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Question 1:

Which statement about CDB architecture is true?

A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.

B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.

C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.

D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.

E. You can create common users in PDBs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235

Question 2:

As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:

Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin srvctl stop database -d myDb chopt enable dm srvctl start database -d my

What does this do?

A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.

B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.

C. It generates a Client Static Library.

D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.

E. It configures Oracle Net Services.

F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see 4.4)

Question 3:

Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?

A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.

B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).

C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).

D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.

E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.

Correct Answer: AD

A: The PGA is memory specific to an operating process or thread that is not shared by other processes or threads on the system. Because the PGA is process-specific, it is never allocated in the SGA.

The PGA is a memory heap that contains session-dependent variables required by a dedicated or shared server process. The server process allocates memory structures that it requires in the PGA.

D: The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles. In a shared server architecture, the library cache also contains private SQL areas.

Incorrect:

Not B: The SGA is a read/write memory area that, along with the Oracle background processes, form a

database instance. All server processes that execute on behalf of users can read the information in the instance SGA. Several processes write to the SGA during database operation.

Not C: A private SQL area (PGA) holds information about a parsed SQL statement and other session-specific information for processing. When a server process executes SQL or PL/SQL code, the process uses the private SQL area to store bind variable values, query execution state information, and query execution work areas.

Reference: Oracle Database Concepts, 12c, Memory Architecture

Question 4:

Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?

A. Hosts and databases

B. Hosts, databases, and application servers

C. Application servers and web applications

D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)

E. Databases, application servers, and web applications

F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-best- practicesv21493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)

Question 5:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus?

A. It has commands for performing database administration operations.

B. It can be used in interactive but not batch mode for SQL commands.

C. It has to be installed separately after the Oracle Database 12c installation.

D. Operating system commands can be executed from the SQL*Plus command prompt.

Correct Answer: AC

C: how to start SQL*Plus:

1- Make sure that SQL*Plus has been installed on your computer.

2. Log on to the operating system (if required).

3. Enter the command, SQLPLUS, and press Return.

Etc.

Not B: In the SQL*Plus command line, the use of an external editor in combination with the @, @@, or START commands is an effective method of creating and executing generic scripts. You can write scripts that contain SQL*Plus, SQL, and PL/SQL commands, which you can retrieve and edit. This is especially useful for storing complex commands or frequently used reports.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B14117_01/server.101/b12170/qstart.htm

Question 6:

Which two statements about the Process Monitor (PMON) process are true?

A. PMON performs process recovery when a client process fails.

B. During instance startup, PMON takes care of instance recovery.

C. PMON performs listener registration.

D. PMON restarts background and dispatcher processes when they fail.

E. PMON resolves failures of distributed transactions.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 7:

Which statement is true about loading data by using the conventional path of SQL*Loader?

A. Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.

B. Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY, and NOT NULL constraints are checked,

C. No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are performed.

D. Instead of performing transactions, SQL*Loader directly writes data blocks to the data files.

E. INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled at the end of the load.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A57673_01/DOC/server/doc/SUT73/ch8.htm#data %20paths (see direct loads, integrity constraints, and triggers)

Question 8:

Identify three key properties of a transaction in Oracle Database 12c.

A. durability

B. consistency

C. concurrency

D. isolation

E. scalability

F. manageability

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/transact.htm#CNCPT016

Question 9:

Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files, and control files for a pluggable database?

A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)

B. OS file system

C. logical volume (LVM)

D. clustered file system

E. RAW

Correct Answer: E

Question 10:

Which two statements about ADDM are true?

A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.

B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH’s recent activity from SGA data.

C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.

D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

Correct Answer: CD

C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases. Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions, and many other exceptional situations that today force the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. ‘

Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and recommend a resolution

Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs, and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exceptional situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.

D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.

Question 11:

Which two items are key for maintaining data consistency in Oracle Database 12c?

A. undo data

B. isolation level

C. lock mechanism

D. serializability

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25789/consist.htm#CNCPT88969 (overview of the oracle database locking mechanism)

Question 12:

You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?

A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different release.

B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with different character sets.

C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.

D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.

E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the Oracle home, before the database software installation.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which logical storage relationship is correct?

A. Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

B. B) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace

C. Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock

D. Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/basics-of-logical-structures-in-oracle- 12c.html

Question 14:

Which two statements about multitenant architecture are true?

A. Multiple PDBs on a single server need multiple database instances and multiple sets of database files.

B. Although consolidated into a single physical database, PDBs mimic the behavior of non-CDBs.

C. A PDB administrator can use Oracle Flashback or point-in-time recovery to retrieve lost data from a PDB, only by shutting down all the PDBs from the CDB.

D. It is easier to collect performance metrics for many databases in a CDB than individual non-CDB databases.

E. It takes more time to apply a patch to one CDB that holds hundreds of PDBs than to hundreds of non-CDB databases.

Correct Answer: BD

B: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

D: Ease of performance tuning

It is easier to collect performance metrics for a single database than for multiple databases. It is easier to size one SGA than 100 SGAs.

Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation

URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239

Question 15:

Which three statements represent the benefits of multitenant architecture for database consolidation?

A. You can unplug a PDB from a development CDB and plug it into a production CDB, which allows for easier and more rapid movement of data and code.

B. You can consolidate shared database memory by combining multiple PDBs in a single CDB.

C. Patching individual PDBs requires the same amount of time as patching individual databases.

D. Consolidating separate databases into a single CDB requires the same amount of storage allocation.

E. In multitenant architecture, a PDB behaves the same as a non-CDB as seen from a client connecting with Oracle Net. No client modification is required.

Correct Answer: ADE

A: By design, you can quickly plug a PDB into a CDB, unplug the PDB from the CDB, and then plug this

PDB into a different CDB. The implementation technique for plugging and unplugging is similar to the

transportable tablespace technique.

D: The process of consolidating data from multiple databases into one database on one computer is

known as database consolidation. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the Oracle Multitenant option enables

you to consolidate data and code without altering existing schemas or applications.

By consolidating hardware and sharing database memory and files, you reduce costs for hardware,

storage, availability, and labor. For example, 100 PDBs on a single server share one database instance

and one set of database files, thereby requiring less hardware and fewer personnel.

E: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.

Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation

URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239

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Question 1:

You need to develop a chat application, which allows the display of emoticons and images together with text messages.

How should you configure WebSocket endpoints to receive both text and binary messages?

A. Create two @onMessage methods in the same endpoint with appropriate parameter types.

B. Define the @onMessage methods in your endpoint with Object as a parameter and check the actual type in your code.

C. You can achieve this only by creating separate WebSocket endpoints for each message type.

D. Create two @onMessage methods, each with an appropriate decoder attribute in the same endpoint.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://abhirockzz.gitbooks.io/java-websocket-api-handbook/content/Receiving% 20Messages.html

Question 2:

Which two capabilities are provided by the Java Authentication and Authorization Services (JAAS) API? (Choose two.)

A. protecting data from unauthorized viewing by using encryption

B. verifying that a user is allowed to perform an action

C. ensuring that data is not modified in transit

D. verifying identity claims from users

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/guides/security/jaas/JAASRefGuide.html

Question 3:

Which interface should you implement if you want to be alerted to the lifecycle events surrounding your task being executed by a ManagedExecutorService?

A. the Runnable Interface

B. the ManagedExecutorTask interface

C. the TaskEventListener interface

D. the ManagedTaskListener interface

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://github.com/javaee/concurrency-ee-spec/blob/master/api/src/main/java/javax/enterprise/ concurrent/ManagedExecutorService.java

Question 4:

Given the code fragment: Which URL triggers the invocation of the getEmployee () method?

latest 1Z0-900 questions 4

A. /Employees/89724

B. /Employees/J6349

C. /Employees/id:a7280

D. /Employees/id/J6349

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

What is true about Message-Driven Beans (MDBs)?

A. MDBs can participate in transactions.

B. MDBs are invoked synchronously.

C. Each MDBs can process messages only from a single client.

D. MDBs retain data caches between client calls.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javaee/7/tutorial/ejb-intro003.htm

Question 6:

Given the code fragment: Which code can be added to register both of these methods to receive BankEvent notifications only if an instance of BankActivityService is already instantiated in the current context?

latest 1Z0-900 questions 6

A. @Observes(notifyObserver=IF_EXISTS) on line 3 and line 6

B. @Observes(during=IN_PROGRESS) on line 1

C. @Observes(during=AFTER_COMPLETION) on line 1

D. @Observes(notifyObserver=IF_EXISTS) on line 4 and line 7 before method parameter declaration

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/javaee/7/tutorial/cdi-adv005.htm

Question 7:

Which code snippet prints the exception error message as part of the page output?

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/3-different-ways-print-exception-messages-java/

Question 8:

Java EE\’s support for WS-Security includes handling which two types of security credentials? (Choose two.)

A. X.509 certificates

B. SAML tokens

C. OAuth Bearer tokens

D. Two-factor authentication tokens

Correct Answer: AB

Question 9:

Given the code fragment from a Facelet page: On Line 1, you are asked to insert a search box that displays the text “Search Here” via a placeholder. Assume searchMB is a valid Managed Bean.

latest 1Z0-900 questions 9

Which two options enable you to create a search box with a placeholder attribute on Line 1? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: CE

Question 10:

Given the code fragment:

latest 1Z0-900 questions 10

Which method should be used on line 3 to enable the default validation mechanism?

A. u.setProperty(String, Object)

B. u.setProperty(Schema)

C. u.setEventHandler(ValidationEventHandler)

D. u.setAdapter(XmlAdapter)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javaee/6/api/javax/xml/bind/Unmarshaller.html

Question 11:

How do you specify a default error page in your web.xml file?

A. /general-error.html

B. * /general-error.html

C. * /general-error.html

D. /general-error.html

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.codejava.net/java-ee/servlet/how-to-handle-error-in-web-xml-for-java-webapplications

Question 12:

Given the code fragment:

latest 1Z0-900 questions 12

And

Which two steps, when performed independently, enable the index?xhtml page to print the following text: The Id is 12345. (Choose two.)

A. Replace line 2 with: @Inject public void setAcc(Account acc)

B. Replace line 3 with @Inject public Account getAcc()

C. Replace line 1 with: @Inject private Account acc;

D. Replace line 3 with: public @Inject Account getAcc()

E. Replace line 1 with: private @Inject Account acc;

F. Replace line 2 with: public void setAcc(@Inject Account acc)

Correct Answer: DF

Question 13:

Given:

How often does the submitted task run?

A. need more details to determine

B. once

C. as many times as you like

D. based on a schedule

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Given:

latest 1Z0-900 questions 14

What code needs to be added to line 1 for MyMapper bean instances to be correctly passivated?

A. @Stateless @PassivationCapable

B. @Stateless

C. @Stateful @PassivationCapable

D. @Stateful

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/javaee/6/tutorial/doc/giplj.html#gipln

Question 15:

Given:

latest 1Z0-900 questions 15

If an exception is thrown inside the if block, what effect will it have on the transaction?

A. The transaction will be committed.

B. The transaction will be suspended.

C. The transaction will be rolled back.

Correct Answer: C

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Question 1:

Isa Global Inc. is based in the United States with divisions in Europe and Asia. All journal imports, recurring journals, mass allocations, and manual journal entries have been posted for their European subsidiary. What is the next logical step in the period-close process?

A. opening the next period

B. closing the current period

C. revaluing foreign currency balances

D. translating to the functional currency

E. consolidating to the parent set of books

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Select two actions that ledger sets permit. (Choose two.)

A. performing variance inquiries

B. being used for mass budgets

C. sending budget balance inquiries

D. viewing account balances for multiple ledgers in one view

E. grouping multiple ledgers that share the same chart of accounts and calendar

Correct Answer: DE

Question 3:

Select three activities that must be performed to complete the setup of the key accounting flexfield. (Choose three.)

A. Create aliases.

B. Define a value set.

C. Define security rules.

D. Define an account structure.

E. Define valid segment values.

F. Create account combinations.

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 4:

Which two statements are true about the reporting currency in Oracle General Ledger? (Choose two.)

A. It is an integrated extension of a ledger.

B. It replaces multiple reporting currencies.

C. Reporting currencies are the same as secondary ledgers.

D. Reporting currencies cannot have the same chart of accounts, accounting method, and ledger processing options.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 5:

The company’s two senior executives have different budget figures. They want Peter, the GL accountant, to prepare two current budgets in Oracle Financials and submit budgets to both of them. What would be your response?

A. It is not possible to have more than one current budget.

B. Whether you can have multiple current budgets depends on the budget organization.

C. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the budget level if you want to have multiple current budgets.

D. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the set of books level if you want to have multiple current budgets.

E. The Oracle General Ledger budget functionality supports multiple current budgets, so there is no problem in satisfying this requirement.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Identify the four setup options that control supplier defaults. (Choose four.)

A. financial options

B. payables options

C. receiving options

D. purchasing options

E. Payables system setup

F. Trading Community Architecture (TCA)

Correct Answer: ABDE

Question 7:

Identify three ways that an invoice can be submitted for validation. (Choose three.)

A. online by clicking the Validate button in the Invoice Batches window

B. online by clicking the Validate and Account button in the Invoice Batches window

C. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Invoice Workbench

D. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Submit Request window

E. online by selecting either the Validate check box or the Validate Related Invoices check box in the Invoice Actions window

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 8:

You are working on an implementation for Accounts Payable for ABC Inc. Your client has three requirements:

1. They want to be able to pay only certain types of suppliers by batch.

2. Each payment batch must be under $100,000 USD, or the batch automatically gets canceled without user intervention.

3. Every single payment for a supplier site must be between $10 USD and $10,000 USD, or the payment is automatically not issued.

To meet the above requirements, you perform these steps:

A. Set up suppliers with pay groups for each type, and use them when running the payment batch.

B. Set up the payment batch with Maximum Outlay equal to $100,000 USD.

C. Set up the payment batch with Maximum/Minimum payments as $10 USD and $10,000 USD. Which requirements have you met?

A. 2 and 3

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

D. 1 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Payables list four seeded payment methods. They are check, outsourced check, electronic, and wire. Choose the correct description for the wire.

A. a paper check to print and send to a supplier

B. an EFT, EDI, or XML to the bank of a supplier

C. a funds transfer is initiated by contacting the bank and requesting a wire payment to the bank of a supplier

D. transmission of payment information to an external party, such as your bank, that prints checks on your behalf

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which event reverses an accrual for an item set to accrue on the receipt?

A. paying an invoice

B. delivering goods to a final destination

C. running the Receipt Accruals – Period-end process

D. matching an invoice in Payables to a purchase order

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

Identify three setup options that are defined in the Financial Options window. (Choose three.)

A. interest

B. retainage

C. miscellaneous

D. expenses clearing

E. expense AP accrual account

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 12:

Select two actions available in Oracle General Ledger. (Choose two.)

A. deleting posted journals

B. exporting data to subsidiary ledgers

C. importing data from subsidiary ledgers

D. consolidating balances in subsidiary ledgers

E. consolidating balances from multiple ledgers

Correct Answer: CE

Question 13:

Identify the different types of data that can be processed using the GL Interface. (Choose three.)

A. rates

B. budget

C. vendors

D. statistical

E. intercompany

F. currency codes

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 14:

Choose the reason why Tina is unable to view the sub ledger entries from Oracle Payables in the Oracle General Ledger module. She has run the transfer program that completes successfully.

A. Journal Import is not submitted.

B. The Journal source is not defined.

C. The Journal category is not defined.

D. Payables is not integrated with General Ledger.

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

ABC Corporation has five companies, which operate in different industries. Each company has a different ledger-processing option that is industry specific. Choose the number of primary ledgers that are required

to be defined.

A. five

B. four

C. two

D. one

E. three

Correct Answer: A

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Question 1:

Which operation is allowed in a BMQL query?

A. SELECT, INSERT, and DELETE

B. SELECT and UPDATE

C. SELECT, INSERT, and UPDATE

D. SELECT

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

A client wants customers to be able to select a laptop category from a drop-down list in the Product Configuration section. After the laptop category is selected, all laptops within that category need to be displayed without the user having to do any more selections.

Which option meets this requirement?

A. Formula Administration

B. Util library function

C. Commerce library function

D. Auto Update

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.)

A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on multiple Commerce Transactions

B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for parts in CPQ Cloud

C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the

changes

D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new inventory levels

Correct Answer: BD

Question 4:

Your customer has sales organizations in two countries.

The customer wants to make sure that users from one country have access only to quotes from that country.

How do you achieve this?

A. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. For each step, define two different participant profiles: Profile A and Profile B. For each profile, select one matching group.

B. Hide Transaction Manager in CPQ and make sure that all access to quotes is performed from the CRM system where you can easily define which quotes should be visible for different users.

C. Define different steps (for example, Pending A and Pending B) for each country. The participant profile of each step allows access through user groups (either Group A or Group B depending on the step). Using transition rules, make sure that quotes for Country A are always moved to steps belonging to that country.

D. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. Define a participant profile, Sales, for each step. Define an auto-forwarding rule which returns either “Group A~company~Sales” or “Group B~company~Sales”.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

What is the correct method to add new parts data to the CPQ Cloud database?

A. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data into a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed ZIP file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

B. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data directly to the CPQ Cloud database.

C. Perform a bulk download of at least one part to capture the part file format that the CPQ Cloud site uses, populate the new part data into the downloaded part file (.csv file), and enter “add” in the Update column for each new part, save the spreadsheet as a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

D. Export the part data from your current part system into a .csv file, put the .csv file into a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

E. Use Bulk Upload to upload the data from the remote part system into a .csv file and import the file into the CPQ Cloud site.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

When implementing Subscription Ordering according to the Subscription Ordering Implementation Guide, you are asked to modify the formula for the Price (List) line level attribute.

What must you do to properly modify the formula?

A. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price files of the BOM Item Definition table with a true value of the valid price value.

B. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of zero.

C. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid entry in a specific Subscription Ordering price book with a true value of zero.

D. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of Part Base Price.

E. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price field of the BOM Item Mapping table with a true value of the valid price value.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly distributed vertically?

A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height

B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions

C. Add HTML attributes and use

D. Use CSS

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Identify the three data types available for part custom fields. (Choose three.)

A. “String,” can be changed to “Single Select Menu”

B. “Boolean”

C. “Float,” can be changed to “Integer”

D. “Date,”, can include time

E. “Currency”

F. “Multi Select Menu”

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 9:

A customer sets up a BOM mapping for a Configuration model using a single simple Table-Based BOM Mapping Configuration rule, as well as the BOM Item Definition and BOM Item Mapping Tables. When reviewing their implementation, they notice the following: The BOM Root Items Administration List shows the root BOM item and its child BOM items correctly.

No errors are displayed. (Accessed from Admin > Products > BOM > BOM Root Items List) The BOM Mapping Administration List shows no root BOM items or child BOM items. No errors are displayed. (Accessed from the BOM Mapping rule\’s “Save and View Details” button)

Which filed have they incorrectly populated in their BOM Mapping Tables?

A. “Configurable Attribute Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

B. “Parent BOM Map Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

C. “Root Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

D. “Parent Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

E. “Part Number” in the BOM Item Definition Table

F. “BOM Item Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and Admin.

The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.

The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.

The step has an auto-forwarding rule.

A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves the quote to “Pending”.

The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep

Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?

A. SalesManager profile

B. SalesRep profile

C. Admin profile

D. Owner profile

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an array set?

A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set

B. by using CSS to hide icons

C. by hiding the control attribute

D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

How do you modify a specific user\’s access (grant access or remove access) to Product Families, Supported Product Families, and Data Table folders?

A. For each Product Family or Data table folder affected, click the Modify tab for that item and then select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.

B. Click the Group name on the Group Administration List page that has this user as a member, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.

C. Use the Navigation Menus item on the Administration home page to grant or remove access to specific Product Families or Data Table folders for the user.

D. Go to the Product Family definition or the Data Table folder properties for which you want to grant or remove access, click the Access Permissions tab, select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.

E. Click the user\’s name on the User Administration List page to edit the user, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ Cloud?

A. You must upload the file to the automated folder on the FTP server

B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file

C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes

D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

When using Web Services 1.0, consider the following sequence of a client system calling CPQ Cloud WebServices.

1. Call Security Login WebServices with User ID and Password.

2. Create a Commerce update transaction WebServices call by using an existing transaction ID.

3. Make the following updates in the web service XML:

Set Session ID Set “_shipTo_first_name” to “myName”

4. Submit the WebService call.

5. Call Security Logout WebServices with the Session ID to close the session. Based on the given sequence, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The call in step 4 will throw an error

B. The Commerce transaction should be updated with the new Ship To name

C. The session will still be open

D. Step 3 does not specify an action to execute; therefore, nothing is updated in the transaction

E. Step 5 is unnecessary. The session ID is not needed to log out

Correct Answer: CE

Question 15:

Which three discount types are available in pricing? (Choose three.)

A. percent discount

B. quantity-dependent discount

C. amount discount

D. promotion discount

E. absolute price

Correct Answer: ABC

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Question 1:

Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.

Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?

(Choose two.)

A. UOM information IS

B. shipping information

C. on-hand information

D. ATP supply information

E. reservations information

Correct Answer: BE

Question 2:

Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose three.)

A. the ABC class is an Item attribute.

B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.

C. an ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.

D. ABC classes can be used to group Items for planning purposes.

E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your items belong.

Correct Answer: CDE

Question 3:

You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)

A. Move Order

B. Locator transfer

C. Subinventory transfer

D. WIP component Issue

E. Miscellaneous Receipt

F. WIP assembly completion

G. Interorganization transfer direct

Correct Answer: AC

Question 4:

What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.

B. The items have a non reservable material status.

C. The Inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.

D. The Inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.

E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 5:

Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)

A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.

B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.

C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub-inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub-inventory.

D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for non-asset (expense) sub-inventories for which quantities are tracked.

E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance levels

F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle count header level

Correct Answer: ADF

Question 6:

Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are manufactured in one operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different operating units.

All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization\’s standard cost plus a transfer charge percentage.

Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose three.)

A. Define an Intercompany Price List.

B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.

C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.

D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.

E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.

F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.

G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for all inventory organizations in each operating unit.

Correct Answer: CEF

Question 7:

Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)

A. Planning, Engineering, Costing

B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory

C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials

D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing

E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process

F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger

G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process

Correct Answer: AD

Question 8:

Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the

customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form.

Which form would provide this Information?

A. Pending Status

B. View Material Transactions

C. Find Pending Transactions

D. Transaction Open Interface

E. Inventory Accounting Period

Correct Answer: E

Question 9:

What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for Inventory Items using the Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?

A. Items cost only

B. Items with on-hand quantity only

C. Either item with the on-hand quantity or items costed

D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items cost

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots. Expired lots______.

A. Can be reserved

B. Are not allowed to do subinventory transfer

C. Are not included in Inventory valuation reports

D. Cannot be transacted and included in on-hand quantities

E. Are not included in the cycle and physical counting adjustments

F. Are not considered as an on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning

Correct Answer: F

Question 11:

ABC Company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:

1. Purchase order receipt

2. Miscellaneous receipt

3. Account alias receipt

The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?

A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No

D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes

E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?

A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions

B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM

C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM

D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class

E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)

A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.

B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.

C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.

D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization level.

E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations while transacting on an item.

F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 14:

Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the item. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from nonlocal sources.

Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.

B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.

C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection Required.

D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.

E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local source.

F. Create item transaction default for the item hi the Item Master Organization.

G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.

H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the Item in the Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: EGH

Question 15:

For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing. what are the system requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)

A. the Receiving Transaction manager must be active.

B. the Cost Manager Interface manager must be active.

C. the Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

D. the Material Transaction interface manager must be active.

E. the Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

Correct Answer: BD

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Question 1:

Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)

A. View asset Information across multiple asset books.

B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignments.

C. Submit and view data across different Ledgers using a single responsibility.

D. Enter Payables invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.

E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 2:

Which two statements are true regarding the partitioning of data by an application? (Choose two.)

A. General Ledger is partitioned by Ledgers.

B. Accounts Payable is partitioned by Ledgers.

C. Fixed Assets are partitioned by Operating Unit.

D. Accounts Receivable is partitioned by Operating Unit.

E. Order Management is partitioned by Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 3:

ABC Corp. has determined its Accounting Key Flexfield structure for the Implementation of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. The Accounting Key Flexfield structure contains five Segments: Company, Business Unit, Department, Account, and Product.

They have the following requirements:

1) The Department values should be based on the Business Units.

2) They want to produce a quarterly Balance Sheet for each Company.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The Product Value Set is dependent on the Accounts.

B. The Business Unit Value Set is defined as Independent.

C. The Account Segment has a Value Set with no Validation.

D. The Company Segment is qualified as the Balancing Segment.

E. The Department Segment Is qualified as an Intercompany Segment.

F. Cross-validation rules are required to enforce the dependency of Departments on the Business Units.

Correct Answer: BDF

Question 4:

Identify four tasks that you can perform using Oracle Workflow in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, (choose four}

A. Automata business processes,

B. Generate account code combinations,

C. Approve standard business documents,

D. Send notifications using Advanced Queuing,

E. Generate Inventory item numbers using item generator workflow,

F. Integrate with third-party business systems that are not on a company network.

Correct Answer: ABDF

Question 5:

Identify two correct statements related to Key Performance Indicators and the KPI region in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)

A. can be of table format only

B. can be configured for each dashboard

C. organizes data into reporting hierarchies

D. is a strategic business factor that is used for reporting

E. contains a unique set of graphical information on a dashboard

Correct Answer: BD

Question 6:

The organization that Receivables uses to validate items is set up using______.

A. the AR: Items Flexfield Mode profile option

B. the AR: Allow Manual Invoice Lines profile option

C. the AR: Item Validation Organization profile option

D. item validation organization In the OM Parameters window

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins. The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments.

What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control?

A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access.

B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level.

C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts.

D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts.

E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the fields required at the header level?

A. date, customer, source, type, GL date, legal entity

B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to

C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to

D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) date, class

E. date, source, class, type, GL date, legal entity, bill-to, terms, remit-to

Correct Answer: E

Question 9:

Select three statements that apply to IReceivables. (Choose three.)

A. It Is a Web-based self-service application.

B. It can be used to verify the status of Invoices and receipts.

C. It is geared towards call centers, as well as credit and collections departments.

D. It can be used to initiate the Oracle Approvals Management (AME) credit memo request workflow.

Correct Answer: ABD

Question 10:

The client entered a miscellaneous receipt by mistake; it was posted to General Ledger. Now the miscellaneous receipt needs to be reversed.

Which method would you advise the client to use?

A. Carry out a standard reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

B. Carry out a debit memo reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

C. Create a receivable activity adjustment for the reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

D. Create an adjustment in receivables for the reversal of the effect of the miscellaneous receipt.

E. Create a journal entry in General Ledger to reverse the accounting impact created by the posting of the miscellaneous receipt.

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

After registering new data sources, you must complete your Bill Presentment Architecture by creating database views.

How many database views can you create for each data source?

A. one

B. nine

C. three

D. unlimited

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

You are setting up Receivable Accounting Events in Subledger Accounting. Identify Event Entity.

A. Invoices

B. deposits

C. guarantees

D. transactions

E. chargebacks

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

You have just opened the Transactions form. Which field would you see on this form?

A. company

B. legal entity

C. cost center

D. operating unit

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which two statements are true about invoicing rules and accounting rules? (Choose two.)

A. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is optional.

B. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is not allowed.

C. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is also required.

D. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect until Invoices are paid.

E. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect unless you choose the accrual method of accounting.

F. Invoicing rules determine when invoices are due. Accounting rules affect how invoices me accounted for

Correct Answer: CE

Question 15:

Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the AutoInvoice Execution report. They needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section of the report shows the following:

Selected: 9 Successfully Processed: 8 Failed Validation: 0

What is the likely reason for this?

A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.

B. General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross-validation rules.

C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invoice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit memo Is selected first.

D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit memo Is selected first.

E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is end-dated a day earlier.

Correct Answer: D

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Question 1:

Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)

A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.

B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.

C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.

D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.

E. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.

F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.

Correct Answer: CEF

Question 2:

A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales orders with distributor key strokes.

Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)

A. Defaulting rules

B. Transaction types

C. OM: invoice source

D. Processing constraints

E. Automatic attachments rules

F. OM: invoice transaction type

G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions

Correct Answer: ABEG

Question 3:

ACME has offices in various countries, and its customers and suppliers are based around the globe.

Given that addresses are formatted differently in each country, how would you set up the system to handle this situation?

A. Set up the address as a context-sensitive key flex field.

B. Set up the address as a free format segmented value set.

C. Set up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive flex field D. Set up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)

A. Accrual is a valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.

B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.

C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.

D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using only Basic pricing.

E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.

F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.

Correct Answer: BEF

Question 5:

Which option identifies the requirements to ship and confirm a sales order line?

A. The item attribute is shippable and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

B. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Picked and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

C. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Booked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

D. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Entered, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Awaiting Shipping, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types.

Identify five valid item types. (Choose five)

A. Ship Only

B. Order Only

C. OM Standard

D. Order Header

E. OM Price Only

F. Return for Credit

G. OM change Order

H. OM blanket Header

Correct Answer: BCDGH

Question 7:

An order has five lines with line status of Staged/Pick Confirmed.

There is no record on the Delivery tab in the Shipping Transaction form for this order.

What could be the possible resolution?

A. Resolve the shipping exception.

B. Enable shipping privileges for the user.

C. Autocreate delivery from the Pick Release form.

D. Autocreate delivery from the Delivery Transaction form.

E. Autocreate delivery from the Shipping Transaction form.

Correct Answer: E

Question 8:

ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.

All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using Configurator, which makes it intuitive for configuring PTO models.

Which statement is true?

A. A routing needs to be defined for the PTO model.

B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.

C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.

D. After selecting all the options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured part.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on collection data. (Choose four)

A. Define price-lists

B. Define ATP rules

C. Setup stock locators

D. Setup transit lead time

E. Set up pricing modifiers

F. Select the ATP item attribute

G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise

H. Set up Inventory Organization Hierarchy

Correct Answer: BDFG

Question 10:

Identify three correct statements about Cascading Attributes. (Choose three)

A. Enable Quick Code OM_Header_to_Line_Cascade.

B. Enable the Key Profile option OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade Header Changes to Line.

C. The Cascading Attributes feature is applicable to User Interface, but not for any API (Process Order)

D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint still allows updates to other lines.

E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the Profile OM: Sales Order Form Cascade Header change to the line.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 11:

Allowing a negative on-hand balance is set at _________.

A. The Entity Level

B. The Subinventory Level

C. The operating Unit Level

D. The Item master inventory level

E. The Inventory organization level

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three) A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.

B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.

C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.

D. The system parameter OM Employee for self-service orders has been changed to an OM system parameter with the same name.

E. The system parameter name OM employee for self-service order in single OM system parameter which has not changed to an OM profile.

F. The profile OM employee for self-service orders is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship orders created by external users.

Correct Answer: ACF

Question 13:

Choose the correct statement that applies to LPNs.

A. LPNs are organization independent.

B. Deliveries must exist before creating LPNs.

C. No container item is required to create LPNs.

D. LPN number can be defined with a prefix, starting number, and suffix.

E. The delivery line status should be picked and released before it can be assigned to LPNs.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Which three statements are true about the intercompany drop ship process across different operating units? (Choose three)

A. Customer\’s addresses are visible across the ledger.

B. Customer addresses are not visible across the ledger.

C. The shipping organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.

D. The procurement organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.

E. The shipping organization creates an intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.

F. The procurement organization creates an intercompany Receivables invoice for the goods

Correct Answer: ACF

Question 15:

Which statement best describes locator Control? (Choose two)

A. Cannot be changed after it is specified

B. Can be specified at the item master level

C. Can be specified at the operating unit level

D. Can be specified at the inventory organization level

Correct Answer: BD

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Question 1:

When you enter a receipt, you first use the Find Expected Receipts window to locate the source document

for the receipt.

Select four valid source documents for a receipt. (Choose four.)

A. An approved internal requisition line

B. An in-transit shipment within your inventory

C. A shipment from a supplier based on a purchase order

D. A move order from inventory for material storage relocation

E. A return from a customer based on a return material authorization (RMA)

F. A shipment from inventory backed by an internal safes order generated by an internal requisition

Correct Answer: BCEF

Question 2:

Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window?

A. Viewer: Text

B. Concurrent: Report Copies

C. Flexfields: Open Key Window

D. Concurrent Report: Access Level

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)

A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.

B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as other entities.

C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best practice to do so.

D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.

E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you cannot have it default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would default when you log in the next time.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 4:

Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.

A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link

B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link

C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation

D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Which three financial options can default when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)

A. Ship Via

B. Default Buyer

C. RFQ-Only Site

D. Bill-To Location

E. Supplier Classification

F. Payment Bank Account

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 6:

Which window in Purchasing would you use to copy on the existing global Approved Supplier List entry and make it local to your organization?

A. Supplier Status

B. Request For Quotation

C. Supplier-Item Attribute

D. Approved Supplier List Statuses

E. Sourcing Rule/Bill of Distribution Assignments

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which two statements are true about using foreign currency? (Choose two)

A. Requisition total is expressed in foreign currency.

B. Currency can be changed even after a requisition is approved.

C. Currency cannot be changed once a purchase order is approved.

D. A foreign currency reference can be specified for each purchase order line.

E. Requisition can automatically source blanket agreements or catalog quotations with foreign currency information.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 8:

A recent shipment of item A was routed to the inspection department according to standard practice, but

no receipt for item A is available in the system for inspection.

What might have happened?

A. Requester set the receipt routing to Direct Delivery in the requisition,

B. Receiving clerk created an express receipt instead of a standard one.

C. Buyer changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt in the purchase order line.

D. Buyer changed the routing to Direct Delivery at the supplier site level for this supplier.

E. Receiving clerk changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt at the time of receiving.

Correct Answer: E

Question 9:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.

A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

B. Prepare for the period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL

C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.

D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.

E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source

inventory items across different organizations.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL

B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.

C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.

D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.

E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 11:

An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment. Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.

B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.

C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.

D. Company X has set up Planning and would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can be set to New or Approved.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 12:

The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase

agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option

to update and create blanket purchase sourcing rules.

Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?

A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing

B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set

C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules

D. PO: Allow Auto creation of Oracle Sourcing Documents

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

A medium-sized multinational company based in the US has two business groups (BG), BG1 (for the US) and BG2 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies H1 and H2, respectively. The company has a policy that only the Controllers and those above them can approve capital Items on requisitions and purchase orders.

However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must also be able to authorize capital purchases. The account range for capital items is 2000-2599. The relevant approval limits are:

1) Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000 2) Controller in BG1: $500,000 3) Controller in BG2: $200,000

Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)

A. An employee in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee\’s manager and forwarded to the group Controller in BG1 who approves it.

B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee\’s manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.

C. The buyer hi BG1 raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BG1 who approves it.

D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with a charge for inventory items to be stocked in an asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.

E. The shop floor supervisor in BG1 raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The supervisor\’s manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BG1 for final approval.

F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in BG2 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2 places the order on the supplier.

Correct Answer: CF

Question 14:

When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)

A. entering suppliers twice

B. issuing specific invoices

C. generating inaccurate returns

D. generating inaccurate receipts

E. generating accurate supplier reports

F. issuing more payments than necessary

G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary

Correct Answer: AFG

Question 15:

Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?

A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.

B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.

C. Manually enter RFQs and Data Load Quotations.

D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.

E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,

F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.

Correct Answer: F

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Question 1:

Review the boot environments displayed on your system:

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 1

Which option describes the Solaris-1 BE?

A. It is active on the next reboot.

B. It is active now.

C. It is inactive.

D. It is unbootable.

E. It is active now and on reboot.

F. It has been removed and will no longer be available after the next reboot.

Correct Answer: E

In the below output, NR (now running) means the BE is active now and will be the active BE on reboot.

Example:

Display your existing BE information.

# beadm list

BE Active Mountpoint Space Policy Created

solaris NR / 12.24G static 2011-10-04 09:42

Question 2:

View the Exhibit and review the disk configuration.

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 2

The following command is executed on the disk:

zpool create pool1 c3t3d0s0

What is the result of executing this command?

A. A zpool create error is generated.

B. A 1-GB ZFS file system named /pool1 is created.

C. A 15.97-GB storage pool named pool1 is created.

D. The disk will contain an EFI disk label.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

View the Exhibit and review the zpool and ZFS configuration information from your system.

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 3

Identify the correct procedure for breaking the /prod_data mirror, removing c4t0d0 and c4t2d0, and making the data on c4t0d0 and c4t2d0 accessible under the dev_data mount point.

A. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0zpool import pool2zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/ prod_data

B. zpool detach pool1 pool2zpool attach pool2zfs set mountpoint=/dev_data pool2/prod_data

C. zpool split pool1/prod_data -n pool2/dev_datazfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data

D. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0zpool import pool2

Correct Answer: D

In this Solaris release, you can use the zpool split command to split a mirrored storage pool, which

detaches a disk or disks in the original mirrored pool to create another identical pool.

After the split operation, import the new pool.

Question 4:

The storage pool configuration on your server is:

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 4

You back up the /pool1/data file system, creating a snapshot and copying that snapshot to tape (/dev/ rmt/0). You perform a full backup on Sunday night and Incremental backups on Monday through Saturday night at 11:00 pm. Each incremental backup will copy only the data that has been modified since the Sunday backup was started.

On Thursday, at 10:00 am, you had a disk failure. You replaced the disk drive (c4t0d0). You created pool (pool1) on that disk.

Which option would you select to restore the data in the /pool1/data file system?

A. zfs create pool1/data load the Monday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0Load the Wednesday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0

B. Load the Sunday tape and restore the Sunday snapshot:zfs recv pooll/data < /dev/rmt/0zfs rollback pool1/data@monLoad the Wednesday tape and restore the Wednesday snapshot:zfs recv pool/ data < /dev/mt/0zfs rollback pool1/data@wed

C. zfs create pool/data load the Wednesday tape and enter:zfs recv -F pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0

D. Load the Sunday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/mt/0Load the Wednesday tape and enter:* commands missing*

Correct Answer: D

First, the full backup must be restored. This would be the Sunday backup. Then the last incremental backup

must be restored. This would be the Wednesday backup. Before restoring the Wednesday incremental file

system snapshot, the most recent snapshot must first be rolled back.

By exclusion D) would be the best answer even though it is incomplete.

Question 5:

To assist in examining and debugging running processes, Solaris 11 has a utility that returns pro arguments and the names and values of environment variables.

What is the name of this utility?

A. ppgsz

B. pargs

C. pmap D. pgrep

Correct Answer: B

The parts utility examines a target process or processes the core file and prints arguments, environment variables, and values, or the process auxiliary vector.

Question 6:

You are installing Oracle Solaris 11 on a SPARC-based system by using the Test Installer. Which three statements are true?

A. The ROOT user will always be configured as a role.

B. The root filesystem will always be deployed on ZFS.

C. The root filesystem will always be located on a local disk.

D. The network can be configured using DHCP.

E. The set of packages that will be installed is server based.

F. You must always create one regular user when installing the system.

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 7:

You are planning group names for a new system. You decide to use a numbering convention that includes the year and month the project began, to form the group number and name for work associated with that project.

So, for example, a project targeted to begin in January 2013 would have the number (name):

201301(Pr20l301)

What are the two problems with your plan?

A. Group names may not contain a numeric character

B. Group names may be no longer than 7 characters.

C. Group numbers should not be larger than 60000.

D. Group names should be all lowercase.

Correct Answer: CD

C: The Group ID (GID) field contains the group\’s numerical ID. GIDs can be assigned whole numbers between 100 and 60000.

D: Group names contain only lowercase characters and numbers.

Question 8:

You have installed software updates to a new boot environment (BE) and have activated the booting to the new BE, you notice system errors. You want to boot to the last known good configuration. Which option would you use on a SPARC system to boot to the current boot environment?

A. boot -L currentBE

B. boot -Z rpool/ROOT/currentBE

C. boot -a Enter the currentBE dataset name when prompted.

D. boot rpool/ROOT/currentBE

E. boot -m currentBE

F. beadm activate currentBE

Correct Answer: F

You can change an inactive boot environment into an active boot environment. Only one boot environment can be active at a time. The newly activated boot environment becomes the default environment upon reboot.

How to Activate an Existing Boot Environment

1. Use the following command to activate an existing, inactive boot environment:

beam activate beName

beName is a variable for the name of the boot environment to be activated.

Note the following specifications.

beam activate beName activates a boot environment by setting the bootable pool property, boots, to the

value of the ROOT dataset of the boot environment that is being activated.

beam activate sets the newly activated boot environment as the default in the menu.lst file.

2. Reboot.

The newly activated boot environment is now the default on the x86 GRUB menu or SPARC boot menu.

Question 9:

You are troubleshooting network throughput on your server.

To confirm that the load balancing among aggregated links is functioning properly, you want to examine

the traffic statistics on the links comprising the aggregation.

The correct command is ___________.

A. distant – aggr

B. distant show-aggr

C. distant show-link -r

D. distant show-link -aggr

E. distant show-phys -aggr

Correct Answer: B

distant show-aggr [-r | -t] [-I interval] [-p] [ -o field[, …]] [-u R|K|M|G|T|P] [link] Display per-port statistics for an aggregation.

Question 10:

You suspect a problem with the OpenLDAP package and want to make sure that the files have not to be modified or otherwise tampered with.

Which command would validate all of the files contained in the openldap package and report any problems?

A. pkgchk OpenLDAP

B. pkg info OpenLDAP

C. pkg contents OpenLDAP

D. pkg verify openldap

E. pkg set-property signature-policy verify

Correct Answer: A

pkgchk checks the accuracy of installed files or, by using the -l option, displays information about package files. pkgchk checks the integrity of directory structures and files. Discrepancies are written to standard error along with a detailed explanation of the problem.

Question 11:

Which three options describe the purpose of the zonep2vchk command?

A. Used on a Solaris 10 global zone to access the system for problems before migrating that system to a Solaris 10 branded zone.

B. Used to access a Solaris 10 global zone for problems before migrating that zone to a Solaris 11 global zone

C. Used to create zonecfg template for a Solaris 10 global zone that will be migrated to a solaris10 branded zone.

D. Used to migrate an Oracle Solaris 11 global zone to a non-global zone.

E. Used to migrate a Solaris 10 global zone to a non-global zone on the same server; the non-global zone can then be migrated to a Solaris 11 server as a Solaris 10 branded zone.

Correct Answer: CDE

zonep2vchk

-check a global zone\’s configuration for physical to virtual migration into a non-global zone

The zonep2vchk utility is used to evaluate a global zone\’s configuration before the process of physical-to-virtual (p2v) migration into a non-global zone. The p2v process involves archiving a global zone (source) and then installing a non-global zone (target) using that archive Zonep2vchk serves two functions. First, it can be used to report issues on the source which might prevent a successful p2v migration. Second, it can output a template zonecfg, which can be used to assist in configuring the non-global zone target.

Zonep2vchk can be executed on a Solaris 10 or later global zone. To execute on Solaris 10, copy the zonep2vchkutility to the Solaris 10 source global zone. When running on Solaris 10, a target release of S11 can be specified, which will check for p2v into a Solaris 10 Branded zone.

Question 12:

You are going to create live zones on your server. Disk space is critical on this server so you need to reduce the amount of disk space required for these zones. Much of the data required for each of these zones is identical, so you want to eliminate the duplicate copies of data and store only data that is unique to each zone.

Which two options provide a solution for eliminating the duplicate copies of data that is common between all of these zones?

A. Create the zones by using sparse root zones.

B. Set the dedup property to on and the dedupe ratio to at least 1.5 for the pool.Create a separate ZFS file system for each zone in the zpool.

C. Put all of the zones in the same ZFS file system and set the dedupratio property for the ZFS file system to at least 1.5.

D. Put all of the zones in the same ZFS file system and set the dedup property for the file system to on.

E. Put each zone in a separate ZFS file system within the same pool. Set the dedup property to one for each ZFS file system.

Correct Answer: DE

n Oracle Solaris 11, you can use the deduplication (dedupe) property to remove redundant data from your ZFS file systems. If a file system has the dedup property enabled, duplicate data blocks are removed synchronously. The result is that only unique data is stored, and common components are shared between files.

Question 13:

The crash dump notification on your server is:

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 13

The documentation states that there should be two core files for each crash dump in the /var/crash directory named vmdump.0

Which command should you choose to display these two files?

A. save core -f vmdump.0

B. dumped uncompressed

C. gunzip vmdump.0

D. dumped -z off

Correct Answer: A

Decompress using savecore -f vmdump.0

savecore – save a crash dump of the operating system

-f dump file Attempt to save a crash dump from the specified file instead of from the system\’s current dump device. This option may be useful if the information stored on the dump device has been copied to an on-disk file by means of the dd(1M) command.

Question 14:

To confirm the IP addresses and netmasks have been correctly configured on the network interfaces, which command(s) should you use?

A. ipadm show-if

B. ipadm show-nic

C. ipadm show-addr

D. ipadm show-addripadm show-mask

E. ipadm show-ipipadm show-mask

F. ipadm show-config

Correct Answer: C

Show address information, either for the given addrobj or all the address objects configured on the specified interface, including the address objects that are only in the persistent configuration.

Example: # ipadm show-and ADDROBJ TYPE STATE ADDR lo0/v4 static ok 127.0.0.1/8

lo0/v6 static ok ::1/128

Question 15:

You have been asked to do an orderly shutdown on a process with a PID of 1234, with the kill command.

Which command is best?

A. kill -2 1234

B. kill -15 1234

C. kill -9 1234

D. kill -1 1234

Correct Answer: B

On POSIX-compliant platforms, SIGTERM is the signal sent to a process to request its termination. The symbolic constant for SIGTERM is defined in the header file signal. h. Symbolic signal names are used because signal numbers can vary across platforms, however, on the vast majority of systems, SIGTERM is signal #15.

SIGTERM is the default signal sent to a process by the kill or kill all commands. It causes the termination of a process, but unlike the SIGKILL signal, it can be caught and interpreted (or ignored) by the process. Therefore, SIGTERM is akin to asking a process to terminate nicely, allowing cleanup and closure of files.

For this reason, on many Unix systems during the shutdown, init issues SIGTERM to all processes that are not essential to powering off, waits a few seconds, and then issues SIGKILL to forcibly terminate any such processes that remain.

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Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 free dumps

Question 1:

Which modification needs to be made to the Service Management Facility before you publish a new package to the IPS repository?

A. The pkg. depot must be disabled.

B. The pkg/read-only property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to false

C. The pkg/writable_root property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to true.

D. The pkg/image_root property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to the location of the repository.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: pkg/image_root

(string) The path to the image whose file information will be used as a cache for file data.

Reference: man pkg. depot

Question 2:

You run the command distant show-link -r.

Select the two correct statements regarding the information displayed in the INTRS column.

A. No value is listed for virtual network interfaces.

B. A value of 0 is listed for virtual interfaces and ether stubs.

C. The number of Interrupts is listed, which indicates network efficiency.

D. A number equal to the number of transmitted Ethernet frames is listed for physical links.

E. The number of packets that were interrupted by a collision is listed, which may indicate hardware problems.

Correct Answer: CE

Explanation: In this output, the statistics for interrupt (INTRS) are significant. Low interrupt numbers indicate greater efficiency in performance. If the interrupt numbers are high, then you might need to add more resources to the specific link.

Example: # dlstat -r -I 1 LINK IPKTS RBYTES INTRS POLLS CH50

e1000g0 101.91K 32.86M 87.56K 14.35K 3.70K 205 5

nxge1 9.61M 14.47G 5.79M 3.82M 379.98K 85.66K 1.64K

vnic1 8 336 0 0 0 0 0

e1000g0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

nxge1 82.13K 123.69M 50.00K 32.13K 3.17K 724 24

vnic1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Note: distant show-link [-r [-F] | -t] [-i interval] [-a] [-p] [ -o field[,…]] [-u R|K|M|G|T|P] [link] Display statistics for

a link.

-r

Display receive-side statistics only. Includes bytes and packets received, hardware and software drops,

and so forth.

List of supported RX fields:

link

Tuesday

bytes

pets

intros

polls

hydrops: Hardware drops

drops: software drops (owing to bandwidth enforcement) ch<10: number of packet chains of length < 10

ch10-50: number of packet chains of length between 10 and 50 ch>50: number of packet chains of length

> 50

Reference: man distant

Question 3:

You want to deploy Oracle Solans 11 with the Automated Installer (Al). You need to make sure that your server and network meet the requirements for using Al Choose the three options that describe the requirements for using Al. (Choose three.)

A. You must set up DHCP. The DHCP server and Al install server can be the same machine or two different machines.

B. You can create only one manifest per install service. If you need more than one manifest, create multiple install services.

C. The minimum requirement to operate as an Al install server is 1 GB of memory.

D. If two client machines have different architectures and need to be installed with the same version of the Oracle Solaris 11 OS( then create two Al manifests and a single install service.

E. Load the install/installed package on the Al server.

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

The resource control in your zone is:

roll

name: zone.CPU-shares

value: (pnv=phvJleged,limit=20,aclion=none)

When you boot the zone, this message is displayed:

WARNING: The zone.cpu-shares rctl is set but FSS is not the default scheduling class for this zone. FSS

will be used for processes in the zone but to get the full benefit of FSS, it should be the default scheduling

class.

Which option will resolve this issue?

A. in the global zone, run this command to change the process scheduler for the global zone dispadmin -d FSS

B. in the non-global zone, run this command to change the process scheduler for this specific zone: dispadmin -d FSS

C. Change the zone resource control to: value: (priv=privileged,limit=20,action=none, default)

D. Use svccfg to modify the general/scheduler property in the svc:/system/zones: default service: svccfg -s system/zones: default editprop general/scheduler=FSS

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

You are setting up an automated installer (AI) install server and issuing the following command:

installed create-service -n prod_ai -s /repo/prod_ai.iso \

-I 192.168.1.100 -c 5 -d /export/repo

Which four options describe the install server that you have configured?

A. The service name is prod_ai.

B. DHCP base IP address is 192.168.1.100

C. The initial IP address for the install clients will be 192.168.1.100. This IP address is temporary. After the client is booted, it will use IP addresses in the following range: 192.168.1.101-105.

D. Five IP addresses are allocated for DHCP clients, starting with 192.168.1.100.

E. The Install server will support up to five clients.

F. The AI net image ISO file is located in /repo/prod and the net image ISO will be unpacked in /export/ repo.

G. The AI net image ISO file is located in /repo/repo and is named /repo/prod/_ai.iso.

Correct Answer: ABDF

Explanation: A: -n

Uses this install service name instead of the default

service name.

B: -i

Sets up a new DHCP server. The IP addresses,

starting from dhcp_address_start, are set up.

D: -c

Sets up a total number of IP addresses in the

DHCP table equal to the value of the

count_of_ipaddr. The first IP address is the

value of dhcp_ip_start that is provided by the

-I option.

F: -s

Specifies the location of the AI ISO image to use for

setting up the install service.

Required: Specifies the location to set up the net image.

Reference: man installed

Question 6:

You have already generated a 256-bit AES raw key and named the keystore file /mykey. You need to use the key to create an encrypted file system.

Which command should you use to create a ZFS encrypted file system named pool1/encrypt using the / mykey keystore?

A. zfs create – o encryption = /mykey pool1/encrypt

B. zfs create – o encryption = 256-ccm – o key source = raw, file : ///my key pool1/encrypt

C. zfs create – o encryption = AES key source = /mykey pool1/encrypt

D. zfs create – o encryption = on key store = /mykey pool1/encrypt

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Example: Encrypting a ZFS File System by Using a Raw Key

In the following example, an aes-256-ccm encryption key is generated by using the petrol command and is

written to a file, /cindykey.file.

# pktool genkey keystore=file outkey=/cindykey.file keytype=aes keylen=256 Then, the /cindykey.file is

specified when the tank/home/Cindy file system is created.

# zfs create -o encryption=aes-256-ccm -o keysource=raw,file:///cindykey.file tank/home/Cindy

Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Examples of Encrypting ZFS File Systems

Question 7:

Which three statements are true for the Oracle Solans 111mage Packaging System (IPS)? (Choose three.)

A. a local repository should be stored on a 2FS file system.

B. Network access to an IPS repository is provided to client systems using NFS.

C. Network access to an IPS repository is provided to client systems using NFS and HTTP.

D. The distribution constructor can get packages from a local IPS to build an installation image.

E. A mirror repository contains all of the metadata and content for software packages.

F. Clients access a mirror repository to obtain a publisher\’s catalog and software packages.

Correct Answer: DEF

Question 8:

New features wore added to ZFS in Oracle Solaris11. Your justification to upgrade from Solaris10 to oracle Solaris11 is that it will be possible to take advantage of the enhancements that were made to ZFS.

Identify the three ZFS functions and features that are included in Oracle Solaris 11, but not in Solaris 10.

A. Encrypted ZFS datasets

B. Ability for ZFS to detect and remove redundant data from the tile system

C. Shadow Data Migration

D. Ability to split a mirrored ZFS storage pool

E. Ability to use ZFS on the boot drive and boot to a ZFS root file system.

F. elimination of the swap file system when using ZFS on the root disk

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation: A: ZFS encryption was introduced in ZFS Pool Version Number 30, Solaris Nevada b149.

Filesystem encryption since Solaris 11 Express

B: Deduplication was introduced in ZFS Pool Version Number 21, Solaris Nevada b128.

E: Booting From a ZFS Root File System Both SPARC-based and x86-based systems use the new style of booting with a boot archive, which is a file system image that contains the files required for booting. When a system is booted from a ZFS root file system, the path names of both the boot archive and the kernel file are resolved in the root file system that is selected for booting.

Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Booting From a ZFS Root File System

Question 9:

Which three Installation options allow for a “hands-free” and “unattended\'” Installation of the Solaris 11 environment?

A. Jumpstart

B. LiveCD

C. A text Installation over the network

D. An Automated Installation performed on an x86 client

E. An Automated Installation using media from a local DVD or USB drive

F. An Automated Installation using a networked repository

Correct Answer: DEF

Explanation: Oracle Solaris 11 uses Automated Installer (AI) for unattended installations.

Unattended installations are possible by placing the contents of the AI Image media (or ISO image contents from a download) on an AI server.

Reference: Differences between Oracle Solaris 10 and 11 for System Administrators http:// www.oracle.com/technetwork/server-storage/solaris11/overview/solaris-matrix- 1549264.html

Question 10:

View the Exhibit and review the pool and ZFS configuration information from your system.

Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q10Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q10

Identify the correct procedure for breaking the /prod_data mirror, removing c4t0d0 and c4t2d0, and making the data on c4t0d0 and c4t2d0 accessible under the dev_data mount point.

A. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0 zpool import pool2 zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data

B. zpool detach pool1 pool2 zpool attach pool2 zfs set mountpoint=/dev_data pool2/prod_data

C. zpool split pool1/prod_data -n pool2/dev_data zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data

D. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0 zpool import pool2

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: In this Solaris release, you can use the pool split command to split a mirrored storage pool, which detaches a disk or disks in the original mirrored pool to create another identical pool. After the split operation, import the new pool.

Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Creating a New Pool By Splitting a Mirrored ZFS Storage Pool

Question 11:

View the Exhibit

Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q11

To simplify the administration of a network, the decision was made to use bridging rather than routing Your

the network includes three Oracle Solaris 11 systems,

en-tiny cib uiiuyo yiuviumy reuunuaiu pauiways.

You previously created the bridges on each system with the following commands:

SystemA#dladmcreate-bridge-1 net -1 net2 bridge

SystemB # dladm create-bridge -1 netl -1 net2 bndgeB

SystemC # dladm create-bridge -1 netl -1 net2 bndgeC

You notice that network performance is less than expected, and packets between networks X and Z are

being forwarded by bridge A and bridge B, rather than being forwarded directly by budget.

Select the solution

A. SystemC # dladm modify-bndge -p stp bridges

B. SystemA # dladm modify-bridge -p stp bridge SystemB # dladm modify-bridge -p stp budget SystemC # dladm modify-bridge -p stp bridges

C. SystemC # dladm modify-bridge -p trill bridges

D. SystemA # dladm modify-bridge -p trill bridge SystemB # dladm modify-bridge -p trill budget SystemC # dladm modify-bridge -p trill budget

E. SystemC # ipadm set-prop -p forwarding=on bridges

F. SystemC # dladm set-link prop -p promiscuous=on bridges

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

You have been asked to troubleshoot the initial configuration of a virtual network connecting two local zones with the outside world.

View the exhibit.

Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q12

The command dladm create-vnic -1 vswitch192.168.1 vnic1 fails with the error dladm: invalid link name `vswitch192.168.1\’ What is the reason for this error?

A. The name vswitch192.168.1 is not legal.

B. The zone must be specified with dladm create-vnic -z zone3 vnic1.

C. The virtual interface must be specified with dladm create-vnic -z zone3 vnic1.

D. The virtual interface must be created with ipadm create-vnic -1 switch192.168.1.

E. The virtual switch must be created first with dladm create -etherstub vswitch192.168.1.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation: There is no data link named vswitch192.168.

We need to create an etherstub first.

See the Note and example below for details.

Note: Create a VNIC in the system\’s global zone.

# dladm create-vnic -l data-link vnic-name

data-link is the name of the interface where the VNIC is to be configured.

-l link, –link=link

link can be a physical link or an other stub.

vnic-name is the name that you want to give the VNIC.

For example, to create a VNIC named vnic0 on interface e1000g0, you would type the following:

# dladm create-vnic -l e1000g0 vnic0

Example: Creating a Virtual Network Without a Physical NIC

First, create an etherstub with the name stub1:

# dladm create-etherstub stub1

Create two VNICs with the names hello0 and test1 on the etherstub. This operation implicitly creates a virtual

switch connecting hello0 and test1. # dladm create-vnic -l stub1 hello0 # dladm create-vnic -l stub1 test1 Reference: man dladm

Question 13:

You have set up the task. max-was resource control on your Solaris 11 system.

Which option describes how to configure the system so that syslogd notifies you when the resources control the threshold value for the task? max-lips resource has been exceeded?

A. Use the rctladm command to enable the global action on the task.max-lwpa resource control.

B. Modify the /etc/syslog.conf file to activate system logging of all violations of the task.max- lwps and then refresh then svc: /system/system-log: default service.

C. Activate system logging of all violations of task.max-lwpp in the /etc/rctldm.conf file and then execute the rctladm-u command.

D. Use the prct1 command to set the logging of all resource control violations at the time the task. max was resource control is being set up.

E. Use the setrct1 command to set the logging of all resource control violations for the task.max-was resource control.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: rctladm – display and/or modify the global state of system resource controls The following command activates system logging of all violations of the task. max-lips. # rctladm -e syslog task.max-lips

# Reference: man rctladm

Question 14:

You are using Wireshark or snoop to observe network traffic, by using the observability node /dev/net/budget. The bridge was created with: dladm create-bridge -1 net -1 net2 bridge

The captured packets are those__________.

A. sent, prior to VLAN tag modifications

B. received, after VLAN tag modifications

C. received, prior to VLAN tag modifications

D. sent and received, after VLAN tag modifications

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Identify three options that describe the new Oracle Solaris 11 zone features.

A. There are boot environments for zones.

B. Administrators can delegate common administration tasks by using RBAC.

C. Oracle Solaris 11 supports Solaris 8, 9, and 10 branded zones.

D. You can migrate a physical Solaris 10 system and its non-global zones to a solaris10 branded zone running on an Oracle Solaris 11 system.

E. It is possible to change the host ID of a zone.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: A: The beam utility includes support for creating and administering non-global zone boot environments. Note: A boot environment is a bootable instance of the Oracle Solaris operating system image plus any other application software packages installed into that image. System administrators can maintain multiple boot environments on their systems, and each boot environment can have different software versions installed.

B: Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security feature for controlling user access to tasks that would normally be restricted to the root role. By applying security attributes to processes and to users, RBAC can divide up superuser capabilities among several administrators.

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