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Question 1:

Isa Global Inc. is based in the United States with divisions in Europe and Asia. All journal imports, recurring journals, mass allocations, and manual journal entries have been posted for their European subsidiary. What is the next logical step in the period-close process?

A. opening the next period

B. closing the current period

C. revaluing foreign currency balances

D. translating to the functional currency

E. consolidating to the parent set of books

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Select two actions that ledger sets permit. (Choose two.)

A. performing variance inquiries

B. being used for mass budgets

C. sending budget balance inquiries

D. viewing account balances for multiple ledgers in one view

E. grouping multiple ledgers that share the same chart of accounts and calendar

Correct Answer: DE


Question 3:

Select three activities that must be performed to complete the setup of the key accounting flexfield. (Choose three.)

A. Create aliases.

B. Define a value set.

C. Define security rules.

D. Define an account structure.

E. Define valid segment values.

F. Create account combinations.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 4:

Which two statements are true about the reporting currency in Oracle General Ledger? (Choose two.)

A. It is an integrated extension of a ledger.

B. It replaces multiple reporting currencies.

C. Reporting currencies are the same as secondary ledgers.

D. Reporting currencies cannot have the same chart of accounts, accounting method, and ledger processing options.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 5:

The company’s two senior executives have different budget figures. They want Peter, the GL accountant, to prepare two current budgets in Oracle Financials and submit budgets to both of them. What would be your response?

A. It is not possible to have more than one current budget.

B. Whether you can have multiple current budgets depends on the budget organization.

C. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the budget level if you want to have multiple current budgets.

D. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the set of books level if you want to have multiple current budgets.

E. The Oracle General Ledger budget functionality supports multiple current budgets, so there is no problem in satisfying this requirement.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Identify the four setup options that control supplier defaults. (Choose four.)

A. financial options

B. payables options

C. receiving options

D. purchasing options

E. Payables system setup

F. Trading Community Architecture (TCA)

Correct Answer: ABDE


Question 7:

Identify three ways that an invoice can be submitted for validation. (Choose three.)

A. online by clicking the Validate button in the Invoice Batches window

B. online by clicking the Validate and Account button in the Invoice Batches window

C. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Invoice Workbench

D. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Submit Request window

E. online by selecting either the Validate check box or the Validate Related Invoices check box in the Invoice Actions window

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 8:

You are working on an implementation for Accounts Payable for ABC Inc. Your client has three requirements:

1. They want to be able to pay only certain types of suppliers by batch.

2. Each payment batch must be under $100,000 USD, or the batch automatically gets canceled without user intervention.

3. Every single payment for a supplier site must be between $10 USD and $10,000 USD, or the payment is automatically not issued.

To meet the above requirements, you perform these steps:

A. Set up suppliers with pay groups for each type, and use them when running the payment batch.

B. Set up the payment batch with Maximum Outlay equal to $100,000 USD.

C. Set up the payment batch with Maximum/Minimum payments as $10 USD and $10,000 USD. Which requirements have you met?

A. 2 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 1 and 3

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Payables list four seeded payment methods. They are check, outsourced check, electronic, and wire. Choose the correct description for the wire.

A. a paper check to print and send to a supplier

B. an EFT, EDI, or XML to the bank of a supplier

C. a funds transfer is initiated by contacting the bank and requesting a wire payment to the bank of a supplier

D. transmission of payment information to an external party, such as your bank, that prints checks on your behalf

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which event reverses an accrual for an item set to accrue on the receipt?

A. paying an invoice

B. delivering goods to a final destination

C. running the Receipt Accruals – Period-end process

D. matching an invoice in Payables to a purchase order

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Identify three setup options that are defined in the Financial Options window. (Choose three.)

A. interest

B. retainage

C. miscellaneous

D. expenses clearing

E. expense AP accrual account

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

Select two actions available in Oracle General Ledger. (Choose two.)

A. deleting posted journals

B. exporting data to subsidiary ledgers

C. importing data from subsidiary ledgers

D. consolidating balances in subsidiary ledgers

E. consolidating balances from multiple ledgers

Correct Answer: CE


Question 13:

Identify the different types of data that can be processed using the GL Interface. (Choose three.)

A. rates

B. budget

C. vendors

D. statistical

E. intercompany

F. currency codes

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 14:

Choose the reason why Tina is unable to view the sub ledger entries from Oracle Payables in the Oracle General Ledger module. She has run the transfer program that completes successfully.

A. Journal Import is not submitted.

B. The Journal source is not defined.

C. The Journal category is not defined.

D. Payables is not integrated with General Ledger.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

ABC Corporation has five companies, which operate in different industries. Each company has a different ledger-processing option that is industry specific. Choose the number of primary ledgers that are required

to be defined.

A. five

B. four

C. two

D. one

E. three

Correct Answer: A


 

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Question 1:

Which operation is allowed in a BMQL query?

A. SELECT, INSERT, and DELETE

B. SELECT and UPDATE

C. SELECT, INSERT, and UPDATE

D. SELECT

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A client wants customers to be able to select a laptop category from a drop-down list in the Product Configuration section. After the laptop category is selected, all laptops within that category need to be displayed without the user having to do any more selections.

Which option meets this requirement?

A. Formula Administration

B. Util library function

C. Commerce library function

D. Auto Update

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.)

A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on multiple Commerce Transactions

B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for parts in CPQ Cloud

C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the

changes

D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new inventory levels

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

Your customer has sales organizations in two countries.

The customer wants to make sure that users from one country have access only to quotes from that country.

How do you achieve this?

A. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. For each step, define two different participant profiles: Profile A and Profile B. For each profile, select one matching group.

B. Hide Transaction Manager in CPQ and make sure that all access to quotes is performed from the CRM system where you can easily define which quotes should be visible for different users.

C. Define different steps (for example, Pending A and Pending B) for each country. The participant profile of each step allows access through user groups (either Group A or Group B depending on the step). Using transition rules, make sure that quotes for Country A are always moved to steps belonging to that country.

D. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. Define a participant profile, Sales, for each step. Define an auto-forwarding rule which returns either “Group A~company~Sales” or “Group B~company~Sales”.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What is the correct method to add new parts data to the CPQ Cloud database?

A. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data into a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed ZIP file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

B. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data directly to the CPQ Cloud database.

C. Perform a bulk download of at least one part to capture the part file format that the CPQ Cloud site uses, populate the new part data into the downloaded part file (.csv file), and enter “add” in the Update column for each new part, save the spreadsheet as a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

D. Export the part data from your current part system into a .csv file, put the .csv file into a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

E. Use Bulk Upload to upload the data from the remote part system into a .csv file and import the file into the CPQ Cloud site.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When implementing Subscription Ordering according to the Subscription Ordering Implementation Guide, you are asked to modify the formula for the Price (List) line level attribute.

What must you do to properly modify the formula?

A. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price files of the BOM Item Definition table with a true value of the valid price value.

B. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of zero.

C. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid entry in a specific Subscription Ordering price book with a true value of zero.

D. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of Part Base Price.

E. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price field of the BOM Item Mapping table with a true value of the valid price value.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly distributed vertically?

A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height

B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions

C. Add HTML attributes and use

D. Use CSS

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Identify the three data types available for part custom fields. (Choose three.)

A. “String,” can be changed to “Single Select Menu”

B. “Boolean”

C. “Float,” can be changed to “Integer”

D. “Date,”, can include time

E. “Currency”

F. “Multi Select Menu”

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

A customer sets up a BOM mapping for a Configuration model using a single simple Table-Based BOM Mapping Configuration rule, as well as the BOM Item Definition and BOM Item Mapping Tables. When reviewing their implementation, they notice the following: The BOM Root Items Administration List shows the root BOM item and its child BOM items correctly.

No errors are displayed. (Accessed from Admin > Products > BOM > BOM Root Items List) The BOM Mapping Administration List shows no root BOM items or child BOM items. No errors are displayed. (Accessed from the BOM Mapping rule\’s “Save and View Details” button)

Which filed have they incorrectly populated in their BOM Mapping Tables?

A. “Configurable Attribute Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

B. “Parent BOM Map Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

C. “Root Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

D. “Parent Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

E. “Part Number” in the BOM Item Definition Table

F. “BOM Item Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and Admin.

The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.

The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.

The step has an auto-forwarding rule.

A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves the quote to “Pending”.

The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep

Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?

A. SalesManager profile

B. SalesRep profile

C. Admin profile

D. Owner profile

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an array set?

A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set

B. by using CSS to hide icons

C. by hiding the control attribute

D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How do you modify a specific user\’s access (grant access or remove access) to Product Families, Supported Product Families, and Data Table folders?

A. For each Product Family or Data table folder affected, click the Modify tab for that item and then select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.

B. Click the Group name on the Group Administration List page that has this user as a member, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.

C. Use the Navigation Menus item on the Administration home page to grant or remove access to specific Product Families or Data Table folders for the user.

D. Go to the Product Family definition or the Data Table folder properties for which you want to grant or remove access, click the Access Permissions tab, select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.

E. Click the user\’s name on the User Administration List page to edit the user, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ Cloud?

A. You must upload the file to the automated folder on the FTP server

B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file

C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes

D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

When using Web Services 1.0, consider the following sequence of a client system calling CPQ Cloud WebServices.

1. Call Security Login WebServices with User ID and Password.

2. Create a Commerce update transaction WebServices call by using an existing transaction ID.

3. Make the following updates in the web service XML:

Set Session ID Set “_shipTo_first_name” to “myName”

4. Submit the WebService call.

5. Call Security Logout WebServices with the Session ID to close the session. Based on the given sequence, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The call in step 4 will throw an error

B. The Commerce transaction should be updated with the new Ship To name

C. The session will still be open

D. Step 3 does not specify an action to execute; therefore, nothing is updated in the transaction

E. Step 5 is unnecessary. The session ID is not needed to log out

Correct Answer: CE


Question 15:

Which three discount types are available in pricing? (Choose three.)

A. percent discount

B. quantity-dependent discount

C. amount discount

D. promotion discount

E. absolute price

Correct Answer: ABC


 

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Question 1:

Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.

Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?

(Choose two.)

A. UOM information IS

B. shipping information

C. on-hand information

D. ATP supply information

E. reservations information

Correct Answer: BE


Question 2:

Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose three.)

A. the ABC class is an Item attribute.

B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.

C. an ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.

D. ABC classes can be used to group Items for planning purposes.

E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your items belong.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 3:

You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)

A. Move Order

B. Locator transfer

C. Subinventory transfer

D. WIP component Issue

E. Miscellaneous Receipt

F. WIP assembly completion

G. Interorganization transfer direct

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.

B. The items have a non reservable material status.

C. The Inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.

D. The Inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.

E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)

A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.

B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.

C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub-inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub-inventory.

D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for non-asset (expense) sub-inventories for which quantities are tracked.

E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance levels

F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle count header level

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 6:

Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are manufactured in one operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different operating units.

All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization\’s standard cost plus a transfer charge percentage.

Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose three.)

A. Define an Intercompany Price List.

B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.

C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.

D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.

E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.

F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.

G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for all inventory organizations in each operating unit.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 7:

Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)

A. Planning, Engineering, Costing

B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory

C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials

D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing

E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process

F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger

G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the

customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form.

Which form would provide this Information?

A. Pending Status

B. View Material Transactions

C. Find Pending Transactions

D. Transaction Open Interface

E. Inventory Accounting Period

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for Inventory Items using the Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?

A. Items cost only

B. Items with on-hand quantity only

C. Either item with the on-hand quantity or items costed

D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items cost

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots. Expired lots______.

A. Can be reserved

B. Are not allowed to do subinventory transfer

C. Are not included in Inventory valuation reports

D. Cannot be transacted and included in on-hand quantities

E. Are not included in the cycle and physical counting adjustments

F. Are not considered as an on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning

Correct Answer: F


Question 11:

ABC Company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:

1. Purchase order receipt

2. Miscellaneous receipt

3. Account alias receipt

The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?

A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No

D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes

E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?

A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions

B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM

C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM

D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class

E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)

A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.

B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.

C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.

D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization level.

E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations while transacting on an item.

F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 14:

Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the item. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from nonlocal sources.

Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.

B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.

C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection Required.

D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.

E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local source.

F. Create item transaction default for the item hi the Item Master Organization.

G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.

H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the Item in the Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: EGH


Question 15:

For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing. what are the system requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)

A. the Receiving Transaction manager must be active.

B. the Cost Manager Interface manager must be active.

C. the Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

D. the Material Transaction interface manager must be active.

E. the Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

Correct Answer: BD


 

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Question 1:

Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)

A. View asset Information across multiple asset books.

B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignments.

C. Submit and view data across different Ledgers using a single responsibility.

D. Enter Payables invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.

E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 2:

Which two statements are true regarding the partitioning of data by an application? (Choose two.)

A. General Ledger is partitioned by Ledgers.

B. Accounts Payable is partitioned by Ledgers.

C. Fixed Assets are partitioned by Operating Unit.

D. Accounts Receivable is partitioned by Operating Unit.

E. Order Management is partitioned by Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

ABC Corp. has determined its Accounting Key Flexfield structure for the Implementation of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. The Accounting Key Flexfield structure contains five Segments: Company, Business Unit, Department, Account, and Product.

They have the following requirements:

1) The Department values should be based on the Business Units.

2) They want to produce a quarterly Balance Sheet for each Company.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The Product Value Set is dependent on the Accounts.

B. The Business Unit Value Set is defined as Independent.

C. The Account Segment has a Value Set with no Validation.

D. The Company Segment is qualified as the Balancing Segment.

E. The Department Segment Is qualified as an Intercompany Segment.

F. Cross-validation rules are required to enforce the dependency of Departments on the Business Units.

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 4:

Identify four tasks that you can perform using Oracle Workflow in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, (choose four}

A. Automata business processes,

B. Generate account code combinations,

C. Approve standard business documents,

D. Send notifications using Advanced Queuing,

E. Generate Inventory item numbers using item generator workflow,

F. Integrate with third-party business systems that are not on a company network.

Correct Answer: ABDF


Question 5:

Identify two correct statements related to Key Performance Indicators and the KPI region in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)

A. can be of table format only

B. can be configured for each dashboard

C. organizes data into reporting hierarchies

D. is a strategic business factor that is used for reporting

E. contains a unique set of graphical information on a dashboard

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

The organization that Receivables uses to validate items is set up using______.

A. the AR: Items Flexfield Mode profile option

B. the AR: Allow Manual Invoice Lines profile option

C. the AR: Item Validation Organization profile option

D. item validation organization In the OM Parameters window

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins. The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments.

What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control?

A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access.

B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level.

C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts.

D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts.

E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the fields required at the header level?

A. date, customer, source, type, GL date, legal entity

B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to

C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to

D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) date, class

E. date, source, class, type, GL date, legal entity, bill-to, terms, remit-to

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Select three statements that apply to IReceivables. (Choose three.)

A. It Is a Web-based self-service application.

B. It can be used to verify the status of Invoices and receipts.

C. It is geared towards call centers, as well as credit and collections departments.

D. It can be used to initiate the Oracle Approvals Management (AME) credit memo request workflow.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 10:

The client entered a miscellaneous receipt by mistake; it was posted to General Ledger. Now the miscellaneous receipt needs to be reversed.

Which method would you advise the client to use?

A. Carry out a standard reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

B. Carry out a debit memo reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

C. Create a receivable activity adjustment for the reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

D. Create an adjustment in receivables for the reversal of the effect of the miscellaneous receipt.

E. Create a journal entry in General Ledger to reverse the accounting impact created by the posting of the miscellaneous receipt.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

After registering new data sources, you must complete your Bill Presentment Architecture by creating database views.

How many database views can you create for each data source?

A. one

B. nine

C. three

D. unlimited

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You are setting up Receivable Accounting Events in Subledger Accounting. Identify Event Entity.

A. Invoices

B. deposits

C. guarantees

D. transactions

E. chargebacks

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You have just opened the Transactions form. Which field would you see on this form?

A. company

B. legal entity

C. cost center

D. operating unit

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which two statements are true about invoicing rules and accounting rules? (Choose two.)

A. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is optional.

B. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is not allowed.

C. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is also required.

D. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect until Invoices are paid.

E. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect unless you choose the accrual method of accounting.

F. Invoicing rules determine when invoices are due. Accounting rules affect how invoices me accounted for

Correct Answer: CE


Question 15:

Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the AutoInvoice Execution report. They needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section of the report shows the following:

Selected: 9 Successfully Processed: 8 Failed Validation: 0

What is the likely reason for this?

A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.

B. General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross-validation rules.

C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invoice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit memo Is selected first.

D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit memo Is selected first.

E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is end-dated a day earlier.

Correct Answer: D


 

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Question 1:

Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)

A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.

B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.

C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.

D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.

E. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.

F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 2:

A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales orders with distributor key strokes.

Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)

A. Defaulting rules

B. Transaction types

C. OM: invoice source

D. Processing constraints

E. Automatic attachments rules

F. OM: invoice transaction type

G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions

Correct Answer: ABEG


Question 3:

ACME has offices in various countries, and its customers and suppliers are based around the globe.

Given that addresses are formatted differently in each country, how would you set up the system to handle this situation?

A. Set up the address as a context-sensitive key flex field.

B. Set up the address as a free format segmented value set.

C. Set up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive flex field D. Set up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)

A. Accrual is a valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.

B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.

C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.

D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using only Basic pricing.

E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.

F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 5:

Which option identifies the requirements to ship and confirm a sales order line?

A. The item attribute is shippable and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

B. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Picked and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

C. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Booked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

D. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Entered, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Awaiting Shipping, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types.

Identify five valid item types. (Choose five)

A. Ship Only

B. Order Only

C. OM Standard

D. Order Header

E. OM Price Only

F. Return for Credit

G. OM change Order

H. OM blanket Header

Correct Answer: BCDGH


Question 7:

An order has five lines with line status of Staged/Pick Confirmed.

There is no record on the Delivery tab in the Shipping Transaction form for this order.

What could be the possible resolution?

A. Resolve the shipping exception.

B. Enable shipping privileges for the user.

C. Autocreate delivery from the Pick Release form.

D. Autocreate delivery from the Delivery Transaction form.

E. Autocreate delivery from the Shipping Transaction form.

Correct Answer: E


Question 8:

ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.

All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using Configurator, which makes it intuitive for configuring PTO models.

Which statement is true?

A. A routing needs to be defined for the PTO model.

B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.

C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.

D. After selecting all the options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured part.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on collection data. (Choose four)

A. Define price-lists

B. Define ATP rules

C. Setup stock locators

D. Setup transit lead time

E. Set up pricing modifiers

F. Select the ATP item attribute

G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise

H. Set up Inventory Organization Hierarchy

Correct Answer: BDFG


Question 10:

Identify three correct statements about Cascading Attributes. (Choose three)

A. Enable Quick Code OM_Header_to_Line_Cascade.

B. Enable the Key Profile option OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade Header Changes to Line.

C. The Cascading Attributes feature is applicable to User Interface, but not for any API (Process Order)

D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint still allows updates to other lines.

E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the Profile OM: Sales Order Form Cascade Header change to the line.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Allowing a negative on-hand balance is set at _________.

A. The Entity Level

B. The Subinventory Level

C. The operating Unit Level

D. The Item master inventory level

E. The Inventory organization level

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three) A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.

B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.

C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.

D. The system parameter OM Employee for self-service orders has been changed to an OM system parameter with the same name.

E. The system parameter name OM employee for self-service order in single OM system parameter which has not changed to an OM profile.

F. The profile OM employee for self-service orders is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship orders created by external users.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 13:

Choose the correct statement that applies to LPNs.

A. LPNs are organization independent.

B. Deliveries must exist before creating LPNs.

C. No container item is required to create LPNs.

D. LPN number can be defined with a prefix, starting number, and suffix.

E. The delivery line status should be picked and released before it can be assigned to LPNs.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which three statements are true about the intercompany drop ship process across different operating units? (Choose three)

A. Customer\’s addresses are visible across the ledger.

B. Customer addresses are not visible across the ledger.

C. The shipping organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.

D. The procurement organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.

E. The shipping organization creates an intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.

F. The procurement organization creates an intercompany Receivables invoice for the goods

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 15:

Which statement best describes locator Control? (Choose two)

A. Cannot be changed after it is specified

B. Can be specified at the item master level

C. Can be specified at the operating unit level

D. Can be specified at the inventory organization level

Correct Answer: BD


 

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Question 1:

When you enter a receipt, you first use the Find Expected Receipts window to locate the source document

for the receipt.

Select four valid source documents for a receipt. (Choose four.)

A. An approved internal requisition line

B. An in-transit shipment within your inventory

C. A shipment from a supplier based on a purchase order

D. A move order from inventory for material storage relocation

E. A return from a customer based on a return material authorization (RMA)

F. A shipment from inventory backed by an internal safes order generated by an internal requisition

Correct Answer: BCEF


Question 2:

Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window?

A. Viewer: Text

B. Concurrent: Report Copies

C. Flexfields: Open Key Window

D. Concurrent Report: Access Level

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)

A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.

B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as other entities.

C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best practice to do so.

D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.

E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you cannot have it default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would default when you log in the next time.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.

A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link

B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link

C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation

D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which three financial options can default when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)

A. Ship Via

B. Default Buyer

C. RFQ-Only Site

D. Bill-To Location

E. Supplier Classification

F. Payment Bank Account

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 6:

Which window in Purchasing would you use to copy on the existing global Approved Supplier List entry and make it local to your organization?

A. Supplier Status

B. Request For Quotation

C. Supplier-Item Attribute

D. Approved Supplier List Statuses

E. Sourcing Rule/Bill of Distribution Assignments

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which two statements are true about using foreign currency? (Choose two)

A. Requisition total is expressed in foreign currency.

B. Currency can be changed even after a requisition is approved.

C. Currency cannot be changed once a purchase order is approved.

D. A foreign currency reference can be specified for each purchase order line.

E. Requisition can automatically source blanket agreements or catalog quotations with foreign currency information.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

A recent shipment of item A was routed to the inspection department according to standard practice, but

no receipt for item A is available in the system for inspection.

What might have happened?

A. Requester set the receipt routing to Direct Delivery in the requisition,

B. Receiving clerk created an express receipt instead of a standard one.

C. Buyer changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt in the purchase order line.

D. Buyer changed the routing to Direct Delivery at the supplier site level for this supplier.

E. Receiving clerk changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt at the time of receiving.

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.

A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

B. Prepare for the period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL

C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.

D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.

E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source

inventory items across different organizations.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL

B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.

C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.

D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.

E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 11:

An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment. Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.

B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.

C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.

D. Company X has set up Planning and would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can be set to New or Approved.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase

agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option

to update and create blanket purchase sourcing rules.

Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?

A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing

B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set

C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules

D. PO: Allow Auto creation of Oracle Sourcing Documents

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A medium-sized multinational company based in the US has two business groups (BG), BG1 (for the US) and BG2 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies H1 and H2, respectively. The company has a policy that only the Controllers and those above them can approve capital Items on requisitions and purchase orders.

However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must also be able to authorize capital purchases. The account range for capital items is 2000-2599. The relevant approval limits are:

1) Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000 2) Controller in BG1: $500,000 3) Controller in BG2: $200,000

Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)

A. An employee in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee\’s manager and forwarded to the group Controller in BG1 who approves it.

B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee\’s manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.

C. The buyer hi BG1 raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BG1 who approves it.

D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with a charge for inventory items to be stocked in an asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.

E. The shop floor supervisor in BG1 raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The supervisor\’s manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BG1 for final approval.

F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in BG2 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2 places the order on the supplier.

Correct Answer: CF


Question 14:

When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)

A. entering suppliers twice

B. issuing specific invoices

C. generating inaccurate returns

D. generating inaccurate receipts

E. generating accurate supplier reports

F. issuing more payments than necessary

G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary

Correct Answer: AFG


Question 15:

Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?

A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.

B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.

C. Manually enter RFQs and Data Load Quotations.

D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.

E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,

F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.

Correct Answer: F


 

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Question 1:

Your customer has set up a contract project with a distribution rule Work/Work. Identify three setup options to:

A. Set up revenue categories as required.

B. Define revenue accountsatthe revenue category setup level.

C. Define AutoAccounting rules to derive revenue accounts based on revenue category.

D. Definegrouping option by revenue category on the invoice format and attach the invoice format at the project type level.

E. Define grouping option by revenue category on the project type.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation:

Note:

Revenue and Billing Information

When you enter revenue information for your project, you specify a revenue distribution rule for the revenue accrual method and the billing method for this project.

When you enter billing information, you specify invoice formats, bill cycle days, and other invoicing information. The project type determines which revenue

distribution rule appears as the default value for this field, and which other revenue distribution rules you can choose from. Oracle Projects predefines the following

revenue distribution rules:

Cost/CostAccrue revenue and bill using the ratio of the actual cost to budgeted cost (percent spent). Cost/EventAccrue revenue using the ratio of the actual cost to

budgeted cost (percent spent), and bill based on events.

Cost/WorkAccrue revenue using the ratio of the actual cost to budgeted cost (percent spent), and bill as work occurs.

Event/EventAccrue revenue and bill based on events.

Event/WorkAccrue revenue based on events, and bill as work occurs. Work/EventAccrue revenue as work occurs, and bill based on events.

Work/WorkAccrue revenue and bill as work occurs.


Question 2:

Identify two predefined transaction sources that Oracle Projects uses to import the transactions generated within Oracle Projects.

A. Oracle Interproject Supplier Invoices

B. Oracle Projects Intercompany Supplier Invoices

C. Project Allocations

D. Capitalized Interest

E. Oracle Interprojed Customer Invoices

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:

Oracle Projects uses predefined transaction sources to import project allocations and capitalized interest transactions that it generates internally.

References:


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

1Z0-511 free dumps questions 3

In your company\’s Expenditure/Event Organization Hierarchy, organization labor costing rules are assigned to all organizations except San Jose. What happens when you run the “PRC: Distribute labor costs” program for a timecard transaction entered by an employee from the San Jose organization?

A. Therule assigned for SanFranciscotakes precedence and the transaction will be successfully distributed.

B. The rule assigned for the USA takes precedence and the transaction will be successfully cost-distributed.

C. The rule assigned for California takes precedence and the transaction will be successfully cost distributed.

D. The program ignores this transaction because no labor costing rules are assigned for San Jose. and completes normally.

E. The program completes normally. However, the output will have this transaction under the exceptions section with the message “No Labor costing rule assigned for the organization.”

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:


Question 4:

Which two options are not task attributes for financial task structure?

A. Task Type

B. Service Type

C. Work Type

D. Chargeable Flag

E. Scheduled Dates

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:

Incorrect:

Not A: Task types assign default attributes to tasks and control how Oracle Projects processes tasks.

Task types specify basic task attributes.

Not C: Work types represent a classification of work. You use work types to classify both actual and scheduled work.

Not E: Oracle Projects uses start and finish dates to control processing, indicate estimated and scheduled duration, and serve as tools to evaluate project

performance.

The start and finish dates at the project level are:

Actual: Actual dates when work on the project started and finished. You can use these dates to drive future timecards and earned value functionality.

(not E)Scheduled: Scheduled start and finish dates for the project.

Target: The expected lifespan of the project.

Estimated: A task manager\’s estimate of when work on the project will be started and finished.

Baseline: The baselined schedule


Question 5:

A new contract project is created for work for a customer by using event-based billing. A decision has been made to give a discount to the customer on a particular invoice. You want to apply this discount and reduce the invoice without affecting revenue.

Which event type should be used to achieve this?

A. Manual

B. Invoice Reduction

C. Deferred Revenue

D. Automatic

E. ScheduledPayment

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Event Type Classification is: Scheduled Payment, Deferred Revenue, Invoice Reduction, Manual, or Automatic (for billing events only)


Question 6:

In which two circumstances would it be appropriate to deselect the “Interface Revenue to GL” option in System Implementation Options, before you run the Interface to GC?

A. During data migration if revenue is already in General Ledger

B. When Revenueis handled in Accounts Receivable

C. WhenAutoAccounting is incorrect and the Revenue interfacing to GeneralLedger needs to be put on hold.

D. When Financewants to reconcile Unbilled Receivables/Unearned Revenue

E. When Revenue was generated in error for all projects in Released status and needs to be corrected.

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:

A: If the revenue amounts are already interfaced to General Ledger (GL) through a different interface, then uncheck the `Interface Revenue to GL\’ option in the implementation options and run the `Interface Revenue to GL\’ process in Oracle projects. This will turn the flags in the revenue records as accepted in GL, though it is not interfaced. Once this is done, revert back the implementation option back to its original state.


Question 7:

What type of project will a company require to use Organization Forecasting?

A. contract project

B. Administration Project

C. Organization Planning Project

D. capital project

E. multi-function project

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Note:

*Compute Forecast Labor Revenue

This process calculates the potential revenue of labor expenditure items based on established bill rates and markups. The expenditure items that the process

selects are billable labor expenditure items charged to contract projects that have not yet been processed by the Generate Draft Revenue process. The items do not have to be approved to be processed for forecast revenue.


Question 8:

An organization uses Oracle Projects and has fully installed Oracle Human Resources. Which statement does not apply to this scenario?

A. Employees can be entered and maintained in Oracle Projects.

B. Jobs can be set up in Oracle Projects.

C. Organizations can be defined In Oracle Projects.

D. Organization Hierarchies can be defined in Oracle Projects.

E. WorkerAssignments can be viewed in Oracle Projects.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Note:

*Oracle Projects fully integrates with Oracle Human Resources to keep track of employees and information relevant to them, such as bill rates and mailing

address.


Question 9:

Identify the four different levels where transaction controls are defined.

A. Expenditure Categories

B. Expenditure Organization

C. Employee

D. Project Organization

E. Expenditure Type

F. Person Type

Correct Answer: ACDE

Explanation:

You can configure transaction controls by the following:

(A)Expenditure Category

(C)Employee

(E)Expenditure Type

Non-Labor Resource


Question 10:

Your client has expressed a desire to produce and summarize invoice lines for Non-Labor transactions by type of expenditure based on high-level tasks of the project. Which invoice formal grouping should he use to achieve this?

A. TopTask, ExpenditureType

B. TopTask, Employee

C. Revenue Category, Expenditure Category, Top Task

D. TopTask, Expenditure Category

E. TopTask, Revenue Category, Expenditure Category, Expenditure Type

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Note *Oracle Projects processes tasks based on their position in the structure. The three distinct positions are: Top Task: A task whose parent is the project Mid Task: A task that is not a top task or a lowest task Lowest Task: A task that is at the bottom of the structure, without any child tasks *You can configure transaction controls by the following: Expenditure Category

Employee Expenditure Type Non-Labor Resource


Question 11:

Which three types of People Resources do Oracle Projects support?

A. Team Roles

B. Straight Time

C. Jobs

D. Item

E. Named Person

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation:

Note:

*People resources represent named persons or any grouping of named persons(E)by attributes such as job(C), organization, or role(A), whose time (effort)

capacity is consumed to complete the project work. Example: Amy Marlin


Question 12:

Identify three adjustment actions that require submission of Distribute costs program to process the adjustments.

A. Change Comment

B. Release Hold

C. Split

D. Transfer

E. Recalculate Revenue

F. Capitalizable to Non-Capitalizable

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation:

After you have performed the adjustment actions, you need to run the appropriate processes to process the adjustments.

The table below notes what processes to run to process each adjustment action.

1Z0-511 free dumps questions 12


Question 13:

A customer has gone into bankruptcy and is unable to pay their bills. This means that the projected revenue is now overstated. How can the customer reduce the revenue on the project to accurately reflect the amount of collectible revenue?

A. Create a revenue write-off event for the uncollectable element and interface to General Ledger.

B. Create a negative funding line and assign it to the project thus reducing its revenue.

C. Createacost adjustments on the project using preapproved batches.

D. Create a credit memo in Oracle Projects and interface it to Accounts Receivable.

E. Enter a transaction control against the expenditure types and regenerate the draft invoice.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:


Question 14:

What must be defined to enable a company to use an organization for a straight-time expenditure?

A. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add Cost Centers as the Organization type.2. Add an organization classification of Organization.3. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.

B. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracleprojectimplementation option setting

C. Define the organization with the following:1.Add organization classificationsProject/Task Owning Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy. 3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

D. Define the organization with the following:1. Add the organization classifications Project Expenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy. 3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

E. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.3. Define Organization Labor Costing Rules.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

Note:

*You can set this at the Inventory Organization level in the Project Manufacturing Parameters window, the Costing tabbed region. This allows WIP employee

resources and Project straight time hours to be summarized as Straight Time Expenditure Type Class.

*expenditure type class An additional classification for expenditure types that indicates how Oracle Projects processes the expenditure types. For example, if you run the Distribute Labor Costs process, OracleProjects will calculate the cost of all expenditure items assigned to the Straight Time expenditure type class. Formerly known as system linkage


Question 15:

A customer has two operating units: US and Ireland. A project that is set in the Ireland operating unit requires the services of employees from the US operating unit.

Identify three mandatory steps that must be completed for the employees in the US to enter their time on the project and for costs to be successfully distributed.

A. Set up Internal Billing Implementation options in US and Ireland.

B. Define provider controls in the US and receiver control in Ireland.

C. Set up a new transaction source to receive Intercompany transactions in Ireland.

D. For the project in Ireland, select “Allow Cross Charges to all Operating Units within Legal Entity”.

E. For the project in Ireland, set up transaction controls to allow charges from other operating units.

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:

B: Provider and Receiver Controls Setup

For each provider operating unit or receiver operating unit involved in the cross charge, the Provider/Receiver Controls window Provider Controls and Receiver

Controls tabs specify:

The cross charge method to use to process intercompany cross charges and to override the default cross charge method for inter-operating unit cross charges.

Attributes required for the provider operating unit to process intercompany billing to each receiver operating unit. This includes the Intercompany Billing Project

and Invoice Group.

Attributes required for the receiver operating unit to process intercompany billing from each provider operating unit. This includes the supplier site, expenditure

type and expenditure organization.

*(C)Intercompany Billing Accounting Companies choose the intercompany billing method largely due to legal and statutory requirements. When you use this method, Oracle Projects generates physical invoices and corresponding accounting entries at legal transfer prices between the internal seller(provider) and buyer (receiver) organizations when they cross a legal entity boundary or operating units.

*(D)Overview of Cross Charge When projects share resources within an enterprise, it is common to see those resources shared across organization and country boundaries. Further, project managers may also divide the work into multiple projects for easier execution and management. The legal, statutory, or managerial accounting requirements of such projects often present complex operational control, billing, and accounting challenges.

Oracle Projects enables companies to meet these challenges by providing timely information for effective project management. Project managers can easily view the current total costs of the project, while customers receive bills as costs are incurred, regardless of who performs the work or where it is performed.


 

At last

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