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From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Last updated	Latest update
Leads4Pass	15	Oracle Database 12c SQL	1z0-071 dumps	2024

Question 1:

Which three statements are true about views in an Oracle database?

A. A SELECT statement cannot contain a where clause when querying a view containing a WHERE clause in its defining query

B. Rows inserted into a table using a view are retained in the table if the view is dropped

C. Views can join tables only if they belong to the same schema.

D. Views have no segment.

E. Views have no object number.

F. A view can be created that refers to a non-existent table in its defining query.

Correct Answer: BDF

Question 2:

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which statement will execute successfully, returning distinct employees with non-null first names?

A. SELECT DISTINCT * FROM employees WHERE first_ name IS NOT NULL;

B. SELECT first_ name, DISTINCT last_ name FROM employees WHERE first_ name IS NOT NULL;

C. SELECT Distinct * FROM employees WHERE first_ name < > NULL;

D. SELECT first_ name, DISTINCT last_ name FROM employees WHERE first_ name < > NULL;

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Examine the description of the transactions table:

Which two SQL statements execute successfully?

A. SELECT customer_id AS “CUSTOMER-ID”, transaction_date AS DATE, amount+100 “DUES” from transactions;

B. SELECT customer_id AS \’CUSTOMER-ID\’,transaction_date AS DATE, amount+100 \’DUES\’ from transactions;

C. SELECT customer_id CUSTID, transaction_date TRANS_DATEamount+100 DUES FROM transactions;

D. SELECT customer_id AS “CUSTOMER-ID”, transaction_date AS “DATE”, amount+100 DUES FROM transactions;

E. SELECT customer id AS CUSTOMER-ID, transaction_date AS TRANS_DATE, amount+100 “DUES AMOUNT” FROM transactions;

Correct Answer: CD

Question 4:

Examine the data in the NEW_EMPLOYEES table:

Examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table: You want to:

Update existing employee details in the EMPLOYEES table with data from the NEW EMPLOYEES table.

Add new employee detail from the NEW_ EMPLOYEES able to the EMPLOYEES table.

Which statement will do this:

A. MERGE INTO employees e USING new employees ne WHERE e.employee_id = ne. employee_ id WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET e.name = ne. name, e.job_id = ne.job_id,e.salary =ne. salary WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (ne. employee_id,ne.name, ne.job_id,ne.salary) ;

B. MERGE INTO employees e USING new_employees n ON (e.employee_id = ne.employee_id) WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET e.name = ne. name, e.job id = ne.job_id,e.salary =ne. salary WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (ne. employee_id,ne.name,ne.job_id,ne.salary);

C. MERGE INTO employees e USING new employees ne ON (e.employee_id = ne.employee_id) WHEN FOUND THEN UPDATE SET e.name =ne. name, e.job_id=ne.job_id, e.salary =ne.salary WHEN NOT FOUND THEN INSERT VALUES (ne.employee_id,ne.name,ne.job_id,ne.salary) ;

D. MERGE INTO employees e USING new_employees n WHERE e.employee_id = ne.employee_id WHEN FOUND THEN UPDATE SET e.name=ne.name,e.job_id =ne.job_id, e.salary=ne.salary WHEN NOT FOUND THEN INSERT VALUES (ne. employee_ id,ne. name,ne. job id,ne. salary) ;

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

You execute the following commands:

SQL > DEFINE hire date = \’01-APR-2011\’

SQL >SELECT employee_id, first_name, salary

FROM employees

WHERE hire_date > \’andhiredate\’

AND manager_id > andmgr_id;

For Which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?

A. none, because no input is required

B. both the substitution variables \’\’hiredate\’ and \’mgr_id\’.

C. only hiredate\’

D. only \’mgr_id\’

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

There is a parent/child relationship between EMPLOYEE_ID and MANAGER_ID.

You want to display the last names and manager IDs of employees who work for the same manager as the employee whose EMPLOYEE_ID is 123.

Which query provides the correct output?

A. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_id FROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.manager_id = m.employee_id) AND e.employee_id = 123;

B. SELECT e.last_name, m.manager_id FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.employee_id = m.manager_id) WHERE e.employee_id = 123;

C. SELECT e.last_name, e.manager_id FROM employees e RIGHT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.employee_id = m.employee_id) WHERE e.employee_id = 123;

D. SELECT m.last_name, e.manager_id FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN employees m on (e.manager_id = m.manager_id) WHERE e.employee_id = 123;

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which two queries return rows for employees whose manager works in a different department?

A. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp WHERE manager_ id NOT IN ( SELECT mgr.employee_ id FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. department_ id < > mgr.department_ id );

B. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT NULL FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. manager id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp.department_id<>mgr.department_id );

C. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp LEFT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp. department id < > mgr. department_ id;

D. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp RIGHT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee id AND emp. department id <> mgr.department_ id WHERE emp. employee_ id IS NOT NULL;

E. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp. department_ id<> mgr.department_ id;

Correct Answer: DE

Question 8:

Which three statements are true about Structured Query Language (SQL)?

A. It guarantees atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability (ACID) features

B. It best supports relational databases

C. It is used to define encapsulation and polymorphism for a relational table

D. It requires that data be contained in hierarchical data storage

E. It is the only language that can be used for both relational and object-oriented databases

F. It provides independence for logical data structures being manipulated from the underlying physical data storage

Correct Answer: ABF

Question 9:

Examine this SQL statement: SELECT cust_id, cus_last_name “Last Name” FROM customers WHERE country_id = 10 UNION SELECT cust_id CUST_NO, cust_last_name FROM customers WHERE country_id = 30 Identify three ORDER BY clauses, any one of Which can complete the query successfully.

A. ORDER BY 2, 1

B. ORDER BY “CUST_NO”

C. ORDER BY 2,cust_id

D. ORDER BY CUST_NO

E. ORDER BY “Last Name”

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 10:

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which query requires explicit data type conversion?

A. SELECT SUBSTR(join date, 1, 2) – 10 FROM employees;

B. SELECT join_ date + \’20\’ EROM employees;

C. SELECT join_ date`\’ salary FROM employees;

D. SELECT join _ date FROM employees WHERE join date > *10-02-2018\’;

E. SELECT salary + \’120.50\’ FROM employees;

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table:

Which two SELECT statements will return these results:

CUSTOMER_ NAME

Mandy

Mary

A. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer_ name LIKE \’ % a % \’ ;

B. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer name LIKE \’Ma%\’ ;

C. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer_ name=\’*Ma*\’;

D. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE UPPER (customer_ name ) LIKE \’MA*. ;

E. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer name LIKE \’Ma*\’;

F. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE UPPER (customer name) LIKE \’ MAand\’;

G. SELECT customer_ name FROM customers WHERE customer_ name KIKE .*Ma*\’;

Correct Answer: AB

Question 12:

View the exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.

Which SQL statement would retrieve from the table the number of products having LIST_PRICE as NULL?

A. SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price is NULL

B. SELECT COUNT (NVL(list_price, 0)) FROM product_information WHERE list_price is NULL

C. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price i= NULL

D. SELECT COUNT (list_price) FROM product_information WHERE list_price is NULL

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which two are true about the USING clause when joining tables?

A. All column names in a USING clause must be qualified with a table name or table alias.

B. It can never be used with a natural join.

C. It is used to specify an equijoin of columns that have the same name in both tables.

D. It can never be used with a full outer join.

E. It is used to specify an explicit join condition involving operators.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 14:

Examine This Statement Which returns the name of each employee and their manager,

SELECT e.last name AS emp, m.last_name AS mgr

FROM employees e JOIN managers m

ON e.manager_ id = m. employee_ id ORDER BY emp;

You want to extend the query to include employees with no manager. What must you add before JOIN to do this?

A. CROSS

B. FULL OUTER

C. LEFT OUTER

D. RIGHT OUTER

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Examine this command:

TRUNCATE TABLE test;

Table truncated.

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. The structure of the TEST table is removed.

B. All the indexes on the TEST table are dropped.

C. All the constraints on the TEST table are dropped.

D. Removed rows can not be recovered using the ROLLBACK command.

E. All the rows in the TEST table are removed.

Correct Answer: AC

Share the latest 2024 Oracle 1z0-071 dumps exam questions and answers

From	Number of exam questions	Time
Leads4Pass	15/388	March 2024

Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?

A. displaying a date in a nondefault format

B. finding the number of characters in an expression

C. substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string

D. combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output

Correct Answer: ABC

In Oracle Database, SQL functions provide a wide range of capabilities for manipulating and transforming data. Among the tasks you can perform using built-in SQL functions in Oracle Database, the correct answers are:

A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format: Oracle provides the TO_DATE and TO_CHAR functions for working with date values. The TO_CHAR function, in particular, can convert a date to a string in various formats, allowing dates to be displayed in non-default formats according to the needs of the application or user preferences.

B. Finding the number of characters in an expression: The LENGTH function is used in Oracle to find the number of characters in a string expression. This function can be very useful for validation, formatting, or processing decisions based on the length of character strings.

C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string: The REPLACE function allows you to substitute all occurrences of a specified character string within a text expression with another string. This can be used for data cleaning, formatting, or manipulation tasks where certain text patterns need to be replaced with different text.

While option D (combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output) is a common task in SQL, it is typically achieved using the concatenation operator || rather than a specific built-in function. However, it’s important to note that functions like CONCAT can also be used for combining two values, but for more than two, you would generally use the concatenation operator directly in your SQL statements.

Thus, the correct answers as provided, A, B, and C, are tasks that can indeed be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database, highlighting the versatility and power of Oracle’s SQL function library for data manipulation and formatting.

Which two statements are true about Oracle databases and SQL?

A. Updates performed by a database user can be rolled back by another user by using the ROLLBACK command.

B. The database guarantees read consistency at the select level on user-created tables.

C. When you execute an UPDATE statement, the database instance locks each updated row.

D. A query can access only tables within the same schema.

E. A user can be the owner of multiple schemas In the same database.

Correct Answer: BC

In Oracle databases and SQL, the true statements among the options given are:

B. The database guarantees read consistency at select levels on user-created tables.

Oracle Database ensures read consistency, meaning that a query sees a consistent snapshot of the data as it existed at the point in time when the query began. This applies to all user-created tables. Oracle uses mechanisms such as undo data to provide this level of consistency, ensuring that readers do not block writers and vice versa. This feature is crucial for maintaining data accuracy and integrity during concurrent data access.

C. When you execute an UPDATE statement, the database instance locks each updated row.

Oracle employs row-level locking automatically when an UPDATE statement is executed. This means that when a row is being updated, it is locked to prevent other transactions from modifying it until the transaction is either committed or rolled back. This locking mechanism helps in maintaining data integrity and prevents update conflicts.

Now, let’s briefly address why the other statements are not true:

A. Updates performed by a database user can be rolled back by another user by using the ROLLBACK command.

This statement is not true. A ROLLBACK command can only affect the transaction of the session that issues it. One user cannot roll back the transactions of another user. Transactions are isolated among users/sessions, adhering to the ACID properties of database systems.

D. A query can access only tables within the same schema.

This statement is not accurate. A query can access tables in other schemas if the user executing the query has been granted the necessary permissions. Oracle allows cross-schema access through proper security and permission settings.

E. A user can be the owner of multiple schemas in the same database.

This statement is incorrect. In Oracle, a schema is essentially the same thing as a user. A schema is tied to a database user, and a user owns a single schema. However, a user can have objects in other schemas and can access objects in other schemas if permissions are granted.

Therefore, the correct answers are B and C, reflecting key aspects of Oracle’s database management and data integrity mechanisms.

Evaluate these commands Which execute successfully CREATE SEQUENCE ord_seq

INCREMENT BY 1

START WITH 1

MAX VALUE 100000

CYCLE

CACHE 5000;

Create table ord_items(

ord_no number(4) default ord_seq.nextval not null,

Item_no number(3),

Qty number(3),

Expiry_date date,

Constraint it_pk primary key(ord_no,item_no),

Constraint ord_fk foreign key (ord_no) references orders(ord_no));

Which two statements are true about the ORD_ITEMS table and the ORD_SEQ sequence?

A. Any user inserting rows into table ORD_ITEMS must have been granted access to sequence ORD_SEQ.

B. Column ORD_NO gets the next number from sequence ORD_SEQ whenever a row is inserted into ORD_ITEMS and no explicit value is given for ORD_NO.

C. Sequence ORD_SEQ cycles back to 1 after every 5000 numbers and can cycle 20 times

D. IF sequence ORD_SEQ is dropped then the default value for column ORD_NO will be NULL for rows inserted into ORD_ITEMS.

E. Sequence ORD_SEQ is guaranteed not to generate duplicate numbers.

Correct Answer: AB

You execute the following commands:

SQL > DEFINE hiredate = \’01-APR-2011\’

SQL >SELECT employee_id, first_name, salary

FROM employees

WHERE hire_date > \’andhiredate\’

AND manager_id > andmgr_id;

For Which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?

A. none, because no input is required

B. both the substitution variables \’\’hiredate\’ and \’mgr_id\’.

C. only hiredate\’

D. only \’mgr_id\’

Correct Answer: D

In the given SQL command sequence, there’s an attempt to use substitution variables with the DEFINE command and within the SELECT query. However, the way these variables are referenced in the query impacts whether you’ll be prompted for input.

The command:

DEFINE hiredate = ’01-APR-2011′

This sets a substitution variable hiredate to a specific date. In Oracle SQL*Plus or SQLcl, the DEFINE command is used to create or modify a substitution variable.

The query:

SELECT employee_id, first_name, salary
FROM employees
WHERE hire_date > ‘andhiredate’
AND manager_id > andmgr_id;

In this query, the intention seems to be to use the previously defined hiredate substitution variable and another variable mgr_id that hasn’t been defined within the provided commands.

The correct way to reference a substitution variable in SQLPlus or SQLcl is to precede it with an ampersand (&) for single substitution or double ampersands (&&) for defining a variable that retains its value after first substitution. However, the way hiredate is referenced ('andhiredate') is incorrect because of the quotes and the prefix ‘and’ instead of ‘&’. Due to this incorrect referencing, SQLPlus or SQLcl will not recognize it as a substitution variable within the context of this command. Thus, it will not prompt for its value; instead, it would treat 'andhiredate' as a literal string.

For the mgr_id variable, it is correctly referenced as andmgr_id; (assuming a typo in the question – it should be &mgr_id;), so SQL*Plus or SQLcl would prompt for its value because it’s correctly prefixed with an ampersand and hasn’t been defined prior to its use.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

D. only ‘mgr_id’

You will be prompted to input a value for the mgr_id substitution variable, because it’s the only one correctly, indicated as a substitution variable that hasn’t been defined prior.

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which two queries return rows for employees whose manager works in a different department?

A. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp WHERE manager_ id NOT IN ( SELECT mgr.employee_ id FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. department_ id < > mgr.department_ id );

B. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT NULL FROM employees mgr WHERE emp. manager id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp.department_id<>mgr.department_id );

C. SELECT emp.* FROM employees emp LEFT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND emp. department id < > mgr. department_ id;

D. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp RIGHT JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee id AND emp. department id <> mgr.department_ id WHERE emp. employee_ id IS NOT NULL;

E. SELECT emp. * FROM employees emp JOIN employees mgr ON emp. manager_ id = mgr. employee_ id AND

Correct Answer: DE

Examine the data in the PRODUCTS table:

Examine these queries:

SELECT prod name, prod list FROM products WHERE prod 1ist NOT IN(1020) AND category _id=1;

SELECT prod name, | prod _ list FROM products WHERE prod list < > ANY (1020) AND category _id= 1; SELECT prod name, prod _ list FROM products WHERE prod_ list <> ALL (10 20) AND category _ id= 1; Which queries generate the same output?

A. 1 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 2

Correct Answer: A

Examine the description of the PROMOTIONS TABLE:

You want to display the unique promotion costs in each promotion category. Which two queries can be used?

A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;

B. SELECT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions ORDER BY 1

C. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promoting ORDER BY 2:

D. select DISTINCT promo_categoryIl `has\’||promol_cost as COSTS FROM promotions ORDER BY 1:

E. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost ||\’in\’IIDISTINCT promo_category promotions ORDER BY1:

Correct Answer: AD

Examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which statement increases each employeeandapos;s SALARY by the minimum SALARY for their DEPARTM ENT_ID?

A. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary =(SELECT e2. salary + MIN(e2.salary) FROM employees e2 WHERE e1.department_ id = e2. department_id GROUP BY e2. department_id) ;

B. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary = salary + (SELECT MIN(e1. salary) FROM employees e2 WHERE e1.department_id = e2 .department_id);

C. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary = salary+(SELECT MIN (salary) FROM employees e2) ;

D. UPDATE employees e1 SET salary= (SELECT e1.salary + MIN(e2.salary) FROM employees e2 WHERE e1. department_ id = e2.department_id);

Correct Answer: D

The CUSTOMERS table has a CUST_LAST_NAME column of data type VARCHAR2.

The table has two rows whose CUST_LAST_NAME values are Anderson and Ausson.

Which query produces output for CUST_LAST_NAME containing Oder for the first row and Aus for the second?

A. SELECT REPLACE(REPLACE(cust_last_name, ‘son

Correct Answer: A

Which three statements are true about the DESCRIBE command?

A. It can be used by SQL Developer.

B. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view.

C. It can be used only from SQL*Plus.

D. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint.

E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column.

F. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that constraint.

Correct Answer: ABD

The DESCRIBE command in Oracle Database is a useful tool for understanding the structure of database objects. Here are the true statements regarding the DESCRIBE command:

A. It can be used by SQL Developer.

True. SQL Developer, a popular integrated development environment (IDE) for working with Oracle Database, allows users to execute the DESCRIBE command to view the structure of database objects, such as tables, views, and more.

B. It can be used to display the structure of an existing view.

True. The DESCRIBE command can be used to display the structure of a view, including information about the columns that constitute the view.

C. It can be used only from SQL*Plus.

False. While the DESCRIBE command is commonly associated with SQL*Plus, Oracle’s command-line interface, it can also be used in other environments, such as SQL Developer, SQLcl, and other tools that interface with Oracle Database.

D. It displays the NOT NULL constraint for any columns that have that constraint.

True. When you use the DESCRIBE command on a table, it will indicate which columns have the NOT NULL constraint applied to them.

E. It displays all constraints that are defined for each column.

False. The DESCRIBE command provides a concise overview of the structure of a table or view, including column names, data types, and whether a column is nullable. However, it does not display all types of constraints (like CHECK, UNIQUE, FOREIGN KEY) that are defined for each column. For comprehensive constraint information, data dictionary views such as USER_CONSTRAINTS and USER_CONS_COLUMNS would need to be queried.

F. It displays the PRIMARY KEY constraint for any column or columns that have that constraint.

False. Similar to statement E, the DESCRIBE command does not explicitly show if a column is part of a PRIMARY KEY constraint. Information about primary keys can be obtained by querying the appropriate data dictionary views.

Given these clarifications, the correct answers are A, B, and D.

You must create a SALES table with these column specifications and data types: (Choose the best answer.)

SALESID: Number STOREID: Number ITEMID: Number QTY: Number, should be set to 1 when no value is specified SLSDATE: Date, should be set to the current date when no value is specified PAYMENT: Characters up to 30 characters, should be set to CASH when no value is specified

Which statement would create the table?

A. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT = 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT = “CASH”);

B. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT \’SYSDATE\’, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT CASH);

C. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT = 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT = “CASH”);

D. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT \’CASH\’);

Correct Answer: D

The correct statement to create the SALES table with the specified column specifications and data types, along with default values, is:

D. CREATE TABLE sales( salesid NUMBER(4), storeid NUMBER(4), itemid NUMBER(4), qty NUMBER DEFAULT 1, slsdate DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE, payment VARCHAR2(30) DEFAULT ‘CASH’);

This statement correctly uses the DEFAULT keyword to specify default values for columns without the need for an equals sign (=), uses SYSDATE for the current date without quotes, and correctly encloses the string default value ‘CASH’ in single quotes, as per SQL syntax requirements.

View the exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and CUSTOMERS tables.

Which INSERT statement should be used to add a row into the ORDERS table for the customer whose CUST_LAST_NAME is Roberts and CREDIT_LIMIT is 600? Assume there exists only one row with CUST_LAST_NAME as Roberts and CREDIT_LIMIT as 600.

A. INSERT INTO (SELECT o.order_id, o.order_date, o.order_mode, c.customer_id, o.order_total FROM orders o, customers c WHERE o.customer_id = c.customer_id AND c.cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND c.credit_limit=600) VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), 1000);

B. INSERT INTO orders (order_id, order_date, order_mode, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), order_total) VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, andcustomer_id, 1000);

C. INSERT INTO orders VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), 1000);

D. INSERT INTO orders (order_id, order_date, order_mode, (SELECT customer_id FROM customers WHERE cust_last_name=\’Roberts\’ AND credit_limit=600), order_total) VALUES (1,\’10-mar-2007\’, \’direct\’, andandcustomer_id, 1000);

Correct Answer: C

Which two statements are true regarding the GROUP BY clause in a SQL statement? (Choose two.)

A. You can use column alias in the GROUP BY clause.

B. Using the WHERE clause after the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows after creating groups.

C. The GROUP BY clause is mandatory if you are using an aggregate function in the SELECT clause.

D. Using the WHERE clause before the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows before creating groups.

E. If the SELECT clause has an aggregate function, then those individual columns without an aggregate function in the SELECT clause should be included in the GROUP BY cause.

Correct Answer: DE

In SQL, the GROUP BY clause is used to arrange identical data into groups with the help of aggregate functions like SUM(), AVG(), MAX(), MIN(), and COUNT(). Let’s address the true statements among the provided options:

A. You can use column alias in the GROUP BY clause.

False. Most SQL databases do not allow the use of column aliases in the GROUP BY clause because the GROUP BY operation occurs before the selection of columns (and thus before aliases are applied). Aliases are typically allowed in the ORDER BY clause.

B. Using the WHERE clause after the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows after creating groups.

This statement seems to be misleadingly formulated. The WHERE clause is actually used before the groups are created, to filter rows entering into the aggregation process. The HAVING clause is used to filter groups after they have been created by the GROUP BY clause.

C. The GROUP BY clause is mandatory if you are using an aggregate function in the SELECT clause.

False. You can use aggregate functions in the SELECT clause without a GROUP BY clause if you are aggregating over the entire result set. The GROUP BY clause is only mandatory if you want to aggregate data in grouped subsets of the entire result set.

D. Using the WHERE clause before the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows before creating groups.

True. The WHERE clause filters rows before they are grouped by the GROUP BY clause. This allows for the exclusion of certain rows from the groups based on specific criteria.

E. If the SELECT clause has an aggregate function, then those individual columns without an aggregate function in the SELECT clause should be included in the GROUP BY clause.

True. This is a fundamental rule of SQL. When using aggregate functions in a SELECT statement that also selects individual columns, those individual columns must be included in the GROUP BY clause to define how the data should be grouped for the aggregation to apply.

Therefore, the correct answers are D and E, as they accurately describe how the GROUP BY clause functions in a SQL statement.

Which two actions can you perform with object privileges?

A. Create roles.

B. Delete rows from tables in any schema except sys.

C. Set default and temporary tablespaces for a user.

D. Create FOREIGN KEY constraints that reference tables in other schemas.

E. Execute a procedure or function in another schema.

Correct Answer: DE

Object privileges in Oracle and other SQL databases refer to the rights to perform specific actions on database objects (such as tables, views, procedures, etc.) owned by another user. These privileges must be granted explicitly to a user or a role by the owner of the object or a user with the GRANT OPTION privilege for that object. Among the given options, the two actions that can be performed with object privileges are:

D. Create FOREIGN KEY constraints that reference tables in other schemas.

This action requires the REFERENCES object privilege on the table in the other schema that you want to reference with a FOREIGN KEY constraint. This privilege allows a user to define a foreign key that references the primary key or a unique key of the table owned by another user.

E. Execute a procedure or function in another schema.

This action requires the EXECUTE object privilege on the specific procedure or function. With this privilege, a user can execute a stored procedure or function that is owned by another user.

Let’s clarify why the other options are not correct in the context of object privileges:

A. Create roles.

Creating roles is not an object privilege but a system privilege. Roles are database objects that group together other privileges (both system and object privileges) that can be granted to users or other roles.

B. Delete rows from tables in any schema except sys.

Deleting rows from a table requires the DELETE object privilege on that specific table. However, the privilege is specific to each table and does not inherently allow deletion from tables in any schema except SYS by default.

C. Set default and temporary tablespaces for a user.

Setting default and temporary tablespaces for a user is an action related to user account management, not an object privilege. It requires ALTER USER system privilege or equivalent administrative rights.

Therefore, the correct answers are D and E, as they are actions that can be directly associated with object privileges in a database.

Reference: http://www.cruzroja.es/help/wvtdbobp.htm

Examine the description of the COUNTRIES table:

Examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS table:

Examine the description of the LOCATIONS table:

Which two queries will return a list of countries with no departments? (Choose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: BD

…

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Question 1:

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

A. All metrics are instance related.

B. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

C. A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.

D. They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.

E. Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.

F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

Correct Answer: BCE

A. False. Tablespace Space Usage metrics are database related

B. True. Stateful alerts appear in DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS and, when cleared, go to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY

C. True. Most cautions (such as “Out of space”) are cleared automatically when the cause of the problem disappears.

D. False. They\’re generated by MMON

E. True

F. False. This parameter is not required to generate alerts

Reference: Oracle Database 12c: Administration Wrokshop https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e41573/autostat.htm#PFGRF027 https://blogs.oracle.com/oem/how-to-clear-an-alert-v2

Question 2:

While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck.

FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.

Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.

B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.

C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.

D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.

E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.

Correct Answer: DE

In RMAN operation, asynchronous Disk I/O is always better than synchronous I/O as a server process can

begin an I/O and then perform other work while waiting for the I/O to complete.

On operating systems that do not support native asynchronous I/O, the database can simulate it with

special I/O slave processes (DBWR_IO_SLAVES)

Question 3:

For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.

B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB

C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB

D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB

E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB

F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

Correct Answer: EF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/12.2/admin/creating-andremoving-pdbs-with-sql-plus.html#GUID-1C47D543-8376-48AE-A1AE-632316731D59

Question 4:

Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)

A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.

B. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLE BIN parameter be set to ON.

C. FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLE BIN parameter be set to ON.

D. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undoing to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.

E. FLASHBACK drop requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.

F. FLASHBACK version query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.

Correct Answer: BDF

A is incorrect. Although the statement “FLASHBACK transaction query requires to undo” is true, it is asking to retrieve all versions of a row instead. The correct answer should be F which is a FLASHBACK version query to retrieve versions between two points in time from undo.

A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.

F. FLASHBACK version query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.

Reference:

https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=0iwrL9P25Z0Candpg=PA35andlpg=PA35anddq=FLASHBACK +transaction+query+requires+undo+to+retrieve+all+versions+of+a+row+that+existed+between+two +points+in +timeandsource=blandots=MJnYl5CZ1uandsig=ACfU3U0dWP-NPdU8uu3zbaoi3YZzT0FTQandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwigi5_Jl9joAhXzUBUIHUh4DksQ6AEwAnoECAsQJg #v=onepageandq=FLASHBACK%20transaction%20query%20requires% 20undo%20to%20retrieve%20all% 20versions%20of%20a%20row%20that%20existed%20between%20two%20points%20in%20timeandf=false

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/tables011.htm

Question 5:

Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxxpreinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and release? (Choose three.)

A. performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met

B. creating the oracle OS user

C. creating the OSDBA (dba) group

D. creating the oraInventory (install) group

E. creating the grid OS user

F. configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access

Correct Answer: BCD

When installed, the Oracle Preinstallation RPM does the following:

Automatically downloads and installs any additional RPM packages needed for installing Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database, resolves any dependencies Creates an oracle user, and creates the oraInventory (install) and OSDBA (dba) groups for that user As needed, sets system. conf settings, system startup parameters, and driver parameters to values based on

recommendations from the Oracle Preinstallation RPM program Sets hard and soft resource limits Sets other recommended parameters, depending on your kernel version Sets numa=off in the kernel for Linux x86_64 machines.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/install.112/e41961/prelinux.htm#CWLIN2932

Question 6:

Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)

A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.

B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.

C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.

D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.

E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.

F. They can be created only in an application root.

Correct Answer: DF

An everyday object is defined in either the CDB root or an application root and can be referenced using

metadata links or object links. A local object is every object that is not a common object.

Database-supplied common objects are defined in CDB$ROOT and cannot be changed. Oracle Database

does not support the creation of common objects in CDB$ROOT.

You can create most schema objects such as tables, views, PL/SQL and Java program units, sequences, and so on—as common objects in an application root. If the object exists in an application root,

then it is called an application common object.

ACCORDING TO THE LECTURE, THE CORRECT ANSWERS ARE: DF

D: they can exist in CDB$ROOT and application root.

F: they can be created only in the application root.

Reference: https://blog.toadworld.com/2017/08/01/oracle-multi-tenant-application-containers-part-iiisharing-of-data-in-application-common-objects

Question 7:

Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.

B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.

C. A DBA can run it manually.

D. Results are written to the alert log.

E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.

Correct Answer: BC

Results are written in the alert log. -Incorrect .. stores in AWR not in an alert log file.

Question 8:

Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)

A. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.

B. the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files

C. the list of disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup

D. default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces

E. the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation

F. the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance

Correct Answer: ABE

A – ORACLE_BASE, ORACLE_HOME – correct B – TNS_ADMIN, old TWO_TASK, etc – correct C – file parameter ASM_DISKGROUPS, not env variable D – [s]pfile parameter DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST, not env variable E – TMP, TEMP – correct F – [s]pfile parameter DB_FILES, not env variable

Question 9:

Which three are true about patch auto? (Choose three.)

A. It performs a shutdown and then restarts all processes in Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process.

B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges.

C. Patches are applied via patch auto.

D. Users must always input patch plans to patch auto.

E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before invoked.

F. It applies patches in non-rolling mode by default.

G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations.

Correct Answer: ABG

A. It performs a shutdown and then restarts all processes in Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process. => True

B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges. => true

C. Patches are applied via opatchauto. => not always.

D. Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto. => false, patch plans are optional

E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before invoked. => false

F. It applies patches in non-rolling mode by default. => false, default is the rolling mode.

G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations. => true

Correct: A, B, G Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/doc.121/e39376/opatchauto_commands.htm#OPTCH585 https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/doc.121/e39376/configuration_patching.htm#OPTCH149

Question 10:

Which two are true about the character sets used in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets.

B. Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.

C. Unicode is the only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).

D. Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.

E. Multibyte character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single-byte character sets.

F. Single-byte character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.

Correct Answer: AB

A > Single-byte character sets result in better performance than multibyte character sets, and they also are

the most efficient in terms of space requirements.

B> Unicode is a universal encoded character set that enables information from any language to be stored

using a single character set.

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/NLSPG/ch2charset.htm#NLSPG166

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14225/ch6unicode.htm#:~:text=Unicode%20is%20a%

20universal%20encoded%20character%20set%20that,been%20adopted%20by%20many%20software%

20and%20hardware%20vendors.

Question 11:

Which three are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services? (Choose three.)

A. V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past and existing sessions if the delay has occurred at least once for a session.

B. V$SERVICE_EVENT displays all waits for all services if the wait has occurred at least once for a service.

C. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for waiting sessions.

D. V$SESSION_WAITand V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.

E. V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits for all past sessions if the wait has occurred at least once for a session.

F. V$SESSION_WAITand V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a session is currently waiting.

Correct Answer: BDF

A, E – False: V$SESSION_EVENT displays information on waits for an event by a session.

V$SESSION_WAIT_HISTORY displays the last 10 wait events for each active session.

B – V$SERVICE_EVENT displays aggregated wait counts and wait times for each wait statistic.

C – False: V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays the time spent in various wait event operations on a per-

session basis.

D, F – True: V$SESSION_WAIT displays the current or last wait for each session. V$SESSION.EVENT If

the session is currently waiting, then the resource or event for which the session is waiting. If the session is

not in a wait, then the resource or event for which the session most recently waited.

Resource :

https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/refrn/V-SESSION_EVENT.html#GUID5723D404-83F7-4C8D-8BF2-031B3FFEAAA8

Question 12:

You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.

The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.

The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.

Examine this list of actions:

1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.

2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.

3. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.

4. Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.

5. Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.

6. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.

7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.

8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.

Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?

A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8

B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)

A. By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.

B. The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group.

C. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.

D. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.

E. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.

F. The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.

Correct Answer: BD

A – false – Members of this group are granted the SYSASM system privilege to administer Oracle ASM.SYSASM system privileges do not grant access privileges on an Oracle Database instance. B- Correct C – false Only if you wish to define role separation but is not a must D – correct E- false OSOPER is optional is not a must F – the same OSDBA could be used but is not a must ( usually SYSDBA and SYSASM are used for separation us duties )

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWWIN/usrgrps.htm#CWWIN-GUID-6FD3C6AE-5A994C6D-85D6-868CBA6F5DAE

Question 14:

A container database called CDB1 is OMF-enabled.

PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT is not configured in CDB1.

PDB1 was unplugged from CDB1 earlier in the week.

Examine this command, which will be executed in CDB1:

CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1

USING `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml\’

SOURCE_FILE_NAME_CONVERT =

(`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/\’, `/u02/app/oracle/oradata/\’);

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. PDB1 data files already exist in the correct location.

B. DBMS_PDB.CHECK_PLUG_COMPATIBILITY must be run in CDB1 before executing the command.

C. PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT must be set before executing the command.

D. /u01/app/oracle/oradata/pdb1.xml does not contain the current locations of data files for PDB1.

E. PDB1 must be dropped from CDB1.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: http://anjaniappsdba.blogspot.com/2016/09/oracle-database-12102c-hot-cloning-of.html

Question 15:

Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)

A. By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)

B. Data files can be converted to the destination system.

C. Data files can be converted to the source system.

D. A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.

E. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.

F. The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.

Correct Answer: BCE

A is wrong. There is no default, the file can either be OMF or user-managed.

B is correct. Use the RMAN CONVERT DATABASE ON DESTINATION PLATFORM clause.

C is correct. Use the RMAN CONVERT DATABASE ENW DATABASE clause.

D is wrong. Use the DBNEWID Utility (the only way to change a DB\’s DBID) on the new destination to

change the DBID.

E is correct. We use the RMAN CONVERT clause.

F is wrong. The password file is “outside” the database and must be manually re-created on the new

destination if you do not want to use OS authentication. Also, this file does not need conversion.

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Question 1:

You execute this command:

Updated 1Z0-082 Dumps Questions q1

Sufficient storage is available in the filesystem /u01.

Which two statements are true about the BIG_TBS tablespace? (Choose two.)

A. AUTOEXTEND is possible for the data file

B. It must be bigger than the largest SMALL FILE tablespace

C. Additional data files may not be added

D. It will be a dictionary-managed tablespace by default

E. It will always have a 32K blocksize

Correct Answer: AC

Question 2:

Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle Net for connection to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three.)

A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF)

B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server

C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables network traffic to be routed through a firewall

D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a Shared Server configuration

E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server

F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener addresses configured

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/network.112/e41945/advcfg.htm#NETAG013

Question 3:

Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI: SS? (Choose two.)

A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional seconds

B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table

C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone

D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR

E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the database server

F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE

Correct Answer: CF

Question 4:

A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.

An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.

Where is the UNDO stored?

A. in the undo tablespace

B. in the SYSAUX tablespace

C. in the SGA

D. in the PGA

E. in the temporary tablespace

Correct Answer: E

Oracle database 12c Release 1 (12.1) introduced the concept of temporary undo, allowing the undo segments for global temporary tables to be stored in the temporary tablespace. This allows global temporary tables to be used in physical standby databases and read-only databases, as well as removing the need to create a redo.

16.7 Managing Temporary Undo By default, undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and are logged in the redo, which is the same way undo is managed for persistent tables.

However, you can use the TEMP_UNDO_ENABLED initialization parameter to separate undo for temporary tables from undo for persistent tables. When this parameter is set to TRUE, the undo for temporary tables is called temporary undo.

16.7.1 About Managing Temporary Undo records are stored in the database\’s temporary tablespaces and thus are not logged in the redo log. When temporary undo is enabled, some of the segments used by the temporary tablespaces store the temporary undo, and these segments are called temporary undo segments.

Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_temp_undo_enabled.htm Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/undo.htm#ADMIN11479

Question 5:

You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.

One of the columns must meet three requirements:

1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions

2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years

3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid

Which data type should you use?

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND

C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE

D. TIMESTAMP

E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE

Correct Answer: B

Since the third requirement for banking application is

\’Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid\’

So, Data Type \’INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND\’ must be used to calculate the duration in a number of days.

Question 6:

In the file of a single instance database, LOCAL_LISTENER is set to LISTENER_1.

The TNSNAMES.ORA file in $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin in the database home contains:

Updated 1Z0-082 Dumps Questions q6

Which statement is true?

A. Dynamic service registration cannot be used for this database instance

B. The LREG process registers services dynamically with the LISTENER_1 listener

C. LISTENER_1 must also be defined in the LISTENER.ORA file to enable dynamic service registration

D. There are two listeners named LISTENER and LISTENER_1 running simultaneously using port 1521 on the same host as the database instances

E. The definition for LISTENER_1 requires a CONNECT_DATA section to enable dynamic service registration

Correct Answer: B

The listener forwards client requests to supported services. These services are dynamically registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration. The registration is performed by the Listener Registration (LREG) process. Dynamic service registration does not require any manual configuration in the listener.ora file.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/NETAG/listenercfg.htm#NETAG292

Question 7:

Which three statements are true concerning logical and physical database structures? (Choose three.)

A. All tablespaces may have one or more data files

B. The extent of a segment must always reside in the same data file

C. A small file tablespace might be bigger than a big file tablespace

D. A segment can span multiple data files in some tablespaces

E. A segment\’s blocks can be of different sizes

F. A segment might have only one extent

G. Segments can span multiple tablespaces

Correct Answer: CDF

Question 8:

Which two statements are true regarding a SAVEPOINT? (Choose two.)

A. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a CREATE INDEX statement

B. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a TRUNCATE statement

C. Only one SAVEPOINT may be issued in a transaction

D. A SAVEPOINT does not issue a COMMIT

E. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a DELETE statement

Correct Answer: DE

Question 9:

Which three functions are performed by dispatchers in a shared server configuration? (Choose three.)

A. writing inbound requests to the common request queue from all shared server connections

B. checking for outbound shared server responses on the common outbound response queue

C. receiving inbound requests from processes using shared server connections

D. sending each connection input request to the appropriate shared server input queue

E. broadcasting shared server session responses back to requesters on all connections

F. sending shared server session responses back to requesters on the appropriate connection

Correct Answer: ACF

Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/manproc001.htm#ADMIN11168 An ***idle shared server process picks up*** the virtual circuit from the common queue

Question 10:

Which two statements are true about the SET VERIFY ON command? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used only in SQL*Plus

B. It displays values for variables used only in the WHERE clause of a query

C. It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus

D. It displays values for variables created by the DEFINE command

E. It displays values for variables prefixed with and

Correct Answer: CD

Question 11:

Which three statements are true about a self to join? (Choose three.)

A. The ON clause must be used

B. The query must use two different aliases for the table

C. It must be an equijoin

D. It must be an inner join

E. The ON clause can be used

F. It can be an outer join

Correct Answer: BEF

Question 12:

You want to write a query that prompts for two column names and the WHERE condition each time it is executed in a session but only prompts for the table name the first time it is executed.

The variables used in your query are never undefined in your session.

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT andandcol1, andandcol2 FROM andtable WHERE andandcondition = andandcond;

B. SELECT andcol1, andcol2 FROM andandtable WHERE andcondition;

C. SELECT andcol1, andcol2 FROM “andtable” WHERE andcondition;

D. SELECT `andandcol1\’, `andandcol2\’ FROM andtable WHERE `andandcondition\’ = `andcond\’;

E. SELECT andandcol1, andandcol2 FROM andtable WHERE andandcondition;

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table: You want to display details of all customers who reside in cities starting with the letter D followed by at least two characters.

Updated 1Z0-082 Dumps Questions q13

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE `D_%\’;

B. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = `%D_\’;

C. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE `D_\’;

D. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = `D_%\’;

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Examine this command:

Updated 1Z0-082 Dumps Questions q14

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DML may be performed on tables with one or more extents in this data file during the execution of this command.

B. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered READ ONLY before executing the command.

C. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered OFFLINE before executing the command.

D. If Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is used, then the file is renamed but moved to DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.

E. The file is renamed and stored in the same location

Correct Answer: AE

Queries and DML and DDL operations can be performed while the data file is being moved, for example, 1-SELECT statements against tables and partitions 2-Creation of tables and indexes 3- Rebuilding of indexes Other notes: 1- If objects are compressed while the data file is moved, the compression remains the same. 2- You do not have to shut down the database or take the data file offline while you move a data file to

another location, disk, or storage system.

3- You can omit the TO clause only when an Oracle-managed file is used. In this case, the

DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST initialization parameter should be set to indicate the new location.

4-If the REUSE option is specified, the existing file is overwritten.

note: The REUSE keyword indicates the new file should be created even if it already exists.

5-If the KEEP clause is specified, the old file will be kept after the move operation. The KEEP clause is not

allowed if the source file is an Oracle-managed file.

Question 15:

Which three statements are true about dropping and unused columns in an Oracle database? (Choose three.)

A. A primary key column referenced by another column as a foreign key can be dropped if using the CASCADE option.

B. An UNUSED column\’s space is reclaimed automatically when the block containing that column is next queried.

C. An UNUSED column\’s space is reclaimed automatically when the row containing that column is next queried.

D. Partition key columns cannot be dropped.

E. A DROP COLUMN command can be rolled back

F. A column that is set to UNUSED still counts towards the limit of 1000 columns per table

Correct Answer: ADF

Answer A is RIGHT: Orders is the Parent table with PRIMARY KEY ord_no, Order_items is the child table which ord_no is REFERENCE KEY that references ord_no of the Parent table, now drop PRIMARY KEY on Orders by command: ALTER TABLE orders DROP COLUMN ORD_NO CASCADE CONSTRAINTS;

Answer D is RIGHT: ORA-12984: cannot drop partitioning column Answer F is RIGHT: Unused Columns Count against 1000-column Table Limit Causing ORA-01792 on Compressed Table (Doc ID 2259600.1) and “ORA-01792: Maximum Number Of Columns In A Table Or View Is 1000” AND HIDDEN_COLUMN name is recreated with date and timestamp (Doc ID 2624150.1)

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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?

A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.

B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.

C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIMARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.

E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.

F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values That are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

Correct Answer: DEF

Question 2:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG

Question 3:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL

B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL

C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL

D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL

E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL

Correct Answer: AB

Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABF

Question 5:

Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?

A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.

B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.

D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.

F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.

Correct Answer: ACF

Question 6:

Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data: Which two are true?

1Z0-071 Exam Questions Q6 Free

A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.

B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).

C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.

D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.

E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 7:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF

Question 8:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF

Question 9:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 10:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY – SYSDATE FROM DUAL;

B. SELECT SYSTIMESTAMP + INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY FROM DUAL;

C. SELECT INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY – INTERVAL \’1\’ MINUTE FROM DUAL;

D. select INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY +INTERVAL \’1\’ MONTH FROM DUAL;

E. SELECT SYSDATE “INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: BC

Question 11:

Which statement is true about aggregate functions?

A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero

B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types

C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement

D. Aggregate functions can be nested into any number of levels

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Which two statements are true about the COUNT function?

A. It can only be used for NUMBER data types.

B. COUNT (DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULLs in the INV_AMT column

C. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table including duplicate rows and rows containing NULLs in any column.

D. A SELECT statement using the COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause.

E. COUNT(inv_amt) returns the number of rows in a table including rows with NULL in the INV_AMT column.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 13:

Which three statements are true about defining relations between tables in a relational database?

A. Foreign key columns allow null values.

B. Unique key columns allow null values

C. Primary key columns allow null values.

D. Every primary or unique key value must refer to a matching foreign key value.

E. Every foreign key value must refer to a matching primary or unique key value.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 14:

In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?

A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session

B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session

C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session

F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement is filed in the same session.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 15:

You execute these commands:

CREATE TABLE customers (customer id INTEGER, customer name VARCHAR2 (20));

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (1`Custmoer1 `);

SAVEPOINT post insert;

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (2, \’Customer2 `);

SELECTCOUNT (*) FROM customers;

Which two, used independently, can replace so the query retums 1?

A. ROLLBACK;

B. COMMIT;

C. ROLIBACK TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

D. CONOIT TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

E. ROLLEBACK TO post_ insert;

Correct Answer: CE

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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.

B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.

C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.

D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.

E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.

Correct Answer: BD

In general, all scheduler objects created by the user can be exported/imported into the PDB using a data pump. Predefined scheduler objects will not get exported and that means that any changes made to these objects by the user will have to be made once again after the database has been imported into the pluggable database.

However, this is how to import/export works currently. A job defined in a PDB will run only if a PDB is open.

Question 2:

A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?

A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.

B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.

C. Configure a large pool if not already done.

D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.

E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by the media manager.

F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.

Correct Answer: BCD

Tuning RMAN Backup Performance: Procedure Many factors can affect backup performance. Often, finding the solution to a slow backup is a process of trial and error. To get the best performance for a backup, follow the suggested steps in this section:

Step 1: Remove RATE Parameters from Configured and Allocated Channels

Step 2: If You Use Synchronous Disk I/O, Set DBWR_IO_SLAVES

Step 3: If You Fail to Allocate Shared Memory, Set LARGE_POOL_SIZE Step 4: Tune RMAN Tape Streaming Performance Bottlenecks Step 5: Query V$ Views to Identify Bottlenecks

Reference:https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmtunin.htm#BRADV172

Question 3:

For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?

A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog

B. available archived redo log files

C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete

D. backups of tablespaces

E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: About the LIST Command: The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backups and copies. For example, you can list: -Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file – Backups that have expired -Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability -Archived redo log files and disk copies

Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/ B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/crept.htm#BRADV89585

Question 4:

Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.

C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.

D. It cannot have more than one dependency.

E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE

Chains are the means by which you can implement dependency-based scheduling, in which jobs are started depending on the outcomes of one or more previous jobs. DBMS_SCHEDULER.DEFINE_CHAIN_STEP DBMS_SCHEDULER.DEFINE_CHAIN_EVENT_STEP

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse009.htm#ADMIN12

Question 5:

Because of logical corruption of data in a table, you want to recover the table from an RMAN backup to a

specified point in time.

Examine the steps to recover this table from an RMAN backup:

1. Determine which backup contains the table that needs to be recovered.

2. Issue the recover table RMAN command with an auxiliary destination defined and the point in time

specified.

3. Import the Data Pump export dump file into the auxiliary instance.

4. Create a Data Pump export dump file that contains the recovered table on a target database.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 1, 4, 3

B. 1, 2

C. 1, 4, 3, 2

D. 1, 2, 4

Correct Answer: D

Because according to oracle PDFs if you run the restore table … auxiliary impede and rename can be included. So there is no reason to make the import manually if it can be already included in step 2.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmresind.htm#BRADV689

Question 6:

Examine the command:

SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROL FILE UNTIL CANCEL;

In which two scenarios is this command required?

A. The current online redo log file is missing.

B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.

C. All the control files are missing.

D. The database backup is older than the control file backup.

E. All the data files are missing.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/answer/Recover-database-using-backup-controlfile-until-cancel

Question 7:

Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?

A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.

B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.

C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.

D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.

E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have an unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.

F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

Correct Answer: DF

There are a number of restrictions for flashback archives: The tablespaces used for a flashback archive must use local extent management and automatic segment space management. The database must use automatic undo management. Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_11g_new_enabling_fdba.htm

Question 8:

The environmental variable oracle_Base is set to /u01/app/oracle and oracle_home is set to /u01/app/ oracle/product/12.1.0/db1.

You want to check the diagnostic files created as part of the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Examine the initialization parameters set in your database.

NAME TYPE VALUE

audit_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/admin/eml2rep/dump background_dump_deststring core_dump_deststring db_create_file_deststring db_recovery_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area diagnostic_deststring

What is the location of the ADR base?

A. It is set to/u01/app/oracle/product:/12.1.0/db_1/log.

B. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/admin/en12.1.0/dump.

C. It is set to /u01/app/oracle.

D. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area.

Correct Answer: C

The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) is a directory structure that is stored outside of the database.

It is therefore available for problem diagnosis when the database is down.

The ADR root directory is known as the ADR base. Its location is set by the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter. If this parameter is omitted or left null, the database sets DIAGNOSTIC_DEST upon startup as follows:

If environment variable ORACLE_BASE is set, DIAGNOSTIC_DEST is set to the directory designated by

ORACLE_BASE.

If the environment variable ORACLE_BASE is not set, DIAGNOSTIC_DEST is set to ORACLE_HOME/log.

Reference:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/diag001.htm#ADMIN11008

Question 9:

You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB)

CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.

Examine the list of possible steps required to perform the task:

1. Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.

2. Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.

3. Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.

4. Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.

5. Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.

6. Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.

7. Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.

8. Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses.

9. Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1 as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8

B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8

Correct Answer: C

Because step 2 says that you perform an expdp with the full clause and you don’t need to create the

tablespaces when you perform the impdp. FULL=yes will export tablespace definitions. So no need for step 9.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96652/ch01.htm

Question 10:

You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:

1. Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.

2. Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.

How would you create these jobs?

A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler-raised events.

B. Create both jobs using application-raised events.

C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application-raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.

D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler-raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.

Correct Answer: C

The bulk loader would be started in response to a file watcher scheduler event and the indexes would be rebuilt in response to an application event raised by the bulk loader. Your application can raise an event to notify the Scheduler to start a job. A job started in this way is referred to as an event-based job. The job can optionally retrieve the message content of the event.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse008.htm#CHDIAJEB https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm#CIABIEJA

Question 11:

Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In

the PDB hr_pdb, the common user c##admin and the local user b_admin have only the connect privilege.

You create a common role c##role1 with the create table and select any table privileges.

You then execute the commands:

SQL> GRANTc##role1 TO##Madmin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL>CONNsys/oracle@HR_PDB as sysdba

SQL> GRANTc##role1TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;

Which two statements are true?

A. C##admin can create and select any table, and grant the c##role1 role to users only in the root container.

B. B_admin can create and select any table in both the root container and Hr_pdb.

C. c##admin can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.

D. B_admin can create and select any table only in hr_pdb.

E. The grant c##role1 to b_admin command returns an error because the container should be set to ALL.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 12:

Examine the commands executed in the root container of your multitenant container database (CDB) that

has multiple pluggable databases (PDBs):

SQL> CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123;

SQL> CREATE ROLE c##role1 CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT CREATE VIEW TO C##roleI CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT c##role1 TO c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin;

What is the result of the revoke command?

A. It executes successfully and the c##role1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user only in the root container.

B. It fails and reports an error because the container=all clause is not used.

C. It executes successfully and the c##rocl1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user in the root database and all the PDBs.

D. It fails and reports an error because the comtainer=current clause is not used.

Correct Answer: B

SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin; REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin * ERROR at line 1: ORA – 01951: ROLE `C##ROLE1\’ not granted to `C##A_ADMIN\’ SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL; Revoke succeeded. SQL> This CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123; will create a common user event container that is not specified.

Question 13:

Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVE LOG;

Which prerequisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?

A. The password for the encryption must be set up.

B. Oracle wallet for the encryption must be set up.

C. All the tablespaces in the database must be encrypted.

D. Oracle Database Vault must be enabled.

Correct Answer: B

Configuration encryption will be used by Transparent encryption. For transparent encryption, you will need to create a wallet, and it must be open. Transparent encryption will then occur automatically after you have issued the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON or CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR TABLESPACE ON command.

CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION: You can use this command to persistently configure transparent encryption. You cannot persistently configure dual mode or password mode encryption.

SET ENCRYPTION: You can use this command to configure dual mode or password mode encryption at the RMAN session-level.

Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/backup.1111/e10642/rcmbckad.htm#CEGEJABH

Question 14:

A database is running in archive log mode. The database contains locally managed tablespaces. Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUP SET SECTION SIZE 1024M DATABASE;

Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A. The backup succeeds only if all the tablespaces are locally managed.

B. The backup succeeds only if the RMAN default device for backup is set to disk.

C. The backup fails because you cannot specify the section size for a compressed backup.

D. The backup succeeds and only the used blocks are backed up with a maximum backup piece size of 1024 MB.

Correct Answer: D

COMPRESSED enables binary compression.

RMAN compresses the data written into the backup set to reduce the overall size of the backup set. All backups that create backup sets can create compressed backup sets. Restoring compressed backup sets is no different from restoring uncompressed backup sets.

RMAN applies a binary compression algorithm as it writes data to backup sets. This compression is similar to the compression provided by many media manager vendors. When backing up to a locally attached tape device, compression provided by the media management vendor is usually preferable to the binary compression provided by BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUPSET.

Therefore, use uncompressed backup sets and turn on the compression provided by the media management vendor when backing up to locally attached tape devices. You should not use RMAN binary compression and media manager compression together. Some CPU overhead is associated with compressing backup sets. If the target database is running at or near its maximum load, then you may find the overhead unacceptable.

In most other circumstances, compressing backup sets saves enough disk space to be worth the CPU overhead. SECTION SIZE sizeSpec Specifies the size of each backup section produced during a data file backup.

By setting this parameter, RMAN can create a multisection backup. In a multisection backup, RMAN creates a backup piece that contains one file section, which is a contiguous range of blocks in a file. All sections of a multisection backup are the same size.

You can create a multisection backup for a data file, but not a data file copy. File sections enable RMAN to create multiple steps for the backup of a single large data file. RMAN channels can process each step independently and in parallel, with each channel producing one section of a multisection backup set.

If you specify a section size that is larger than the size of the file, then RMAN does not use a multisection backup for the file. If you specify a small section size that would produce more than 256 sections, then RMAN increases the section size to a value that results in exactly 256 sections.

Depending on where you specify this parameter in the RMAN syntax, you can specify different section sizes for different files in the same backup job. Note: You cannot use SECTION SIZE with MAXPIECESIZE or with INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1.

Question 15:

In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to

20.

Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved

C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds the TBS percent used

D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved

E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

Correct Answer: BC

The threshold for activating tiering policies is based on two parameters: TBS PERCENT USED and TBS PERCENT FREE Both values can be controlled by the DBMS_ILM_ADMIN package. TBS PERCENT USED and TBS PERCENT FREE default to 85 and 25, respectively.

Hence, whenever the source tablespace\’s usage percentage goes beyond 85 percent, any tiering policy specified on its objects will be executed and objects will be moved to the target tablespace until the source tablespace becomes at least 25 percent free.

Note that it is possible to add a custom condition to tiering policies to enable the movement of data based on conditions other than how full the tablespace is. In addition, the READ ONLY option must be explicitly specified for the target tablespace.

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Question 1:

Identify three reasons for using a recovery catalog with Recovery Manager (RMAN). (Choose three.)

A. to store backup information of multiple databases in one place

B. to restrict the amount of space that is used by backups

C. to maintain a backup for an indefinite period of time by using the KEEP FOREVER clause

D. to store RMAN scripts that are available to any RMAN client that can connect to the target database registered in the recovery catalog

E. to automatically delete obsolete backups after a specified period of time

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 2:

Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)

A. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.

B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independently of the Data Pump clients.

C. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.

D. Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Utility.

E. EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14215/dp_overview.htm

Question 3:

Which two statements are true about making RMAN image copies of a database? (Choose two.)

A. They can only be written to disk.

B. They can be made only when the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

C. They can be made only when the database is in the MOUNT state.

D. They consist of all used and unused blocks in the data files.

E. They can be made only when the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Correct Answer: AD

An image copy can be written only to disk.

An image copy is the same as data file. The disadvantage of image copy backup mode is that it occupies much space and does not skip unused data blocks. References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_rman_10_image_copies.htm

Question 4:

The CATDB12C database contains an Oracle Database 12c catalog schema owned by the RC12C user. The CATDB11 database contains an Oracle Database l1g catalog schema owned by the RC11 user.

A database with DBID=1423241 is registered in the CATDB11 catalog. Both the recovery catalog databases are open.

In the CATDB12c database, you execute the commands:

1Z0-063 exam questions 4

What is the outcome of the import?

A. It fails because the target database and recovery catalog database are of different versions.

B. It succeeds and all global scripts in the RC11 catalog that have the same name as existing global scripts in the RC12C catalog are automatically renamed.

C. It succeeds but the database is not automatically registered in the RC12c catalog.

D. It fails because RMAN is not connected to the target database with DBID=1423241.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

You issue the command:

SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROL FILE TO TRACE;

Which statement is true about the command?

A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specified in the diagnostic_dest initialization parameter.

B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.

C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.

D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Examine the commands executed in CDB$ROOT of your multitenant container database (CDB) that has multiple pluggable databases (PDB):

1Z0-063 exam questions 6

Which statement is true about granting the select privilege on the DBA_users view to the c##ROLE1 role?

A. The command fails and gives an error because object privileges cannot be granted to a common user.

B. The command fails because the container is not set to current.

C. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session and query the DBA_users view in cdb$root and all the PDBs.

D. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session in cdb$root and all the PDBs, but can only query the dba_users view in cdb$root.

E. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session and query the DBA_users view only in cdb$root.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

You plan to duplicate the multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that contains the pluggable database (PDB) SALES:

1Z0-063 exam questions 7

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The root and seed databases are included in the duplication.

B. Only the SALES PDB is duplicated as the non-CDB CDBDUP.

C. A backup of the SALES PDB must exist before the execution of the command.

D. An auxiliary instance must have been started with the initialization parameter ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE set to TRUE.

E. RMAN must be connected to a recovery catalog for the execution of the command.

Correct Answer: AD

D: When duplicating a whole CDB or one more PDBs:

You must create the auxiliary instance as a CDB. To do so, start the instance with the following declaration in the initialization parameter file: enable_pluggable_database=TRUE

A: To duplicate PDBs, you must create the auxiliary instance as a CDB. To do so, start the instance with

the declaration enable_pluggable_database=TRUE in the initialization parameter file. When you duplicate one or more PDBs, RMAN also duplicates the root (CDB$ROOT) and the seed database (PDB$SEED). The resulting duplicate database is a fully functional CDB that contains the root, the seed database, and the duplicated PDBs.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmdupdb.htm

Question 8:

You create a new database by using the CREATE DATABASE command in SQL *Plus, with the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause specified.

Which statement is true about the database that is created?

A. It is created as a container database (CDB) with CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and a pluggable database (PDB).

B. It is created as a non-CDB that becomes a CDB after the first PDB is plugged in.

C. It is created as a PDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.

D. It is created as a CDB with the CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED databases.

Correct Answer: D

The CREATE DATABASE command with the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause indicates that a CDB is being created. The CDB will contain a root (CDB$ROOT) and a seed (PDB$SEED).

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SQLRF/statements_5005.htm

Question 9:

Your database is running on the host OUSERVER. You back up your database regularly using RMAN and the backups are cataloged in a recovery catalog. For testing purposes, you want to replicate your database to another host, OUSERVER1, with the same directory structure. So, you copy the backups to the new host.

What must you do to make the database operational in OUSERVER1?

A. Restore the control file from the backup by using the CATALOG option, restore the data files by using the SET NEWNAME command, and recover the data files.

B. Restore the data files by using the CATALOG option and use the SET NEWNAME command to change the location.

C. Restore the control file from the backup by using the CATALOG option, and then restore and recover the data files.

D. Restore the data files from the backup by using the recovery catalog, use the SWITCH command to change the location, and recover the data files.

Correct Answer: A

Catalog any backups not recorded in the repository with the CATALOG command.

Restore the data files to their original locations. If volume names have changed, then run SET NEWNAME commands before the restore operation and perform a switch after the restore operation to update the control file with the new locations for the data files, as shown in the following example.

Note: One way to name duplicate data files is to use the SET NEWNAME command before executing the DUPLICATE command. RMAN supports the following commands, listed in order of precedence:

1. SET NEWNAME FOR DATAFILE and SET NEWNAME FOR TEMPFILE

2. SET NEWNAME FOR TABLESPACE

3. SET NEWNAME FOR THE DATABASE

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmadvre.htm

Question 10:

Examine the list of possible steps to transport a tablespace across platforms that have the same compatibility level, character sets, and endian format:

1. Make the tablespace read-only at the source database.

2. Export metadata from the source database.

3. Import metadata into the target database.

4. Transfer the dump file and data files to the target machine.

5. Convert data files by using Recovery Manager (RMAN).

6. Make the tablespace read-write at the target database.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 4, and 3

B. 2, 4, 3, and 5

C. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3, and 6

D. 1, 2, 4, 3, and 6

Correct Answer: D

Step 1 (1): To copy tablespaces from one database to another using transportable tablespace, the source tablespaces are first kept in READ-ONLY mode (to ensure data consistency). Once the tablespaces are in READ-ONLY mode, the actual datafiles belonging to the source tablespaces are copied from the source database to the target database (using any available methods like scp, sftp, rcp, etc).

Step 2 (2): Once the tablespace is kept in READ-ONLY mode, we need to generate the metadata export of the tablespaces that need to transport using the DataPump export utility.

Step 3 (4): Once the metadata export is generated on the source database for all the tablespaces that need to be transported, we need to copy the Export Dump file as well as all the datafiles belonging to the tablespaces to be transported to the target database server.

References: http://www.oraclebuffer.com/oracle/migrate-oracle-database-using-transportable-tablespace/

Question 11:

In which three situations must you use a recovery catalog? (Choose three.)

A. when you want to store RMAN global scripts that can be used across multiple databases

B. when you want to restrict the amount of space used by backups

C. when you want to perform incremental backups by using a block change tracking file

D. when you want to list data files that were in a target database at a given time by using the AT clause with the REPORT SCHEMA command

E. when you want to maintain backup metadata longer than the period specified by the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter

Correct Answer: ADE

A: Some RMAN features function only when you use a recovery catalog. For example, you can store RMAN scripts in a recovery catalog. The chief advantage of a stored script is that it is available to any RMAN client that can connect to the target database and recovery catalog. Command files are only available if the RMAN client has access to the file system on which they are stored.

A locally stored script is associated with the target database to which RMAN is connected when the script is created, and can only be executed when you are connected to this target database. A global stored script can be run against any database registered in the recovery catalog.

D: If you use a recovery catalog, then you can use the clause to specify a past time, SCN, or log sequence number, as shown in these examples of the command:

RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT TIME \’SYSDATE-14\’; # schema 14 days ago RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT SCN 1000; # schema at scn 1000 RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT SEQUENCE 100 THREAD 1; # schema at sequence 100 RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA FOR DB_UNIQUE_NAME standby1;

E: The CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME initialization parameter determines the minimum number of days that records are retained in the control file before they are candidates for being overwritten. Thus, you must ensure that you resynchronize the recovery catalog with the control file records before these records are erased.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmcatdb.htm

https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmreprt.htm#BRADV90911

Question 12:

Which three requirements should be successfully met by an Oracle Secure Backup (OSB) user so that OSB performs RMAN backup or restore requests? (Choose three.)

A. RMAN preauthorization on the host

B. OSB encryption for data in transport and on tape

C. matching the OS user identity of the Oracle instance associated with the database username

D. assigned to a class with rights to back up or restore the Oracle database

E. scheduling of the RMAN backup to occur automatically at user-defined intervals

F. assigned to a class with rights to browse all directories and catalogs

Correct Answer: ADF

A: Performing Oracle database backups using RMAN requires RMAN user preauthorization within OSB

D: The preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user must also be assigned to an Oracle Secure Backup

class possessing the following rights:

access Oracle backups (set to the owner, class, or all)

perform Oracle backups and restores

F: The preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user must be mapped to operating system privileges to

access the files to be backed up or restored. the preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user can perform

RMAN operations only on the host where it has access to files.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16926_01/doc.121/e16564/osb_rman_backup.htm#OBADM199

Question 13:

Which two statements are true about setting the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter to a nonzero value? (Choose two.)

A. The MTTR advisor is enabled only if the value is greater than the default value.

B. Automatic checkpoint tuning is enabled.

C. The value of the LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL parameter overrides the value of the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter.

D. The time is taken to recover an instance after a crash is always exactly the same as the value set for the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter.

Correct Answer: AC

The FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET initialization parameter lets you specify in seconds the expected

“mean time to recover” (MTTR), which is the expected amount of time Oracle takes to perform a crash or

instance recovery for a single instance.

To enable MTTR advisory, set the initialization parameter FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a nonzero

value. If FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET is not specified, then MTTR advisory will be OFF.

When specified, FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET is overridden by LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL.

Note: The default value is 0. The range of values is 0 to 3600 seconds.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams079.htm#REFRN10058

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A97630_01/server.920/a96533/instreco.htm

Question 14:

You execute the commands to configure settings in RMAN:

1Z0-063 exam questions 14

Then, you issue the following command to take a backup:

Which statement is true about the execution of these commands?

A. The backup terminates because the backup destination for the disk is not specified in the BACKUP command.

B. It backs up two copies of each of the data files to disk and media, and two copies of archived logs to media.

C. It backup up the data files and archived logs, making one copy of each data file and archived log on disk and media.

D. It backs up the data files and archived logs to media, making two copies of each data file and archived log.

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). RMAN is connected to CDB$ROOT.

Examine the command:

RMAN> LIST FAILURE;

Which statement is true about this command?

A. It lists failures only for the CDB root database.

B. It lists failures for a PDB only when RMAN is connected to a recovery catalog.

C. It lists failures for the CDB and all the PDBs in this CDB.

D. It lists failures only if RMAN is connected to a PDB.

Correct Answer: A

In the current release, Data Recovery Advisor can only be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in

non-CDBs and the root of a multitenant container database (CDB). Data Recovery Advisor is not

supported for pluggable databases (PDBs).

Note: You can run the LIST FAILURE command to show all known failures.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmrepai.htm

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Question 1:

Which statement about CDB architecture is true?

A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.

B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.

C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.

D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.

E. You can create common users in PDBs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235

Question 2:

As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:

Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin srvctl stop database -d myDb chopt enable dm srvctl start database -d my

What does this do?

A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.

B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.

C. It generates a Client Static Library.

D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.

E. It configures Oracle Net Services.

F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see 4.4)

Question 3:

Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?

A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.

B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).

C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).

D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.

E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.

Correct Answer: AD

A: The PGA is memory specific to an operating process or thread that is not shared by other processes or threads on the system. Because the PGA is process-specific, it is never allocated in the SGA.

The PGA is a memory heap that contains session-dependent variables required by a dedicated or shared server process. The server process allocates memory structures that it requires in the PGA.

D: The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles. In a shared server architecture, the library cache also contains private SQL areas.

Incorrect:

Not B: The SGA is a read/write memory area that, along with the Oracle background processes, form a

database instance. All server processes that execute on behalf of users can read the information in the instance SGA. Several processes write to the SGA during database operation.

Not C: A private SQL area (PGA) holds information about a parsed SQL statement and other session-specific information for processing. When a server process executes SQL or PL/SQL code, the process uses the private SQL area to store bind variable values, query execution state information, and query execution work areas.

Reference: Oracle Database Concepts, 12c, Memory Architecture

Question 4:

Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?

A. Hosts and databases

B. Hosts, databases, and application servers

C. Application servers and web applications

D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)

E. Databases, application servers, and web applications

F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-best- practicesv21493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)

Question 5:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus?

A. It has commands for performing database administration operations.

B. It can be used in interactive but not batch mode for SQL commands.

C. It has to be installed separately after the Oracle Database 12c installation.

D. Operating system commands can be executed from the SQL*Plus command prompt.

Correct Answer: AC

C: how to start SQL*Plus:

1- Make sure that SQL*Plus has been installed on your computer.

2. Log on to the operating system (if required).

3. Enter the command, SQLPLUS, and press Return.

Etc.

Not B: In the SQL*Plus command line, the use of an external editor in combination with the @, @@, or START commands is an effective method of creating and executing generic scripts. You can write scripts that contain SQL*Plus, SQL, and PL/SQL commands, which you can retrieve and edit. This is especially useful for storing complex commands or frequently used reports.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B14117_01/server.101/b12170/qstart.htm

Question 6:

Which two statements about the Process Monitor (PMON) process are true?

A. PMON performs process recovery when a client process fails.

B. During instance startup, PMON takes care of instance recovery.

C. PMON performs listener registration.

D. PMON restarts background and dispatcher processes when they fail.

E. PMON resolves failures of distributed transactions.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 7:

Which statement is true about loading data by using the conventional path of SQL*Loader?

A. Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.

B. Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY, and NOT NULL constraints are checked,

C. No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are performed.

D. Instead of performing transactions, SQL*Loader directly writes data blocks to the data files.

E. INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled at the end of the load.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A57673_01/DOC/server/doc/SUT73/ch8.htm#data %20paths (see direct loads, integrity constraints, and triggers)

Question 8:

Identify three key properties of a transaction in Oracle Database 12c.

A. durability

B. consistency

C. concurrency

D. isolation

E. scalability

F. manageability

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/transact.htm#CNCPT016

Question 9:

Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files, and control files for a pluggable database?

A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)

B. OS file system

C. logical volume (LVM)

D. clustered file system

E. RAW

Correct Answer: E

Question 10:

Which two statements about ADDM are true?

A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.

B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH’s recent activity from SGA data.

C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.

D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

Correct Answer: CD

C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases. Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions, and many other exceptional situations that today force the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. ‘

Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and recommend a resolution

Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs, and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exceptional situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.

D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.

Question 11:

Which two items are key for maintaining data consistency in Oracle Database 12c?

A. undo data

B. isolation level

C. lock mechanism

D. serializability

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25789/consist.htm#CNCPT88969 (overview of the oracle database locking mechanism)

Question 12:

You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?

A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different release.

B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with different character sets.

C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.

D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.

E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the Oracle home, before the database software installation.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which logical storage relationship is correct?

A. Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

B. B) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace

C. Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock

D. Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/basics-of-logical-structures-in-oracle- 12c.html

Question 14:

Which two statements about multitenant architecture are true?

A. Multiple PDBs on a single server need multiple database instances and multiple sets of database files.

B. Although consolidated into a single physical database, PDBs mimic the behavior of non-CDBs.

C. A PDB administrator can use Oracle Flashback or point-in-time recovery to retrieve lost data from a PDB, only by shutting down all the PDBs from the CDB.

D. It is easier to collect performance metrics for many databases in a CDB than individual non-CDB databases.

E. It takes more time to apply a patch to one CDB that holds hundreds of PDBs than to hundreds of non-CDB databases.

Correct Answer: BD

B: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

D: Ease of performance tuning

It is easier to collect performance metrics for a single database than for multiple databases. It is easier to size one SGA than 100 SGAs.

Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation

URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239

Question 15:

Which three statements represent the benefits of multitenant architecture for database consolidation?

A. You can unplug a PDB from a development CDB and plug it into a production CDB, which allows for easier and more rapid movement of data and code.

B. You can consolidate shared database memory by combining multiple PDBs in a single CDB.

C. Patching individual PDBs requires the same amount of time as patching individual databases.

D. Consolidating separate databases into a single CDB requires the same amount of storage allocation.

E. In multitenant architecture, a PDB behaves the same as a non-CDB as seen from a client connecting with Oracle Net. No client modification is required.

Correct Answer: ADE

A: By design, you can quickly plug a PDB into a CDB, unplug the PDB from the CDB, and then plug this

PDB into a different CDB. The implementation technique for plugging and unplugging is similar to the

transportable tablespace technique.

D: The process of consolidating data from multiple databases into one database on one computer is

known as database consolidation. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the Oracle Multitenant option enables

you to consolidate data and code without altering existing schemas or applications.

By consolidating hardware and sharing database memory and files, you reduce costs for hardware,

storage, availability, and labor. For example, 100 PDBs on a single server share one database instance

and one set of database files, thereby requiring less hardware and fewer personnel.

E: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation

URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239

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Question 1:

Examine the parameters for your database instance:

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 1

You execute the following command:

SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NO GUARANTEE;

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.

B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to a lack of space in the undo tablespace.

C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.

D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:

1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.

2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.

3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.

4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes of session idle time before being logged off automatically.

How would you accomplish this?

A. by granting a secure application role to the user

B. by implementing Database Resource Manager

C. by using Oracle Label Security options

D. by assigning a profile to the user

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT\’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.

Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING \’HQ\’;

B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING `HQ\’;

C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;

D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.

B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.

C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.

D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D

The stop_on_window_close attribute controls whether the GATHER_STATS_JOB continues when the maintenance window closes. The default setting for the stop_on_window_close attribute is TRUE, causing Scheduler to terminate GATHER_STATS_JOB when the maintenance window closes. The remaining objects are then processed in the next maintenance window.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/stats.htm#g49431

Question 5:

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following

specifications:

Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.

The number of concurrent user connections will be high.

The database will have a mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.

Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled

C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled

D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.

B. An extent can span multiple segments.

C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.

D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.

E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 7:

Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).

B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.

C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.

D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Correct Answer: D

References:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm (see log writer process (LGWR))

Question 8:

The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.

Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A. connecting by using an external naming method

B. connecting by using the easy connect method

C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service

D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service

E. connecting by using a directory naming method

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which two tasks can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)

A. partitioning the table

B. creating an invisible index

C. updating the table by using an update statement

D. creating a public synonym

E. creating a view

Correct Answer: DE

You can, for example, select, join, or sort external table data. You can also create views and synonyms for external tables. However, no DML operations (UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE) are possible, and no indexes can be created, on external tables.

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507

Question 10:

Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.

C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.

D. It cannot have more than one dependency.

E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 11:

The HR user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:

On investigation, you find that the user’s tablespace uses Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.

Which two methods would you use to resolve this error? (Choose two.)

A. Altering the data file associated with the USERS tablespace to extend automatically

B. Adding a data file to the USERS tablespace

C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual

D. Creating a new tablespace with auto-extend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace

E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Correct Answer: AB

Question 12:

Which three factors influence the optimizer\’s choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter

B. operating system (OS) statistics

C. cardinality estimates

D. object statistics in the data dictionary

E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 13:

Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 13

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.

B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.

C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.

D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.

E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 14:

Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.

B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.

C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.

D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 15

You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high watermark. What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.

B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.

C. No queries are running on this table.

D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.

E. No pending transaction exists on the table.

Correct Answer: A

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Question 1:

Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and

ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.

A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:

ERROR at line 1:

ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp\’

ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status

Identify two ways to rectify the error. (Choose two.)

A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that produced the error.

B. Shut down the database instance, and restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.

C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.

D. Shut down the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.

E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Correct Answer: AE

Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.

If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

Question 2:

Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

Free 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps Questions 2

Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.

B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.

C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

Correct Answer: AC

The triggers cloned to the interim table are disabled until the redefinition is completed. Once the redefinition is complete, all cloned objects are renamed to the original names used by the objects they were cloned from.

References: http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/10g/online-table-redefinition-enhancements-10gr1.php

Question 3:

Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column? (Choose two.)

A. The procedures may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.

B. The procedures may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.

C. All the components may be moved into the SYSAUX tablespace.

D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: AB

References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_v_sysaux_contents_tips.htm

Question 4:

Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.

B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.

C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.

D. The listener. or configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.

E. The listener. ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) finding in your production database reports that the shared pool is inadequately sized. You diagnose that this is due to the different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. The following are the parameter settings for the database instance: You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components depending on the workload.

Free 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps Questions 5

Which option would solve this problem?

A. setting the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to 200M and the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

B. setting the MEMORY_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE parameters to 400M

C. setting the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M

D. setting the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)

C. Oracle Label Security

D. Oracle Database Vault

E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.

The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:

1. Mount the CDB.

2. Close all the PDBs.

3. Open the database.

4. Apply the archive redo logs.

5. Restore the data file.

6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.

7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.

8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.

10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.

Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?

A. 6, 5, 4, 7

B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8

C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8

D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10

Correct Answer: A

RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;

RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;

RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;

RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;

Example:

While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.

Cannot close the pdb as the system data file was missing…

So the only option to recover was:

Shutdown cdb (10)

startup mount; (1)

restore pluggable database

recover pluggable database

alter database open;

alter pluggable database name open;

Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of

PDB.

Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an

inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:

/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances) / After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT

Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs are created since the backup is available.

* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

Question 8:

Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?

A. Reduced logical I/O

B. Reduced virtual memory utilization

C. Improved parallel Execution performance

D. Improved Serial Execution performance

E. Reduced physical I/O

F. Reduced CPU utilization

Correct Answer: BCF

* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems

Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users–either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users.

Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously.

Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives a good performance.

* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.

Question 9:

In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database.

Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined in the table.

A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.

Minimal disruption to availability is required.

Which three statements are true about this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.

B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.

D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.

E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

Correct Answer: ACD

A: You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.

D: Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use the ALTER TABLE…MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.

C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same tablespace.

Incorrect Answers:

B, E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuilt with UPDATE INDEXES when you move the

table.

References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/issue-archive/2014/14-may/o34dba-2193424.html

Question 10:

Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server connections?

A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations

B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas

C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors

D. Contains stack space

E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables

Correct Answer: ABC

The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following: / (B)UGA (User Global Area) for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where transactions interact with multiple databases) /Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements / (A) Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves

Note:

large pool

Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore operations, I/O

server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle XA.

Oracle XA

An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction manager other than

Oracle Database.

UGA

User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon information, and can also

contain the OLAP pool.

Configuring the Large Pool

Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list (not D). Oracle Database does not

attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if the database instance

uses any of the following Oracle Database features:

Shared server

In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in the shared pool.

Parallel query

The parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.

Recovery Manager

Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore

operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates buffers

that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.

Question 11:

You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.

How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?

A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.

B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.

C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.

D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.

E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

You plan to use the In-Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.

Which three storage options support the use of HCC? (Choose three.)

A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.

B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on any Storage Area Network array

C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero-padded NFS-mounted files

D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.

E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature

F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature

G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays

Correct Answer: AEG

HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage. Exadata (A), Pillar Axiom (G), or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA).

Note:

Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to support Pillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above

Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, better performance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

Question 13:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.

How does a real-time Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.

B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.

D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Correct Answer: B

Note:

The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM).

The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.

Question 14:

The tnsnames. ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:

Free 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps Questions 14

The TNSPING command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:

SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl

What could be the reason for this?

A. The listener is not running on the database node.

B. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.

C. The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.

D. The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.

E. The listener is running on a different port.

Correct Answer: C

Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request arrives.

Question 15:

Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

4. Revoke unused privileges.

5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

6. Stop analyzing the data.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4

B. 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

E. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Correct Answer: B

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

6. Stop analyzing the data.

2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

4. Revoke unused privileges.

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