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Question 1:

Examine the parameters for your database instance:

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 1

You execute the following command:

SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NO GUARANTEE;

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.

B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to a lack of space in the undo tablespace.

C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.

D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:

1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.

2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.

3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.

4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes of session idle time before being logged off automatically.

How would you accomplish this?

A. by granting a secure application role to the user

B. by implementing Database Resource Manager

C. by using Oracle Label Security options

D. by assigning a profile to the user

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT\’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.

Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING \’HQ\’;

B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING `HQ\’;

C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;

D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.

B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.

C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.

D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D

The stop_on_window_close attribute controls whether the GATHER_STATS_JOB continues when the maintenance window closes. The default setting for the stop_on_window_close attribute is TRUE, causing Scheduler to terminate GATHER_STATS_JOB when the maintenance window closes. The remaining objects are then processed in the next maintenance window.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/stats.htm#g49431


Question 5:

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following

specifications:

Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.

The number of concurrent user connections will be high.

The database will have a mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.

Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled

C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled

D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.

B. An extent can span multiple segments.

C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.

D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.

E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 7:

Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).

B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.

C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.

D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Correct Answer: D

References:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm (see log writer process (LGWR))


Question 8:

The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.

Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A. connecting by using an external naming method

B. connecting by using the easy connect method

C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service

D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service

E. connecting by using a directory naming method

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which two tasks can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)

A. partitioning the table

B. creating an invisible index

C. updating the table by using an update statement

D. creating a public synonym

E. creating a view

Correct Answer: DE

You can, for example, select, join, or sort external table data. You can also create views and synonyms for external tables. However, no DML operations (UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE) are possible, and no indexes can be created, on external tables.

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507


Question 10:

Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.

C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.

D. It cannot have more than one dependency.

E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 11:

The HR user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 10

On investigation, you find that the user’s tablespace uses Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.

Which two methods would you use to resolve this error? (Choose two.)

A. Altering the data file associated with the USERS tablespace to extend automatically

B. Adding a data file to the USERS tablespace

C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual

D. Creating a new tablespace with auto-extend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace

E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Which three factors influence the optimizer\’s choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter

B. operating system (OS) statistics

C. cardinality estimates

D. object statistics in the data dictionary

E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 13:

Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 13

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.

B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.

C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.

D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.

E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 14:

Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.

B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.

C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.

D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

1Z0-062 free dumps exam questions 15

You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high watermark. What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.

B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.

C. No queries are running on this table.

D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.

E. No pending transaction exists on the table.

Correct Answer: A


 

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Question 1:

Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and

ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.

A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:

ERROR at line 1:

ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp\’

ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status

Identify two ways to rectify the error. (Choose two.)

A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that produced the error.

B. Shut down the database instance, and restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.

C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.

D. Shut down the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.

E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Correct Answer: AE

*

Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.

*

If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.


Question 2:

Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

Free 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps Questions 2

Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.

B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.

C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

Correct Answer: AC

The triggers cloned to the interim table are disabled until the redefinition is completed. Once the redefinition is complete, all cloned objects are renamed to the original names used by the objects they were cloned from.

References: http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/10g/online-table-redefinition-enhancements-10gr1.php


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column? (Choose two.)

A. The procedures may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.

B. The procedures may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.

C. All the components may be moved into the SYSAUX tablespace.

D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: AB

References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_v_sysaux_contents_tips.htm


Question 4:

Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.

B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.

C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.

D. The listener. or configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.

E. The listener. ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) finding in your production database reports that the shared pool is inadequately sized. You diagnose that this is due to the different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. The following are the parameter settings for the database instance: You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components depending on the workload.

Free 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps Questions 5

Which option would solve this problem?

A. setting the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to 200M and the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

B. setting the MEMORY_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE parameters to 400M

C. setting the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M

D. setting the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)

C. Oracle Label Security

D. Oracle Database Vault

E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.

The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:

1. Mount the CDB.

2. Close all the PDBs.

3. Open the database.

4. Apply the archive redo logs.

5. Restore the data file.

6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.

7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.

8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.

10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.

Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?

A. 6, 5, 4, 7

B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8

C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8

D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10

Correct Answer: A

RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;

RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;

RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;

RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;

*

Example:

While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.

Cannot close the pdb as the system data file was missing…

So the only option to recover was:

Shutdown cdb (10)

startup mount; (1)

restore pluggable database

recover pluggable database

alter database open;

alter pluggable database name open;

Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of

PDB.

*

Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an

inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:

/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances) / After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT

Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs are created since the backup is available.

* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;


Question 8:

Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?

A. Reduced logical I/O

B. Reduced virtual memory utilization

C. Improved parallel Execution performance

D. Improved Serial Execution performance

E. Reduced physical I/O

F. Reduced CPU utilization

Correct Answer: BCF

* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems

Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users–either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users.

Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously.

Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives a good performance.

* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.


Question 9:

In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database.

Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined in the table.

A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.

Minimal disruption to availability is required.

Which three statements are true about this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.

B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.

D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.

E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

Correct Answer: ACD

A: You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.

D: Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use the ALTER TABLE…MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.

C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same tablespace.

Incorrect Answers:

B, E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuilt with UPDATE INDEXES when you move the

table.

References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/issue-archive/2014/14-may/o34dba-2193424.html


Question 10:

Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server connections?

A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations

B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas

C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors

D. Contains stack space

E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables

Correct Answer: ABC

The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following: / (B)UGA (User Global Area) for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where transactions interact with multiple databases) /Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements / (A) Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves

Note:

*

large pool

Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore operations, I/O

server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle XA.

*

Oracle XA

An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction manager other than

Oracle Database.

*

UGA

User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon information, and can also

contain the OLAP pool.

*

Configuring the Large Pool

Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list (not D). Oracle Database does not

attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if the database instance

uses any of the following Oracle Database features:

*

Shared server

In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in the shared pool.

*

Parallel query

The parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.

*

Recovery Manager

Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore

operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates buffers

that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.


Question 11:

You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.

How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?

A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.

B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.

C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.

D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.

E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

You plan to use the In-Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.

Which three storage options support the use of HCC? (Choose three.)

A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.

B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on any Storage Area Network array

C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero-padded NFS-mounted files

D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.

E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature

F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature

G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays

Correct Answer: AEG

HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage. Exadata (A), Pillar Axiom (G), or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA).

Note:

*

Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to support Pillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above

*

Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, better performance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.


Question 13:

In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.

How does a real-time Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.

B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.

D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Correct Answer: B

Note:

*

The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

*

The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM).

*

The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.


Question 14:

The tnsnames. ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:

Free 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps Questions 14

The TNSPING command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:

SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl

What could be the reason for this?

A. The listener is not running on the database node.

B. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.

C. The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.

D. The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.

E. The listener is running on a different port.

Correct Answer: C

Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request arrives.


Question 15:

Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

4. Revoke unused privileges.

5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

6. Stop analyzing the data.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4

B. 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4

E. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Correct Answer: B

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.

3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.

6. Stop analyzing the data.

2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.

5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.

4. Revoke unused privileges.


 

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Question 1:

Your customer has set up a contract project with a distribution rule Work/Work. Identify three setup options to:

A. Set up revenue categories as required.

B. Define revenue accountsatthe revenue category setup level.

C. Define AutoAccounting rules to derive revenue accounts based on revenue category.

D. Definegrouping option by revenue category on the invoice format and attach the invoice format at the project type level.

E. Define grouping option by revenue category on the project type.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation:

Note:

Revenue and Billing Information

When you enter revenue information for your project, you specify a revenue distribution rule for the revenue accrual method and the billing method for this project.

When you enter billing information, you specify invoice formats, bill cycle days, and other invoicing information. The project type determines which revenue

distribution rule appears as the default value for this field, and which other revenue distribution rules you can choose from. Oracle Projects predefines the following

revenue distribution rules:

Cost/CostAccrue revenue and bill using the ratio of the actual cost to budgeted cost (percent spent). Cost/EventAccrue revenue using the ratio of the actual cost to

budgeted cost (percent spent), and bill based on events.

Cost/WorkAccrue revenue using the ratio of the actual cost to budgeted cost (percent spent), and bill as work occurs.

Event/EventAccrue revenue and bill based on events.

Event/WorkAccrue revenue based on events, and bill as work occurs. Work/EventAccrue revenue as work occurs, and bill based on events.

Work/WorkAccrue revenue and bill as work occurs.


Question 2:

Identify two predefined transaction sources that Oracle Projects uses to import the transactions generated within Oracle Projects.

A. Oracle Interproject Supplier Invoices

B. Oracle Projects Intercompany Supplier Invoices

C. Project Allocations

D. Capitalized Interest

E. Oracle Interprojed Customer Invoices

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:

Oracle Projects uses predefined transaction sources to import project allocations and capitalized interest transactions that it generates internally.

References:


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

1Z0-511 free dumps questions 3

In your company\’s Expenditure/Event Organization Hierarchy, organization labor costing rules are assigned to all organizations except San Jose. What happens when you run the “PRC: Distribute labor costs” program for a timecard transaction entered by an employee from the San Jose organization?

A. Therule assigned for SanFranciscotakes precedence and the transaction will be successfully distributed.

B. The rule assigned for the USA takes precedence and the transaction will be successfully cost-distributed.

C. The rule assigned for California takes precedence and the transaction will be successfully cost distributed.

D. The program ignores this transaction because no labor costing rules are assigned for San Jose. and completes normally.

E. The program completes normally. However, the output will have this transaction under the exceptions section with the message “No Labor costing rule assigned for the organization.”

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:


Question 4:

Which two options are not task attributes for financial task structure?

A. Task Type

B. Service Type

C. Work Type

D. Chargeable Flag

E. Scheduled Dates

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:

Incorrect:

Not A: Task types assign default attributes to tasks and control how Oracle Projects processes tasks.

Task types specify basic task attributes.

Not C: Work types represent a classification of work. You use work types to classify both actual and scheduled work.

Not E: Oracle Projects uses start and finish dates to control processing, indicate estimated and scheduled duration, and serve as tools to evaluate project

performance.

The start and finish dates at the project level are:

Actual: Actual dates when work on the project started and finished. You can use these dates to drive future timecards and earned value functionality.

(not E)Scheduled: Scheduled start and finish dates for the project.

Target: The expected lifespan of the project.

Estimated: A task manager\’s estimate of when work on the project will be started and finished.

Baseline: The baselined schedule


Question 5:

A new contract project is created for work for a customer by using event-based billing. A decision has been made to give a discount to the customer on a particular invoice. You want to apply this discount and reduce the invoice without affecting revenue.

Which event type should be used to achieve this?

A. Manual

B. Invoice Reduction

C. Deferred Revenue

D. Automatic

E. ScheduledPayment

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Event Type Classification is: Scheduled Payment, Deferred Revenue, Invoice Reduction, Manual, or Automatic (for billing events only)


Question 6:

In which two circumstances would it be appropriate to deselect the “Interface Revenue to GL” option in System Implementation Options, before you run the Interface to GC?

A. During data migration if revenue is already in General Ledger

B. When Revenueis handled in Accounts Receivable

C. WhenAutoAccounting is incorrect and the Revenue interfacing to GeneralLedger needs to be put on hold.

D. When Financewants to reconcile Unbilled Receivables/Unearned Revenue

E. When Revenue was generated in error for all projects in Released status and needs to be corrected.

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:

A: If the revenue amounts are already interfaced to General Ledger (GL) through a different interface, then uncheck the `Interface Revenue to GL\’ option in the implementation options and run the `Interface Revenue to GL\’ process in Oracle projects. This will turn the flags in the revenue records as accepted in GL, though it is not interfaced. Once this is done, revert back the implementation option back to its original state.


Question 7:

What type of project will a company require to use Organization Forecasting?

A. contract project

B. Administration Project

C. Organization Planning Project

D. capital project

E. multi-function project

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Note:

*Compute Forecast Labor Revenue

This process calculates the potential revenue of labor expenditure items based on established bill rates and markups. The expenditure items that the process

selects are billable labor expenditure items charged to contract projects that have not yet been processed by the Generate Draft Revenue process. The items do not have to be approved to be processed for forecast revenue.


Question 8:

An organization uses Oracle Projects and has fully installed Oracle Human Resources. Which statement does not apply to this scenario?

A. Employees can be entered and maintained in Oracle Projects.

B. Jobs can be set up in Oracle Projects.

C. Organizations can be defined In Oracle Projects.

D. Organization Hierarchies can be defined in Oracle Projects.

E. WorkerAssignments can be viewed in Oracle Projects.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Note:

*Oracle Projects fully integrates with Oracle Human Resources to keep track of employees and information relevant to them, such as bill rates and mailing

address.


Question 9:

Identify the four different levels where transaction controls are defined.

A. Expenditure Categories

B. Expenditure Organization

C. Employee

D. Project Organization

E. Expenditure Type

F. Person Type

Correct Answer: ACDE

Explanation:

You can configure transaction controls by the following:

(A)Expenditure Category

(C)Employee

(E)Expenditure Type

Non-Labor Resource


Question 10:

Your client has expressed a desire to produce and summarize invoice lines for Non-Labor transactions by type of expenditure based on high-level tasks of the project. Which invoice formal grouping should he use to achieve this?

A. TopTask, ExpenditureType

B. TopTask, Employee

C. Revenue Category, Expenditure Category, Top Task

D. TopTask, Expenditure Category

E. TopTask, Revenue Category, Expenditure Category, Expenditure Type

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Note *Oracle Projects processes tasks based on their position in the structure. The three distinct positions are: Top Task: A task whose parent is the project Mid Task: A task that is not a top task or a lowest task Lowest Task: A task that is at the bottom of the structure, without any child tasks *You can configure transaction controls by the following: Expenditure Category

Employee Expenditure Type Non-Labor Resource


Question 11:

Which three types of People Resources do Oracle Projects support?

A. Team Roles

B. Straight Time

C. Jobs

D. Item

E. Named Person

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation:

Note:

*People resources represent named persons or any grouping of named persons(E)by attributes such as job(C), organization, or role(A), whose time (effort)

capacity is consumed to complete the project work. Example: Amy Marlin


Question 12:

Identify three adjustment actions that require submission of Distribute costs program to process the adjustments.

A. Change Comment

B. Release Hold

C. Split

D. Transfer

E. Recalculate Revenue

F. Capitalizable to Non-Capitalizable

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation:

After you have performed the adjustment actions, you need to run the appropriate processes to process the adjustments.

The table below notes what processes to run to process each adjustment action.

1Z0-511 free dumps questions 12


Question 13:

A customer has gone into bankruptcy and is unable to pay their bills. This means that the projected revenue is now overstated. How can the customer reduce the revenue on the project to accurately reflect the amount of collectible revenue?

A. Create a revenue write-off event for the uncollectable element and interface to General Ledger.

B. Create a negative funding line and assign it to the project thus reducing its revenue.

C. Createacost adjustments on the project using preapproved batches.

D. Create a credit memo in Oracle Projects and interface it to Accounts Receivable.

E. Enter a transaction control against the expenditure types and regenerate the draft invoice.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:


Question 14:

What must be defined to enable a company to use an organization for a straight-time expenditure?

A. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add Cost Centers as the Organization type.2. Add an organization classification of Organization.3. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.

B. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracleprojectimplementation option setting

C. Define the organization with the following:1.Add organization classificationsProject/Task Owning Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy. 3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

D. Define the organization with the following:1. Add the organization classifications Project Expenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy. 3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

E. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.3. Define Organization Labor Costing Rules.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

Note:

*You can set this at the Inventory Organization level in the Project Manufacturing Parameters window, the Costing tabbed region. This allows WIP employee

resources and Project straight time hours to be summarized as Straight Time Expenditure Type Class.

*expenditure type class An additional classification for expenditure types that indicates how Oracle Projects processes the expenditure types. For example, if you run the Distribute Labor Costs process, OracleProjects will calculate the cost of all expenditure items assigned to the Straight Time expenditure type class. Formerly known as system linkage


Question 15:

A customer has two operating units: US and Ireland. A project that is set in the Ireland operating unit requires the services of employees from the US operating unit.

Identify three mandatory steps that must be completed for the employees in the US to enter their time on the project and for costs to be successfully distributed.

A. Set up Internal Billing Implementation options in US and Ireland.

B. Define provider controls in the US and receiver control in Ireland.

C. Set up a new transaction source to receive Intercompany transactions in Ireland.

D. For the project in Ireland, select “Allow Cross Charges to all Operating Units within Legal Entity”.

E. For the project in Ireland, set up transaction controls to allow charges from other operating units.

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:

B: Provider and Receiver Controls Setup

For each provider operating unit or receiver operating unit involved in the cross charge, the Provider/Receiver Controls window Provider Controls and Receiver

Controls tabs specify:

The cross charge method to use to process intercompany cross charges and to override the default cross charge method for inter-operating unit cross charges.

Attributes required for the provider operating unit to process intercompany billing to each receiver operating unit. This includes the Intercompany Billing Project

and Invoice Group.

Attributes required for the receiver operating unit to process intercompany billing from each provider operating unit. This includes the supplier site, expenditure

type and expenditure organization.

*(C)Intercompany Billing Accounting Companies choose the intercompany billing method largely due to legal and statutory requirements. When you use this method, Oracle Projects generates physical invoices and corresponding accounting entries at legal transfer prices between the internal seller(provider) and buyer (receiver) organizations when they cross a legal entity boundary or operating units.

*(D)Overview of Cross Charge When projects share resources within an enterprise, it is common to see those resources shared across organization and country boundaries. Further, project managers may also divide the work into multiple projects for easier execution and management. The legal, statutory, or managerial accounting requirements of such projects often present complex operational control, billing, and accounting challenges.

Oracle Projects enables companies to meet these challenges by providing timely information for effective project management. Project managers can easily view the current total costs of the project, while customers receive bills as costs are incurred, regardless of who performs the work or where it is performed.


 

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Free 1Z0-822  Exam Materials Exam Questions Online

If you need to check sample questions of the 1Z0-822 free dumps, go through the Q and As from the 1Z0-822 dumps below.

Question 1:

A recursive snapshot was taken of the root pool and the snapshot streams are stored on a remote system. The boot disk has failed and has been replaced, and the root pool snapshots have been restored. Which two steps are still required to make the system bootable?

A. Re-create the swap and dump devices.

B. Install the boot blocks on the new disk.

C. Restore the snapshot stream.

D. Set the boots property on the root pool.

E. Perform a ZFS rollback to restore the file systems in the root pool.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 2:

Review the following output from the zpool status command:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 2

Which three are true for pool1?

A. If this mirror is split, the new pool will contain disks c3t5d0 and c3t6d0.

B. If this mirror is split, by default the new pool will contain disks c3t3d0 and c3t5d0.

C. Data is striped across mirror-0 and mirror-1.

D. mirror-1 is a mirrored copy of data that is stored on mirror-0.

E. Disk c3t3d0 is a mirrored copy of disk c3c4d0.

F. If this mirror is split, pool 1 will no longer be mirrored.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 3:

The zfs holds command displays the following information:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 3

Which two statements are true?

A. Use zfs destroy d pool12/data@nov to destroy the snapshot immediately.

B. Attempts to destroy the snapshot using zfs destroy pool12/data@nov will fail.

C. Attempts to destroy the pool12/data@nov snapshot will not destroy the snapshot immediately.

D. The zfs directory R pool12/data command will destroy the file system immediately.

E. The defer_destroy property is set to on for the pool12/data@nov data set.

F. The user refs property is set to 1 (or higher) for the pool12/data@nov data set.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 4:

Consider the following ZFS configuration:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 4

You have created snapshots of the homo directories which are as follows:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 4-2

You have another storage pool named bpool on the same system. You use the following command to store the snapshots in this pool:

# zfs send rpool/export/[email protected] | zfs recv f [email protected]

What will be created in the pool bpool as a result of this operation?

A. bpool/export/home/ bpool/export/home/curly

B. bpool/export/home/ bpool/export/home/curly bpool/export/[email protected]

C. bpool/export/home/ bpool/export/home/curly [email protected]

D. bpool/curly bpool/[email protected]

E. bpool/curly

F. bpool/curly [email protected]

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Consider the following commands on a newly installed system:

zfs set compression=on rpool zfs to get H 0 source compression rpool

What is the output of the second command?

A. default

B.

C. local

D. on

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Do you want to create a ZFS file system with the following specifications: lzjb compression enabled? Cannot consume more than 2 GB from the storage pool?? Redundant data at the block level eliminated Mounted as /data?

Which command creates the desired file system?

A. zfs create o mountpoint=/data,compression=on,algorithm=lzjb,deduplication=on,quota=2g /pool1/data

B. zfs create o mountpoint=/data compression=on algorithm=lzjb deduplication=on quota=2g /pool1/data

C. zfs create o mountpoint=/data o compression=on o dedup=on o quota=2g /pool1/data

D. zfs create o mountpoint=/data o compression=on o algorithm=lzjb o deduplication=on o quota=2g / pool1/data

E. zfs create pool/data zfs set mountpoint=/data,quota=2g, dedup=on,compression=on /pool1/data

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which two zpool subcommands will permanently remove a sub mirror from the active storage pool?

A. remove

B. detach

C. destroy

D. offline

E. replace

F. split

G. zpool does not permit this operation on an active storage pool unless the sub mirror faults.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Your task is to configure storage for an Oracle Solaris 11 system to support multiple web servers. Each web server will be contained in a separate zone. The system has an attached disk array configured as a JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks). The system also has an internal solid-state drive.

The data accessed through the websites will be primarily read-only. The web servers are expected to be very busy, so configure the storage for maximum performance. Because the data is primarily static, redundancy is required to maintain high availability in the event of a hardware failure.

Data does not change often, but it is expected that the same data will be accessed many times throughout the day. Which configuration option best meets the data storage requirements?

A. a raid2 storage pool with a separate log device

B. a mirrored storage pool with a separate cache device

C. a mirrored storage pool with a separate log device

D. a three disk striped storage pool with a separate cache device

E. a raidz1 storage pool with a separate log and cache device

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

The zpool configuration on server A is:

pool 1 c3t2d0 c3t3d0 pool 2 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

The zpool configuration on server B is:

pool1 mirror-0 c3t2d0 c3t3d0 mirror-1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

Which option will modify the configuration on server A to match server B?

A. zpool destroy pool2 zpool attach pool1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

B. zpool destroy pool2 zpool attach pool1 c3t2d0 c3t2d0 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

C. zpool destroy pool2 zpool add pool1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

D. zpool destroy pool2 zpool mirror pool1 pool2

E. zpool destroy pool2 zpool attach pool1 c3t2d0 attach pool1 c3t3d0 zpool attach pool1 c3t4d0 attach pool1 c3t5d0

F. zpool destroy pool1; zpool destroy pool2; zpool create pool1 mirror c 3t2d0 c3t3d0 mirror c4t4d0 c3t5d0

Correct Answer: F


Question 10:

Which is the result of the following command?

# zfs send i dpool/sales/qrreports@qtrreport dpool/sales/qrreports@mth3qtrreport

A. An error message will be sent to standard error.

B. The dpool/sales/qrreports@qtrreport snapshot is saved to disk.

C. The dpool/sales/qrreports@mth3qtrreport snapshot is saved to disk

D. The difference between the First snapshot and the second snapshot will be written to the disk

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You have a ZFS pool that contains a hierarchy of data file systems. You create snapshots of the file systems and you created a clone (dpool/export/CID) of the dpool/export/home/CID file systems. The file systems are as follows:

Now you remove a file from the cloned file system: root@sll-server1:~# rm /export/CID/core.bash.8070 How will space usage be changed for dpool/export/CID?

A. The USED value will increase and the REFER value will decrease; the AVAIL value will be unchanged.

B. The USED value will decrease and the REFER value will increase; the AVAIL value will increase.

C. The USED value will decrease, the REFER value will decrease; the AVAIL value will increase.

D. USED, REFER and the AVAIL value will be unchanged.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

To reduce the use of storage space on your server, you want to eliminate duplicate copies of data in your server\’s ZFS file systems. How do you specify that pool1/data should not contain duplicate data blocks on write operations?

A. zfs create o compression=on pool1/data

B. zpool create o deduplication=on pool1 ; zfs create pool1/data

C. zpool create o dedupratio=on pool1 ; zfs create pool1/data

D. zfs create o dedupratio=2 pool1/data

E. zfs create o dedup=on pool1/data

Correct Answer: E


Question 13:

Which option lists default checkpoints for building an image using the Distribution Constructor?

A. manifest-valid and ba-init

B. ba-arch and grub-setup

C. transfer-ips-install and pre-pkg-img-mod

D. pkg-img mod and create-USB

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which two statements describe the capabilities of the Distribution Constructor?

A. ISO images for use with the Automated Installer (AI) can be created.

B. Bootable USB images can be created for SPARC and x86 architectures.

C. A single installation service can be used to create an ISO image, for SPARC and x86 architectures.

D. Checkpoints are used to pause the build, thereby allowing the running of a script to modify the resulting ISO image.

E. A single installation service can be used to create ISO images for Solaris 10 and Solaris 11.0 operating systems.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 15:

Your colleague is administering the company\’s Automated Install server and is using a custom manifest. You now plan to replace the default AI manifest with the custom manifest. Which installed subcommand must you use to replace the default AI manifest?

A. update-service

B. update-manifest

C. set-service

D. create-manifest

E. create-service

F. set-manifest

Correct Answer: B


 

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1Z0-532 the Most Up to Date questions are from 1Z0-532 free dumps

Question 1:

Identify the dimensions that are built by using the application profile.

A. Year and period only

B. Value and view only

C. View, Period, and Year

D. Period, Value, and Year

E. Scenario, Period, and Year

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

To which dimension do custom dimensions provide additional detail?

A. Accounts

B. Entity

C. Value

D. ICP

E. Custom dimensions are independent of other dimensions.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which is the rule function used to notify the following year that a consolidation is needed due to recalculation of the current year?

A. Exp

B. ImpactStatus

C. OpenDataUnit

D. A rule function is not used; an input subroutine is used.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Identify three valid application settings. (Choose three.)

A. MaxNumDocAttachments

B. UseSecurityForEntities

C. UseSecurityForValue

D. Va1idationAccount

E. SupportSubmissionPhaseforEntity

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Identify the purpose of using task lists.

A. To upload user “to do” items to FM with due dates and alert dates

B. To organize and group related tasks into a navigational aid for users

C. To create lists of members with VB script

D. To list tasks to be executed by the FM Server

E. To define the review path for consolidation review

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What are the two effects of deploying an EPMA application? (Choose two.)

A. The EPMA metadata is extracted to a text file.

B. If enabled, it pushes the data to Essbase via Essbase Analytic Link for FM.

C. The EPMA application metadata is used to create an FM application on the FM server.

D. The application is sent out to a star schema for use by Essbase and other products.

E. When you redeploy an application, the application metadata is merged or replaced based on the changes made since the last deployment.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 7:

You need to migrate an FM application in version 11 from development to production. Your environment has two instances of Shared Services, one for development and one for production. Identify the two true statements about using Life Cycle Management to perform the application migration from development to production within this environment. (Choose two.)

A. You can select specific objects to migrate or all objects to migrate.

B. Migrating applications from development to production in disconnected environments, where there are two instances of Shared Services, is not supported.

C. Life Cycle Management will migrate both objects and data.

D. Life Cycle Management will generate an XML file that can be modified and used for importing to target applications.

E. The only role necessary to perform LCM activities is Application Administrator.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

For metadata loads, you can import changes to metadata for which three application elements? (Choose three.)

A. Periods

B. Accounts

C. Entities

D. Currencies

E. Value

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 9:

Identify the three true statements about security classes. (Choose three.)

A. Security classes are grouping mechanisms for assigning security access to sets of related members, documents, or other objects.

B. Access levels for security classes include metadata, read, promote, and none.

C. Security classes are assigned to FDM locations in addition to FM objects.

D. Security classes cannot be created in EPMA by creating a Security Class dimension and associating it.

E. Security classes are created in Classic FM under Load Tasks.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

What is the primary purpose of Extended Analytics in FM?

A. Exports Financial Management metadata and data to an Essbase database

B. Exports Financial Management metadata and data to a relational database

C. Exports Financial Management metadata and data to an Excel pivot table

D. Provides analytic capabilities directly against the Financial Management application

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The Audit Intersection link in the Data Grid menus takes the user to:

A. The Data Audit listing for the cell

B. The FDM location used to load the data

C. The database log for the data storage table

D. The Task Audit page

E. Line item details

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

How can an administrator get a list of security classes AND assigned users defined in the FM application?

A. Select Document > Reporting > Security > Security report.

B. Select Tasks > Extract Tasks > Extract Security.

C. Select Tasks > Extract Tasks > Extract Metadata.

D. In the EPMA Dimension Library, under the Security Class dimension for the application, right-click the application and select Assign Access Control, then select Security reports, and choose Classes by the user.

E. In Shared Services, right-click the application and select Assign Access control, then select Security reports, and choose Classes by the user.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

The organization by period feature is used for what two purposes? (Choose two.)

A. Segregating rules by month and year

B. Controlling when entities consolidate into specific parents

C. Organizing the period dimension into multiple hierarchies

D. Managing the ownership percentage of one entity by others

E. Maintaining stored data values for changes in the Entity structure over time

Correct Answer: BE


Question 14:

If Sample Company 1230LAP has an intercompany balance with sample company PQR, when is the balance eliminated, assuming that consolidation rules have not been enabled in Application Settings?

A. All eliminations occur within the uppermost member on each of the entity dimension hierarchies.

B. Eliminations occur in the [Elimination] value members of the children of the first common parent entity.

C. Eliminations occur in the [Elimination] value members of the children of the first common parent account.

D. If the consolidation rule in Application Settings is not enabled, the intercompany accounts do not eliminate.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

How many custom dimensions do Financial Management applications allow?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. None. Financial Management supports only fixed dimensions.

Correct Answer: C


 

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Question 1:

Your client has situations where sometimes Customer Service Representatives (CSR) need to enter a sales order and then come back to it later to resolve client questions, add more information or lines, and so on.

What is the correct way to handle this request?

A. Add Order Activity Rules and then use Speed Status Update to advance the order.

B. Create an Order Type for this type of order with its own Order Activity Rules. Then create a version of the Pick Slip program to process these orders.

C. Create a Line Type that does not affect inventory levels and then have the CSR change it to an S line after all issues are resolved.

D. Create a hold code that the CSR adds at order entry and then removes when the order is ready to progress.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When setting up Kit Items in E1, how does the system store those items?

A. Inventory for Kit Parents Items is stored in a dedicated Kit\’s location.

B. The system stores the parent items in the F41021 file and adds text lines for the components during sales order entry.

C. The system does not carry inventory for the parent item; the parent item simply represents all components bundled together as an assembled item and only components are stored in the system.

D. The system creates a Work Order for the Parent item and when the work order is completed, the inventory is updated to a specific location where the sales order can be hard-committed.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Your client and their supplier have an agreement that the supplier will not send invoices. Your client will pay the supplier based on what they receive.

How should you set this up to ensure that the system processes this supplier\’s invoices according to the agreement?

A. Set the Supplier Cross-Reference code to process evaluated receipts.

B. Set the processing options in the Voucher Match program to allow Evaluated Receipts Settlement

C. Set the Evaluated Receipts field in the Purchase Order Entry program to Y.

D. Process only EDI-generated invoices.

E. Set the Evaluated Receipts field in Purchasing Instructions to Y.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16582_01/doc.91/e15149/set_up_suppliers.htm#EOASU00136


Question 4:

A client has entered two purchase orders. Based on the total amount, the first purchase order is required to go through the approval process and has not yet been approved. The second purchase order does not require approval. The items on each purchase order are now on the dock ready to be received. The receiving clerk can find only the purchase order that did not go through the approval process.

Identify the reason for this.

A. The processing option of the Enter Receipts by PO program is set to display only orders that have gone through the approval process and are activated.

B. The values in the Incoming Last Status Codes processing options of Enter Receipts by PO program do not include both values for the purchase orders.

C. The values in the Acceptable Incoming Next Status Codes processing options of the Enter Receipts by PO program do not include the value for unapproved purchase orders.

D. The Override Next Status Code Processing option in Purchase Order Entity (P4310) was not set to advance the second purchase order past an approved status.

E. Purchase orders that go through the approval process must have an Other Allowed Value of Record Purchase Receipt on the approvals line of the Order Activity Rules.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which two statements are true for Procurement Management User Defined Codes (UDCs)? (Choose two.)

A. Schedule Name, Landed Cost Components, Order Templates, Item Price Groups, and Commodity Class Codes are required UDCs for Procurement Management

B. UDC 41/9 identifies the G/L offset that the system uses when it searches for the account to which it posts procurement transactions.

C. Procurement System Hold Codes (42/HC) are hardcoded and have special handling code logic.

D. To enable the routing of receipts, only receipts routing UDC is required; operations routing UDC is optional

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16582_01/doc.91/e15131/ set_up_proc_system.htm#EOAPR00548


Question 6:

You want zero quantity tolerance on a specific item during receipt. The item belongs to a group that currently gets a 10% tolerance.

How can you accomplish this?

A. In the Item Branch/Plant, set the tolerance to zero.

B. Set the tolerance for the specific item to zero in Tolerance Rule Setup.

C. Set the tolerance processing option in the Receipts program to zero.

D. Set up an order hold code for zero tolerance.

E. Set the tolerance for the company to zero in Tolerance Rule Setup.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Your client is entering sales orders using base pricing.

What logic does the system use to retrieve the price based on the effective dates?

A. Past Due Date

B. Delivery Date

C. Earliest Expiration Date

D. Closest Start Date

E. Order Date

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E15156_01/e1apps90pbr0/eng/psbooks/1aso/chapter.htm? File=1aso/htm/1aso07.htm


Question 8:

A warehouse user is trying to enter an inventory adjustment for an item but is receiving an Invalid Location error.

Why is this happening?

A. The warehouse is set up with location control and the item has not been set up with a primary location.

B. The inventory adjustment application P4114 is not set up with a default location.

C. The warehouse is set up with location control and the location is not set up in the Location Master.

D. The branch plant does not have a primary location set up for the item.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Your client\’s pricing strategy includes contract prices, trade discounts, base prices, and standard price adjustments.

Which statement describes the hierarchy that defines how the system determines the price of a sales order?

A. Base price with a standard price adjustment, base price with trade discount, contract price, and base price

B. Base price with trade discount, base price with a standard price adjustment, base price, and contract price

C. Base price with trade discount, base price with a standard price adjustment, contract price, and base price

D. Base price with trade discount, contract price, base price with a standard price adjustment, and base price

E. Contract price, base price with a standard price adjustment, base price with a standard price adjustment, and base price

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

A customer\’s credit limit has been established at $10,000 and the current outstanding A/R is $7,000. The customer has active, unshipped sales orders with request dates that are two months in the future and total $3,000. The customer calls today with a $500 order to be shipped immediately.

What happens to the order?

A. The order goes on hold because credit checking is performed for the total exposure, which includes open orders regardless of their request dates.

B. The order does not go on hold, because credit checking only compares the dollar value for open orders against the credit limit.

C. The order does not go on hold. The system automatically determines that the requested date of the new order comes before the request dates of the existing open orders. The system will allow the $500 order to be processed, and put a credit hold on the order with the requested date furthest in the future.

D. The order goes on hold because the total A/R amount is greater than 5% of the total of A/R and open orders.

E. The order does not go on hold, because the actual outstanding A/R has not exceeded the credit limit, and the $500 order would still cause the total exposure to be less than $10,000.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A client transfers inventory between warehouses within the same company. Both warehouses carry the inventory at the same cost. In the journal entries for the transfer, the client finds that the batch amount is blank.

Identify the correct reason why this happened.

A. The client should reverse the transfer transaction, create an issue to remove quantity from the old location, and then create an adjustment to add quantity to the new location.

B. The AAIs are set up incorrectly. Correct the AAIs so that the journal entry amount will appear.

C. No correction is necessary. A batch with a blank amount is correct.

D. The cost is incorrect for one of the warehouses. The client should reverse the transfer, verify the cost, and re-enter the transaction.

E. The client should carry the inventory cost at different amounts for each warehouse. This approach ensures that a variance journal entry is created.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Your client wants to set up a process for customers who were accidentally sent the wrong item.

What is the correct way to do this?

A. Create a sales order for the replacement item, create a Credit Order for the incorrectly shipped item, and create a negative purchase order to receive the incorrectly shipped item.

B. Set up the Returned Material Authorization process to create a sales order for the replacement item, create a Credit Order for the incorrectly shipped item, and purchase order for the incorrectly shipped item.

C. Create a no-charge sales order for the replacement item, create a Credit Order for the incorrectly shipped item, and perform an Inventory Adjustment when the incorrectly shipped items arrive.

D. Create a sales order for the replacement item and make journal entries to write off the incorrectly shipped.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Your client is being charged a warehouse storage fee equal to 10% of the brokerage fees that are already included in the landed costs set up.

How should you set up the landed costs to accomplish this?

A. Attach a second landed cost rule to the item.

B. Add another cost level to the Landed Cost table with a percentage of cost equal to 10% and a based-on level pointing to the brokerage fee line.

C. Set up the warehouse storage fee by specific item number.

D. Add another cost level to the landed cost table with a percentage of cost equal to 10%.

E. Increase the cost level line for brokerage fees by 10%.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E59116_01/doc.94/e58762/setup_land_costs.htm#WEAPO738


Question 14:

Your client\’s pricing for a customer order is not calculating correctly.

Which option represents the most detailed price setup?

A. Customer and Item

B. Customer Group and Item Group

C. Customer group and item

D. all customers and Item

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which three components do you need to set up shipment tracking? (Choose three.)

A. shipment reference number added to the shipment

B. carrier SCAC code

C. tracking application type in constants/carrier master

D. tracking business function and reference qualifier set up in carrier master

E. carrier URL

Correct Answer: ABC


 

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[Exam Materials] Free 1Z0-133 exam sample questions online

Question 1:

You are using the Configuration Wizard to create a new domain that will consist of a cluster of three managed servers along with an instance of WebLogic server acting as HIPT proxy to distribute traffic to the cluster. Which three steps should you perform with the Configuration Wizard?

A. Create one Cluster.

B. Install Oracle HTTP Server.

C. Create one Coherence server.

D. Create four managed servers.

E. Assign three servers to a cluster.

F. Specify a proxy port for the administration server.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 2:

Which session persistence type is invalid?

A. Async_replicated

B. async_jdbc

C. replicated

D. async_memory

E. cookie

F. file

G. replicated_if_clustered

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

An administrate in your organization says you do not need to back up the domain files on a machine that only managed servers run. Select the best explanation for this statement.

A. This Is true because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities.

B. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is if your security realm uses the embedded LDAP system. Which is not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility.

C. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is for applications that are deployed to the managed server. Those files are not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility. If you back those up manually, then pack and unpack can be used.

D. This is not true. You need to back up the domain files on a machine on which only managed servers run by using operating system commands (such as tar or zip).

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which statement is true about stopping Node Manager?

A. If you stop Node Manager, the managed servers it started will also stop.

B. You may kill the Node Manager process by using operating system commands.

C. Using the stopNodeManager.sh script so Node Manager stops gradually.

D. Using the administration console, select the appropriate machine and click stop.

E. The administration server goes into ADMIN mode if it can no longer communicate with Node Manager.

F. The managed servers that Nod Manager started to go into ADMIN mode if they can no longer communicate with Node Manager.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

You configure a data source with a non-XA driver because your (non-Oracle) database does not provide

XA drivers.

The data source will sometimes participate in global transactions with an EJB, so as you configure the

the data source you select “Supports Global Transactions” and One-phase commits.

Why is this configuration wrong?

A. You must choose an XA driver when a data source participates In global transactions.

B. “One\’ Phase Commit” always returns “ready” during phase one of the two-phase commit process\’ so it is possible you will have heuristic errors in the database.

C. “One-Phase Commit” processes this data source last In the global transactions, if the EJB must go last, you cannot use this configuration.

D. “One-Phase Commit” only allows this data source to participate in global transactions, so you cannot have a global transaction that includes an EJB.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

When creating a dynamic cluster, you have multiple options concerning how dynamic servers are distributed across machines in your domain. Identify three supported configurations.

A. Use a single machine.

B. Use all machines in a subnet.

C. Use all machines in the domain.

D. Use all percentages of machines in the domain.

E. Use all machines whose names match an expression.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 7:

As the technical lead for your project, you have been asked to recommend a new solution to handle

frequently increasing loads on your applications. The Weblogic 12.1.2 domain currently runs with two

clusters of three servers with requests being filtered and passed by a proxy server that uses the round-robin algorithm.

However, the load sometimes exceeds the maximum capacity of all these servers combined but your

domain lacks scalability. What is the best implementation solution?

A. Add a third cluster and spread existing server instances across the clusters.

B. Modify the proxy server load balancing algorithm to weight-based.

C. Configure dynamic clusters and specify the number of server instances you anticipate at needing at peak load.

D. Tune work managers to optimize work.

E. Replace the software load balancer with a hardware load balancer.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

All administrators that deal with the production domain in your organization are extremely experienced. As

the lead administrator, you have been asked to change the administration console preferences for all

administrators so that inline help no longer displays, since no one needs It. Select the true statement about this scenario.

A. There is nothing you can do since inline help cannot be disabled.

B. There is nothing you can do for all users since disabling inline help must be done per user.

C. Log into the administration console and disable Inline help under “help.”

D. Access WLST, connect to the domain\’s admin server and use the command enable inline help (false).

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You plan to Install WebLogic Server by using the generic JAR installer in silent mode. What are two ways to create the required response file?

A. First install or deinstall graphically. There is an option to save a response file.

B. Use the sample response file in the installation documentation as a template.

C. First run the Repository creation utility. There is an option to save a response file.

D. The response file is not required. You can answer questions interactively at the command line.

E. The genetic JAR installer does not have a silent mode .so you do not need a response file when using this installer.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Your domain consists of 30 servers. You are using the Administration Console. Which is the quickest way to identify the servers that are in a Failed health state?

A. Use the Filter button from the domain\’s Monitoring >Health tab.

B. Use the Monitoring >Health tab for each server in the domain.

C. Write a custom WLST script to print out failed server.

D. Capture a diagnostic snapshot.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You use the Java–based Node Manager to start your managed servers. You want Node Manager to:

•Stop servers by using your custom stop script: dystopia. sh

•Restart servers when the hardware cases

•Use SSL communication

•Check server heath once per second

Below are portions of the nodemanager.properties file. Select the one that configures Node manager as described.

1Z0-133 exam sample questions 11

A. B.

1Z0-133 exam sample questions 11-2

C. D. E.

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

Which three statements are true about WebLogic clusters?

A. Clusters provide clients with transparent failover.

B. EJB applications can be targeted to the entire cluster.

C. All cluster members must bind to the same port number.

D. Cluster members replicate application data by using heartbeats.

E. Cluster members can be associated with one or more domains.

F. Web applications require a proxy in order to be used in a cluster.

Correct Answer: ABF


Question 13:

You are using WebLogic Server Diagnostic Framework (WLDF) Instrumentation in a system diagnostic module. The Dye Injection monitor is enabled. You know the diagnostic context ID of the request you are interested in that was processed by several. You are looking through the messages in the server log file of several.

Which statement is true?

A. You need to look at the Events Data Archive. Server log files do not contain WL DF context IDs

B. You need to look at the Harvested Data Archive. Server log files do not contain WL DF context IDs.

C. You need to look at the domain log file. Only the domain log file contains WL DF context IDs.

D. You can search the server log file for the context ID. Any message that was written to the log IDs during that request will contain the context ID.

E. You need to translate the context ID Into the corresponding transaction ID, which is the only ID in server log file entries.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

You are deploying a web application called inventory, war. It has been installed and has the state of “prepared”. It is targeted to the Managed server named managed1. The web application\’ context root is / inventory and the starting page is index .jap.

However, you want to test the application before allowing end users access to it. In the administration console, you select inventory. war, and then select Start and “servicing only administration request.”

If you web browser, you need to enter a host and port followed by /inventory /index.jap.

Which host and port would you use?

A. managed1 host and port

B. Administration Serve host and port

C. managed1 host and Administration port

D. Administration server host and Administration port

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

You are creating and configuring a cluster by using the administration console. Which two statements are true?

A. All servers that will be part of the cluster must be created before the cluster is created.

B. You must pick the cluster messaging mode.

C. Even though you create a nondynamic cluster, you can change it to a dynamic cluster later.

D. Once the cluster is created, you cannot change its messaging mode.

E. The administration console does not provide a way to manually migrate singleton services. It must be set up to be done automatically or by using WLST.

Correct Answer: BC


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[Free 1Z0-134 Dumps] Free 1Z0-134 Real Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1:

I am configuring the security policy for my JMS module. I am specifying some security conditions for the module.

Which two security conditions are valid in this context? (Choose two.)

A. The JMS module can be accessed only between 1 pm and 6 pm.

B. The JMS module should throw a custom security exception on invalid access.

C. The JMS module can process only 50 messages at a time.

D. The JMS module can be accessed only by users belonging to the Operators group.

E. The JMS module can be accessed in a receive-only mode.

Correct Answer: AD

There are two security conditions:

*time-constrained

*By Group or User

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/html/E24401_02/taskhelp/jms_modules/modules/ ConfigureJMSModuleSecurityPolicies.html


Question 2:

Review the digital certificate below.

Free 1Z0-134 exam q2

Based on what the certificate contains, which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It is a self-signed digital certificate with no certification chain.

B. It is an authentic digital certificate with a valid certification chain.

C. It is a digital certificate for a private key with a valid certification chain.

D. It is an authentic root CA certificate with a valid certification chain.

Correct Answer: A

Incorrect Answers:

C: This is 512-bit Public Key, not a private key.

Note: The subject key identifier extension provides a means of identifying certificates that contain a particular public key.


Question 3:

You want to create a WebLogic Server (WLS) Work Manager with a Response Time Request Class of one second. You start to create the following WLST script:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q3

Which two can replace the missing sequence to finish this script? (Choose two.)

A. cmo.addTarget(getMBean(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’)) cd(\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’))

B. managedServer=getMBean(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cmo.addTarget(managed server) cmo.NetworkManager(getMBean(\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorManagers/MyWorkManager\’))

C. cd(\’edit:/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cmo.addTarget(getMBean (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’)) cmo.addTarget (getMBean(\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’))

D. managedServer=getMBean(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cmo.addTarget(managedServer) cd(\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’))

E. cmo.addTarqet(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cd(\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’)

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/apirefs.1111/e13952/pagehelp/ J2EEappworkresponsetimerequestclassconfigtitle.html


Question 4:

You are creating and configuring a production WebLogic Server (WLS) domain that is highly available. Which three WebLogic Server features allow you to best accomplish this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Multiple standalone managed servers

B. Load Balancer

C. Cluster

D. DNS caching

E. Whole-server migration

F. Machine Migration

Correct Answer: BCE

B Load balancing is the even distribution of jobs and associated communications across the computing and networking resources in your environment.

C: In a WebLogic Server cluster, application processing can continue when a server instance fails.

E: Migration in WebLogic Server is the process of moving a clustered WebLogic Server instance or a component running on a clustered instance elsewhere if a failure occurs. This is called Whole-server migration.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/core.1111/e10106/aa.htm#ASHIA4083


Question 5:

My JMS file store size has grown very large and is using up a significant chunk of the disk. I need to reduce the file size during the maintenance window without impacting any relevant information.

Which utility enables me to do this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. WebLogic. store.Compacter

B. WebLogic. store.Admin

C. WebLogic. store.Reducer

D. WebLogic. file.FileUtil

Correct Answer: B

To open the persistent store administration utility from a Java command line, type the following: > java WebLogic. store.Admin Here is an example of using the compact command to compact the space occupied by a file stored in the

store’s directory. > store admin->compact -dir c:\mystores -temp dir c:\tmp Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/wls/CNFGD/store.htm#CNFGD275


Question 6:

Your WebLogic Server (WLS) environment consists of multiple domains. Which is a true statement about WLS domains? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Multiple domains can use the same or separate WLS installation while running on the same machine.

B. Domains require a minimum of one managed server.

C. Multiple domains require separate WLS installations while running on the same machine.

D. Multiple domains require individual Node Managers while running on the same machine.

E. Multiple domains can share the same administration server.

Correct Answer: A

You can use a single Oracle WebLogic Server installation to create and run multiple domains, or you can use multiple installations to run a single domain.

Incorrect Answers:

B: Domains include a special WebLogic Server instance called the Administration Server, which is the central point from which you configure and manage all resources in the domain. Usually, you configure a domain to include additional WebLogic Server instances called Managed Servers.

C: A single WLS installation can have multiple domains.

Free 1Z0-134 exam q6

D: By specifying multiple domains in the node manager. domains file, you can configure a single, machine-scoped Node Manager process that manages server instances belonging to multiple WebLogic domains.

E: Each domain requires its own Administration Server for performing management activities.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13716/ understand_domains.htm#DOMCF116


Question 7:

You are asked to configure Node Manager for your production environment. You are considering whether to use the Java version or the script-based version of Node Manager.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between the two versions?

A. If you are installing WebLogic Server on a Windows system, you must use the Java version of Node Manager.

B. The script-based version of Node Manager can be used in conjunction with inetd on supported UNIX systems.

C. The script-based version of Node Manager requires a larger footprint than the Java version.

D. When Node Manager is used for consensus leasing, you may see the faster performance with the script-based version.

Correct Answer: A

Java-based Node Manager runs within a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) process. It is recommended that you run it as a Windows service on Windows platforms and as an operating system service on UNIX platforms. For UNIX and Linux systems, WebLogic Server provides a script-based version of Node Manager.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13740/overview.htm#NODEM113


Question 8:

Your organization is using a Multi data source (MDS) on WebLogic Server to support applications connecting to an Oracle RAC database. You have been tasked with configuring a new callback handler for the MDS.

Which two statements are true concerning related MDS options and behavior? (Choose two.)

A. Callback handlers are optional when using the Failover MDS Algorithm.

B. If the Failover Callback Handler attribute is set on the MDS, the Test Frequency attribute is no longer used.

C. Callback handlers are called for both failover and failback decisions.

D. You can register only one callback handler for each WebLogic server.

Correct Answer: CD

C: A callback handler used to control the failover and failback within a multi-data source must include an implementation of the Weblogic.jdbc.extensions.ConnectionPoolFailoverCallback interface.

D: You can register a callback handler with WebLogic Server that controls when a multi-data source with the Failover algorithm fails over connection requests from one JDBC data source in the multi-data source to the next data source in the list.

Incorrect Answers:

B: The frequency of these tests is controlled by the Test Frequency Seconds attribute of the multi-source. The default value for Test Frequency is 120 seconds, so if you do not specifically set a value for the option, the multi-data source will test disabled data sources every 120 seconds.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/web.1111/e13737/ jdbc_multidatasources.htm#JDBCA223


Question 9:

You are managing and monitoring durable subscribers for your JMS topics to ensure that all the subscribers would receive persistent messages.

However, JMS connections are currently restricted, so only one connection with the same client ID could exist in the scope of your cluster.

On which page of the Administration Console can you set the Client ID Policy to unrestricted in order to lift this restriction? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Topic > Monitoring > Durable Subscribers

B. Connection Factory > Configuration > Client

C. Topic > Configuration > Thresholds and Quotas

D. Topic > Configuration > Overrides

E. Topic > Configuration > Durable Subscribers

F. JMS Server > Configuration > Durable Subscribers

Correct Answer: B

You can find help on Client ID Policy configuration through the following path:

OTN Home > Oracle WebLogic Server 12.1.1.0 Documentation > Administration Console Online Help > JMS Connection Factory: Configuration: Client

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24329_01/apirefs.1211/e24401/pagehelp/ JMSjmsconnectionjmsconnectionfactoryconfigclientparamstitle.html


Question 10:

Examine the domain diagram:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q10

What is the correct path within the configuration hierarchy to the MBean that contains the log rotation parameters for server04? (Choose the best answer.)

A. /Servers/server04/Log/server04

B. /server04/log/rotation

C. /Cluster01/server04/log

D. /Machine02/server04/log

E. /Logs/server04

F. /TestDomain/server04/log

G. /server04/log

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which two automatic migration scenarios require a node manager for all migratable services? (Choose two.)

A. Consensus leasing

B. Database leasing with no pre and post-migration scripts

C. Database leasing with pre and post-migration scripts

D. Synchronous leasing

Correct Answer: AC

When using automatic service migration, the Node Manager is required to get health monitoring information about the member servers involved, as follows:

*

Consensus leasing? Node Manager must be running on every machine hosting managed servers within the cluster.

*

Database leasing? Node Manager must be running on every machine hosting managed servers within the cluster only if pre/post-migration scripts are defined. If pre/post-migrations are not defined, then Node manager is not required.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs103/cluster/service_migration.html


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about the role of cluster master in whole server migration? (Choose two.)

A. There is exactly one cluster master in the cluster at a given point in time.

B. The cluster master must host all the pinned services in the cluster.

C. Any managed server in the cluster can serve as the cluster master.

D. A cluster master must always be different from a singleton master.

E. The cluster master must always be started with the node manager.

Correct Answer: AC

One server instance in a cluster that contains migratable servers acts as the cluster master and

orchestrates the process of automatic server migration, in the event of failure.

Any Managed Server in a cluster can serve as the cluster master, whether it hosts pinned services or not.

Note: Any server instance in the cluster can serve as the cluster master. When you start a cluster that

contains migratable servers, the first server to join the cluster becomes the cluster master and starts up the

cluster manager service. If a cluster does not include at least one migratable server, it does not require a

cluster master, and the cluster master service does not start up.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13709/migration.htm#CLUST285


Question 13:

You are trying to set up a JMS Session with a specified acknowledgment mode. You want the application that receives the message to explicitly take care of the acknowledgment.

Which option represents a valid choice for the acknowledgment mechanism that you can use? (Choose the best answer.)

A. AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE

B. CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE

C. DUPS_OK_ACKNOWLEDGE

D. DEFAULT_ACKNOWLEDGE

Correct Answer: B

With CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE the Session object relies on the application to call an acknowledged method on a received message. Once the method is called, the session acknowledges all messages received since the last acknowledgment.

Incorrect Answers:

A: With CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE the Session object acknowledges receipt of a message once the receiving application method has returned from processing it.

C: With DUPS_OK_ACKNOWLEDGE the Session object acknowledges receipt of a message once the receiving application method has returned from processing it; duplicate acknowledges are permitted.

D: There is no acknowledge mode named DEFAULT_ACKNOWLEDGE.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html


Question 14:

You created a script to monitor your WebLogic Server WLS Execute Thread:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q14

Here is a message in your ExecuteThread.log file:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q14-2

What is the value of xxxx if the thread has been running a request for twenty minutes, assuming a default configuration?

A. SRANDBY

B. ACTIVE

C. STUCK

D. RUNNING

E. WAITING

F. ADMIN

G. FAILED

Correct Answer: C

This thread is considered Stuck by WebLogic because it\’s been running for over the time defined in MaxStuckThreadTime (600 seconds by default). Weblogic Server waits for this time to be reached before marking a thread as stuck if the thread is still working after this time.

Example: [STUCK] ExecuteThread: \’2\’ for queue: \’weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)\’ id=73 idx=0x128 nid=13410 prio=1 alive, in native, daemon

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/WebLogicServer/entry/analyzing_a_stuck_weblogic_execute


Question 15:

You have a multithreaded application that looks up the WebLogic JMS ConnectionFactory object from the JNDI tree.

Which statement is correct in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It is not permitted. A multithreaded application cannot access the ConnectionFactory object.

B. The access to the ConnectionFactory object MUST be synchronized.

C. The ConnectionFactory object can be referenced in a multithreaded application without any special considerations.

D. Multiple threads trying to use the ConnectionFactory object simultaneously will throw an exception.

E. In a multithreaded scenario, connection objects cannot be safely created from the ConnectionFactory.

Correct Answer: B

A connection factory supports concurrent use, enabling multiple threads to access the object

simultaneously.

A session and its message producers and consumers can only be accessed by one thread at a time (i.e.

the access must be synchronized). Their behavior is undefined if multiple threads access them

simultaneously.

Incorrect Answers:

A, E: A connection factory supports concurrent use, enabling multiple threads to access the object

simultaneously.

C, D: A session and its message producers and consumers can only be accessed by one thread at a time.

Their behavior is undefined if multiple threads access them simultaneously.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html


 

At last

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Updated Lead4Pass 1Z0-808 Dumps Latest Version With 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 2021

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Not only that but Lead4Pass shares the latest 1Z0-808 free exam questions with you to study.

Free Share 1Z0-808 Dumps Latest Questions And Answers

Question 1:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 1

What is the result?

A. 10: 10

B. 5: 5

C. 5: 10

D. Compilation fails

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Given:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 2

What is the result?

A. box B. no

C. bo

D. nb

E. An exception is thrown at runtime

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which three are the advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function

B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors

C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions

D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred

E. Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 4:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 4

What is the result?

A. Jesse 25 Walter 52

B. Compilation fails only at line n1

C. Compilation fails only at line n2

D. Compilation fails at both line n1 and line n2

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Given:

class Mid {

public int finding(int n1, int n2) {

return (n1 + n2) / 2;

}

}

public class Calc extends Mid {

public static void main(String[] args) {

int n1 = 22, n2 = 2;

// insert code here

System.out.print(n3);

}

}

Which two code fragments, when inserted at // insert code here, enable the code to compile and print 12?

A. Calc c = new Calc(); int n3 = c.findMid(n1,n2);

B. int n3 = super.findMid(n1,n3);

C. Calc c = new Mid(); int n3 = c.findMid(n1, n2);

D. Mid m1 = new Calc(); int n3 = m1.findMid(n1, n2);

E. int n3 = Calc.findMid(n1, n2);

Correct Answer: AD

Incorrect: Not B: circular definition of n3. Not C: Compilation error. line Calc c = new Mid(); required: Calc found: Mid Not E: Compilation error. line int n3 = Calc.findMid(n1, n2); non-static method findMid(int,int) cannot be referenced from a static context


Question 6:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 6

Assume that the system date is June 20, 2014. What is the result?

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 6-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 7

What is the result?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 29

D. Compilation fails

E. AnArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 8

What is the result?

A. May 04, 2014T00:00:00.000

B. 2014-05-04T00:00: 00. 000

C. 5/4/14T00:00:00.000

D. An exception is thrown at runtime.

Correct Answer: D

java.time.temporal.UnsupportedTemporalTypeException: Unsupported field: HourOfDay


Question 9:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 9

And given the requirements:

If the value of the qty variable is greater than or equal to 90, discount = 0.5 If the value of the qty variable is between 80 and 90, discount = 0.2 Which two code fragments can be independently placed at line n1 to meet the requirements?

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 9-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

Given:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 10

The class is poorly encapsulated. You need to change the circle class to compute and return the area instead.

Which two modifications are necessary to ensure that the class is properly encapsulated?

A. Remove the area field.

B. Change the getArea( ) method as follows: public double getArea ( ) { return Match.PI * radius * radius; }

C. Add the following method: public double getArea ( ) {area = Match.PI * radius * radius; }

D. Change the access modifier of the SerRadius ( ) method to be protected.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 11

What is the result?

A. 10 8 6 4 2 0

B. 10 8 6 4 2

C. AnArithmeticException is thrown at runtime

D. The program goes into an infinite loop outputting: 10 8 6 4 2 0. . .

E. Compilation fails

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Given:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 12

Which code fragment should you use at line n1 to instantiate the dvd object successfully?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Given the for loop construct:

for ( expr1 ; expr2 ; expr3 ) {

statement;

}

Which two statements are true?

A. This is not the only valid for loop construct; there exists another form of for loop constructor.

B. The expression expr1 is optional. it initializes the loop and is evaluated once, as the loop begins.

C. When expr2 evaluates to false, the loop terminates. It is evaluated only after each iteration through the loop.

D. The expression expr3 must be present. It is evaluated after each iteration through the loop.

Correct Answer: BC

The statement has these forms:

for (init-state; condition; next-stmt) {

body

}

There are three clauses in the for statement.

The init-stmt statement is done before the loop is started, usually to initialize an iteration variable.

The condition expression is tested each time the loop is done. The loop isn’t executed if the boolean

expression is false (the same as the while loop). The next-stmt statement is done after the body is

executed. It typically increments an iteration variable.


Question 14:

Which three statements are true about the structure of a Java class?

A. A class can have only one private constructor.

B. A method can have the same name as a field.

C. A class can have overloaded static methods.

D. A public class must have a main method.

E. The methods are mandatory components of a class.

F. The fields need not be initialized before use.

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation:

A: Private constructors prevent a class from being explicitly instantiated by its callers.

If the programmer does not provide a constructor for a class, then the system will always provide a default,

public no-argument constructor. To disable this default constructor, simply add a private no-argument

constructor to the class. This private constructor may be empty.

B: The following works fine:

int cake() {

int cake=0;

return (1);

}

C: We can overload static methods in Java. In terms of method overloading static methods are just like

normal methods and in order to overload the static method you need to provide another static method with

same name but a different method signature.

Incorrect:

Not D: Only a public class in an application need to have a main method.

Not E:

Example:

class A

{

public string something;

public int a;

}

Q: What do you call classes without methods? Most of the time: An anti-pattern.

Why? Because it facilitates procedural programming with “Operator” classes and data structures. You separate data and behavior which isn’t exactly good OOP.

Often times: A DTO (Data Transfer Object)

Read-only data structures meant to exchange data, derived from a business/domain object.

Sometimes: Just data structure.

Well sometimes, you just gotta have those structures to hold data that is just plain and simple and has no

operations on it.

Not F: Fields need to be initialized. If not the code will not compile.

Example:

Uncompilable source code – variable x might not have been initialized


Question 15:

View the exhibit.

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 15

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 15-2

Which change enables the code to print the following?

James age: 20 Williams age: 32

A. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws MissingInfoException, AgeOutofRangeException {

B. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws. Exception {

C. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding: catch(Exception e1) { //code goes here} catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}

D. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding: catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}

Correct Answer: C


 

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Questions and answers from 1Z0-447 free dumps are 100% free and guaranteed. 

Question 1:

What is the purpose of a VAM parameter?

A. It specifies that a Vendor Access Module is being used to perform data transformation functions.

B. It specifies that a Vendor Access Module is being used to perform data capture functions.

C. It specifies that a Virtual Access Module is being used to perform data capture functions.

D. It specifies that Virtual Application Memory is being used to perform data replication functions.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/1212/gg-winux/GWURF/ gg_parameters189.htm#GWURF737


Question 2:

You are migrating from a legacy database server to Exadata, which requires you to use different versions of GoldenGate. What do you need to configure to ensure that backward replication works?

A. The Replicat with the FORMAT RELEASEparameter.

B. The Extract with the FORMAT RELEASE parameter.

C. The Extract to write directly to the remote trail.

D. The collector with the FORMAT RELEASE parameter.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You are experiencing an issue with the downstream database server for the Integrated Capture Downstream Model. Which step should you take to resolve the issue?

A. Ensure that the Oracle database version on the downstream database server is the same version as the source Oracle version.

B. Ensure that the platform type of the downstream database server is the same platform as the source database server.

C. Ensure that the GoldenGate version used on the downstream database server is the same version used on the source database server.

D. Ensure that the GoldenGate version used on the downstream database server is the same version used on the target database server.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/1212/gg-winux/GIORA/ic_deploy.htm#GIORA472


Question 4:

Which syntax would you use in an OBEY script to stop a process without waiting for user input?

A. stop * no input

B. stop immediate *

C. stop *!

D. stop force *

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is the SOCKSPROXY subparameter of the RMTHOST parameter typically used for?

A. replicating information using a SOCKS5 proxy server, thereby creating a tunnel for TCP communication between a source Extract and a target process

B. connecting to a source database via secure communication

C. remote capturing

D. configuring remote database access

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.dba86.com/docs/oracle/ogg/E66315_01/gg-winux/GWURF/ rmthost.htm#GWURF631


Question 6:

You edit the GLOBALS file, save the changes, and restart GGSCI to have the change take effect. However, when you try to start the Manager, it fails. Which action should solve the problem?

A. Use the CLEANUPREPLICAT command.

B. Use a text editor to check the GLOBALS file for syntax errors and correct them.

C. Verify that Oracle environment variables are set correctly.

D. Add the Oracle GoldenGate Installation directory to the system PATH.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which three are the responsibility of the MGR process? (Select three.)

A. Process management

B. Trail File management

C. Data movement

D. Receive or route requests from the UI E. Trigger execution

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 8:

You want to issue GoldenGate commands from a script. What sequence of steps should you follow to accomplish this?

A. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Run GGSCI ./ input_file, where the file name is the script file.

B. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Enter eggs < input_file from the command line of the operating system, where the input_file is an OBAY text file.

C. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Run GGSCI < input_file, where the file name is an OBEY file.

D. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Enter eggs./ input_file from the command line of the operating system, where the file name is the script file.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/c1221/gg-winux/GWUAD/getting-started-oraclegoldengate-process-interfaces.htm#GWUAD1096


Question 9:

Which command provides statistics about GoldenGate processes and memory resource utilization?

A. SEND…CACHEMGR

B. SEND…LOGSTATS

C. SEND…GETTCPSTATS

D. INFO…SHOWCH

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You want to monitor replication not only to check that the processes are running, but to specifically verify that the data continuously replicates. How should you accomplish this?

A. Implement GoldenGate Monitor.

B. Have the customer continuously update the application data.

C. Monitor the GoldenGate lag and last checkpoint time statistics.

D. Implement heartbeat tables for replication.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/havawala-goldengate-091741.html


Question 11:

You must return column-level detail for out-of-sync rows. How can you accomplish this?

A. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Agent executes database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

B. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Manager executes auto-memory database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

C. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Agent source database executes database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

D. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Manager executes database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/v1221/gg-veridata/GVDAD/ about_ogg_veridata.htm#GVDAD114


Question 12:

You must replicate to JMS Queues. Which product in the Oracle GoldenGate portfolio should be used?

A. Oracle Goldengate for Big Data

B. Oracle Goldengate Application Adapters

C. Oracle Goldengate Veridata

D. Oracle Data Integrator Adapters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/fmw/goldengate/11g/ GGS_Sect_Config_from_WinUX_ORA_to_AMQ_JMS.pdf


Question 13:

You want to use multiple concurrent Extract process groups. What is the key factor in determining how many can be running at the same time?

A. the number of concurrent users

B. disk space

C. system memory

D. the number of compound keys on the source tables

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/1212/gg-winux/GWUAD/ wu_performance.htm#GWUAD1131


Question 14:

Your Replicat performance seems slow. Which Replicat parameter can be used to improve performance?

A. DEFERAPPLYINTERVAL

B. BATCHSQL

C. ASSUMETARGETDEFS

D. SPECIAL RUN

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/goldengate-cloud/gwuad/tuning-replicattransactions.html


Question 15:

When is a Pump not required to connect to a source database?

A. when transformations, filtering, and mapping are required

B. when lookups are needed against the source database

C. when a PASSTHRU parameter is used

D. when a NOPASSTHRUparameter is used

Correct Answer: B


 

At last

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Good luck with the Oracle 1Z0-447 exam.