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Question 1:

Which operation is allowed in a BMQL query?

A. SELECT, INSERT, and DELETE

B. SELECT and UPDATE

C. SELECT, INSERT, and UPDATE

D. SELECT

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A client wants customers to be able to select a laptop category from a drop-down list in the Product Configuration section. After the laptop category is selected, all laptops within that category need to be displayed without the user having to do any more selections.

Which option meets this requirement?

A. Formula Administration

B. Util library function

C. Commerce library function

D. Auto Update

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.)

A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on multiple Commerce Transactions

B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for parts in CPQ Cloud

C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the

changes

D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new inventory levels

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

Your customer has sales organizations in two countries.

The customer wants to make sure that users from one country have access only to quotes from that country.

How do you achieve this?

A. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. For each step, define two different participant profiles: Profile A and Profile B. For each profile, select one matching group.

B. Hide Transaction Manager in CPQ and make sure that all access to quotes is performed from the CRM system where you can easily define which quotes should be visible for different users.

C. Define different steps (for example, Pending A and Pending B) for each country. The participant profile of each step allows access through user groups (either Group A or Group B depending on the step). Using transition rules, make sure that quotes for Country A are always moved to steps belonging to that country.

D. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. Define a participant profile, Sales, for each step. Define an auto-forwarding rule which returns either “Group A~company~Sales” or “Group B~company~Sales”.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What is the correct method to add new parts data to the CPQ Cloud database?

A. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data into a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed ZIP file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

B. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data directly to the CPQ Cloud database.

C. Perform a bulk download of at least one part to capture the part file format that the CPQ Cloud site uses, populate the new part data into the downloaded part file (.csv file), and enter “add” in the Update column for each new part, save the spreadsheet as a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

D. Export the part data from your current part system into a .csv file, put the .csv file into a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.

E. Use Bulk Upload to upload the data from the remote part system into a .csv file and import the file into the CPQ Cloud site.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

When implementing Subscription Ordering according to the Subscription Ordering Implementation Guide, you are asked to modify the formula for the Price (List) line level attribute.

What must you do to properly modify the formula?

A. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price files of the BOM Item Definition table with a true value of the valid price value.

B. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of zero.

C. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid entry in a specific Subscription Ordering price book with a true value of zero.

D. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of Part Base Price.

E. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price field of the BOM Item Mapping table with a true value of the valid price value.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly distributed vertically?

A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height

B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions

C. Add HTML attributes and use

D. Use CSS

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Identify the three data types available for part custom fields. (Choose three.)

A. “String,” can be changed to “Single Select Menu”

B. “Boolean”

C. “Float,” can be changed to “Integer”

D. “Date,”, can include time

E. “Currency”

F. “Multi Select Menu”

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

A customer sets up a BOM mapping for a Configuration model using a single simple Table-Based BOM Mapping Configuration rule, as well as the BOM Item Definition and BOM Item Mapping Tables. When reviewing their implementation, they notice the following: The BOM Root Items Administration List shows the root BOM item and its child BOM items correctly.

No errors are displayed. (Accessed from Admin > Products > BOM > BOM Root Items List) The BOM Mapping Administration List shows no root BOM items or child BOM items. No errors are displayed. (Accessed from the BOM Mapping rule\’s “Save and View Details” button)

Which filed have they incorrectly populated in their BOM Mapping Tables?

A. “Configurable Attribute Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

B. “Parent BOM Map Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

C. “Root Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

D. “Parent Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table

E. “Part Number” in the BOM Item Definition Table

F. “BOM Item Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and Admin.

The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.

The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.

The step has an auto-forwarding rule.

A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves the quote to “Pending”.

The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep

Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?

A. SalesManager profile

B. SalesRep profile

C. Admin profile

D. Owner profile

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an array set?

A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set

B. by using CSS to hide icons

C. by hiding the control attribute

D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How do you modify a specific user\’s access (grant access or remove access) to Product Families, Supported Product Families, and Data Table folders?

A. For each Product Family or Data table folder affected, click the Modify tab for that item and then select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.

B. Click the Group name on the Group Administration List page that has this user as a member, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.

C. Use the Navigation Menus item on the Administration home page to grant or remove access to specific Product Families or Data Table folders for the user.

D. Go to the Product Family definition or the Data Table folder properties for which you want to grant or remove access, click the Access Permissions tab, select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.

E. Click the user\’s name on the User Administration List page to edit the user, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ Cloud?

A. You must upload the file to the automated folder on the FTP server

B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file

C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes

D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

When using Web Services 1.0, consider the following sequence of a client system calling CPQ Cloud WebServices.

1. Call Security Login WebServices with User ID and Password.

2. Create a Commerce update transaction WebServices call by using an existing transaction ID.

3. Make the following updates in the web service XML:

Set Session ID Set “_shipTo_first_name” to “myName”

4. Submit the WebService call.

5. Call Security Logout WebServices with the Session ID to close the session. Based on the given sequence, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The call in step 4 will throw an error

B. The Commerce transaction should be updated with the new Ship To name

C. The session will still be open

D. Step 3 does not specify an action to execute; therefore, nothing is updated in the transaction

E. Step 5 is unnecessary. The session ID is not needed to log out

Correct Answer: CE


Question 15:

Which three discount types are available in pricing? (Choose three.)

A. percent discount

B. quantity-dependent discount

C. amount discount

D. promotion discount

E. absolute price

Correct Answer: ABC


 

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Lead4Pass 1Z0-519 Exam Dumps Real 1Z0-519 Exam Study Guide – Nov 2021

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Question 1:

Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.

Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?

(Choose two.)

A. UOM information IS

B. shipping information

C. on-hand information

D. ATP supply information

E. reservations information

Correct Answer: BE


Question 2:

Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose three.)

A. the ABC class is an Item attribute.

B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.

C. an ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.

D. ABC classes can be used to group Items for planning purposes.

E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your items belong.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 3:

You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)

A. Move Order

B. Locator transfer

C. Subinventory transfer

D. WIP component Issue

E. Miscellaneous Receipt

F. WIP assembly completion

G. Interorganization transfer direct

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.

B. The items have a non reservable material status.

C. The Inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.

D. The Inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.

E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)

A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.

B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.

C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub-inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub-inventory.

D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for non-asset (expense) sub-inventories for which quantities are tracked.

E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance levels

F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle count header level

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 6:

Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are manufactured in one operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different operating units.

All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization\’s standard cost plus a transfer charge percentage.

Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose three.)

A. Define an Intercompany Price List.

B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.

C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.

D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.

E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.

F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.

G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for all inventory organizations in each operating unit.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 7:

Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)

A. Planning, Engineering, Costing

B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory

C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials

D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing

E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process

F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger

G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the

customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form.

Which form would provide this Information?

A. Pending Status

B. View Material Transactions

C. Find Pending Transactions

D. Transaction Open Interface

E. Inventory Accounting Period

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for Inventory Items using the Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?

A. Items cost only

B. Items with on-hand quantity only

C. Either item with the on-hand quantity or items costed

D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items cost

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots. Expired lots______.

A. Can be reserved

B. Are not allowed to do subinventory transfer

C. Are not included in Inventory valuation reports

D. Cannot be transacted and included in on-hand quantities

E. Are not included in the cycle and physical counting adjustments

F. Are not considered as an on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning

Correct Answer: F


Question 11:

ABC Company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:

1. Purchase order receipt

2. Miscellaneous receipt

3. Account alias receipt

The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?

A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No

D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes

E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?

A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions

B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM

C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM

D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class

E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)

A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.

B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.

C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.

D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization level.

E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations while transacting on an item.

F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 14:

Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the item. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from nonlocal sources.

Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.

B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.

C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection Required.

D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.

E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local source.

F. Create item transaction default for the item hi the Item Master Organization.

G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.

H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the Item in the Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: EGH


Question 15:

For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing. what are the system requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)

A. the Receiving Transaction manager must be active.

B. the Cost Manager Interface manager must be active.

C. the Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

D. the Material Transaction interface manager must be active.

E. the Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

Correct Answer: BD


 

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[Lead4Pass] Free 1Z0-518 Study Guide Real Exam Questions and Answers 

Question 1:

Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)

A. View asset Information across multiple asset books.

B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignments.

C. Submit and view data across different Ledgers using a single responsibility.

D. Enter Payables invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.

E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 2:

Which two statements are true regarding the partitioning of data by an application? (Choose two.)

A. General Ledger is partitioned by Ledgers.

B. Accounts Payable is partitioned by Ledgers.

C. Fixed Assets are partitioned by Operating Unit.

D. Accounts Receivable is partitioned by Operating Unit.

E. Order Management is partitioned by Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

ABC Corp. has determined its Accounting Key Flexfield structure for the Implementation of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. The Accounting Key Flexfield structure contains five Segments: Company, Business Unit, Department, Account, and Product.

They have the following requirements:

1) The Department values should be based on the Business Units.

2) They want to produce a quarterly Balance Sheet for each Company.

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The Product Value Set is dependent on the Accounts.

B. The Business Unit Value Set is defined as Independent.

C. The Account Segment has a Value Set with no Validation.

D. The Company Segment is qualified as the Balancing Segment.

E. The Department Segment Is qualified as an Intercompany Segment.

F. Cross-validation rules are required to enforce the dependency of Departments on the Business Units.

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 4:

Identify four tasks that you can perform using Oracle Workflow in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, (choose four}

A. Automata business processes,

B. Generate account code combinations,

C. Approve standard business documents,

D. Send notifications using Advanced Queuing,

E. Generate Inventory item numbers using item generator workflow,

F. Integrate with third-party business systems that are not on a company network.

Correct Answer: ABDF


Question 5:

Identify two correct statements related to Key Performance Indicators and the KPI region in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)

A. can be of table format only

B. can be configured for each dashboard

C. organizes data into reporting hierarchies

D. is a strategic business factor that is used for reporting

E. contains a unique set of graphical information on a dashboard

Correct Answer: BD


Question 6:

The organization that Receivables uses to validate items is set up using______.

A. the AR: Items Flexfield Mode profile option

B. the AR: Allow Manual Invoice Lines profile option

C. the AR: Item Validation Organization profile option

D. item validation organization In the OM Parameters window

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins. The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments.

What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control?

A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access.

B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level.

C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts.

D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts.

E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the fields required at the header level?

A. date, customer, source, type, GL date, legal entity

B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to

C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to

D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) date, class

E. date, source, class, type, GL date, legal entity, bill-to, terms, remit-to

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Select three statements that apply to IReceivables. (Choose three.)

A. It Is a Web-based self-service application.

B. It can be used to verify the status of Invoices and receipts.

C. It is geared towards call centers, as well as credit and collections departments.

D. It can be used to initiate the Oracle Approvals Management (AME) credit memo request workflow.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 10:

The client entered a miscellaneous receipt by mistake; it was posted to General Ledger. Now the miscellaneous receipt needs to be reversed.

Which method would you advise the client to use?

A. Carry out a standard reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

B. Carry out a debit memo reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

C. Create a receivable activity adjustment for the reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.

D. Create an adjustment in receivables for the reversal of the effect of the miscellaneous receipt.

E. Create a journal entry in General Ledger to reverse the accounting impact created by the posting of the miscellaneous receipt.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

After registering new data sources, you must complete your Bill Presentment Architecture by creating database views.

How many database views can you create for each data source?

A. one

B. nine

C. three

D. unlimited

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You are setting up Receivable Accounting Events in Subledger Accounting. Identify Event Entity.

A. Invoices

B. deposits

C. guarantees

D. transactions

E. chargebacks

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You have just opened the Transactions form. Which field would you see on this form?

A. company

B. legal entity

C. cost center

D. operating unit

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which two statements are true about invoicing rules and accounting rules? (Choose two.)

A. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is optional.

B. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is not allowed.

C. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is also required.

D. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect until Invoices are paid.

E. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect unless you choose the accrual method of accounting.

F. Invoicing rules determine when invoices are due. Accounting rules affect how invoices me accounted for

Correct Answer: CE


Question 15:

Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the AutoInvoice Execution report. They needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section of the report shows the following:

Selected: 9 Successfully Processed: 8 Failed Validation: 0

What is the likely reason for this?

A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.

B. General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross-validation rules.

C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invoice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit memo Is selected first.

D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit memo Is selected first.

E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is end-dated a day earlier.

Correct Answer: D


 

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