing Employee

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 5:

Which statement describes info lets? Choose the best answer.

A. Infolets help you personalize focused data slices that you frequently use for analysis.

B. Infolets help you quickly analyze data and understand key business questions by presenting a visual overview of high-level, aggregated information.

C. Infolets are predefined dashboards that give you insight into overall project financials and expense and revenue metrics.

D. Infolets help you organize, track, and prioritize your workload.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/pfusu/EPM-INFORMATIONDEVELOPMENT-TEAM-E94218-6693400D.pdf (page: 8-1)

Question 6:

Which describes Strategic Modeling? Choose the best answer.

A. Used to evaluate financial scenarios and perform financial impact analysis.

B. Used to evaluate how assets and resources related to corporate initiatives are allocated

C. Used primarily for balance sheet planning

D. Used to develop plans and forecasts and generate core financial statements

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/ about_strategic_modeling_104x7f015aa0.html

Question 7:

Which card allows you to enable modules? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Valid Intersections

B. Data Maps

C. Overview

D. Settings

E. Configure

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/ proj_enabling_project_features__100xd3780265.html

Question 8:

What three time period management tasks can you perform in Strategic Modeling? (Choose three.)

A. Combine periods of years, halves, quarters, months, and weeks for historical forecast data.

B. Configure time periods to reflect the detail required by financial models, such as different levels of granularity for different years.

C. Enable the input option for upper-level time periods when you add time detail.

D. Create period-to-date, trailing periods, deal periods, and sub-periods to record transactions.

E. Select and combine periods of years, halves, quarters, months, and weeks for the beginning balance year.

Correct Answer: ACE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbug/GUID-AECB402159B2-4C88-AFEE-92FB04D92C21.pdf (7-30, 7-31)

Question 9:

Which two statements are true regarding the creation and management of business rules in module-based Planning? (Choose two.)

A. Pre-defined business rules for modules may be modified but may be ignored after an application upgrade.

B. Custom business rules for modules can only be created using the graphical designer.

C. Custom business rules can be created for each module.

D. Modules cannot use regular business rules. Instead, they must be scripted using Groovy.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 10:

You want to share detailed benefits data from Workforce with Financials.

Which statement describes the steps you must take? Choose the best answer.

A. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. When enabling Workforce, create a custom Benefits dimension to map the data to. Then for the Financial Statement Integration data map, synchronize and push the data.

B. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. Then in the Workforce Benefits and Taxes wizard, select a financial account to map the benefit too. For Compensation Data, synchronize and run the data map.

C. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. When enabling Financials, create a custom Benefits dimension to map the data to. On the Financials Integration Summary form, run Calculate Compensation to update the Workforce data.

D. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. Then to capture Workforce expenses for employees, enable Standard Rates from Workforce. For the Compensation Data for Reporting data map, synchronize and then push the data.

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Which two client requirements align with using an ASO plan type alongside the module-based plan types? (Choose two.)

A. The client would like to plan revenue by Product and Service dimensions.

B. The client would like to report the results of the allocation process by Entity.

C. The client would like to store 10 years of actual history for reporting purposes but only requires prior-year history for planning purposes.

D. Due to sparse dimensionality, aggregation times are slow in the application.

E. The client has 10 dimensions in the application and needs to report at each intersection.

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/hyp/CreateASOReportingCube1112/CreateASOReportingCube-1112.htm

Question 12:

What two form validation rule options are supported in Planning? (Choose two.)

A. When enabled, execute validations associated with the form for all users regardless of access rights when validating the Approval unit.

B. When enabled, all validations are run as the administrator and applied to the form members.

C. When enabled, the user variable for the approval dimension on the form will be replaced by the approval unit member before the validations are run.

D. When enabled, the system figures out which page combinations have potential data blocks and runs the validations regardless of those page combinations.

E. When enabled, the form will be validated multiple times by replacing the user variable from the approval unit dimension with every possible value.

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financial-consolidation-cloud/agfcc/ including_data_validation_rules_in_forms.html

Question 13:

Which two are supported funding methods in Strategic Modeling? (Choose two.)

A. Target Capital Structure funding method

B. Standard funding method

C. Proposed Projects funding method

D. Employee-based funding method

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/cssmu/ using_funding_methods_236x8f4329e8.html

Question 14:

Which three are use cases for data maps? (Choose three.)

A. To allow users to drill back to the data in a different cube.

B. To integrate data between custom plan types and Planning modules

C. To integrate data between Planning modules

D. To push data from a planning cube to a reporting cube

E. To create a replicated partition between cubes

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 15:

Which two are displayed on the user point of view bar within a financial report? Choose two.

A. Dimensions that are tagged as type Time

B. Dimensions that are tagged as type Account

C. Dimensions not defined in a row, column, or page

D. Dimensions in a row, column, or page that are flagged for the current point of view

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/HFWCG/about_the_user_point_of_view.htm#HFWCGdesigning_a_report_35

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