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Free sample questions of 1Z0-1046-22 free dumps are provided here. 

Question 1:

A manager returned from their US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his source location of the UK Subsidiary. Which is the option a Human Resource representative should exercise to reinstate the manager\’s records in the source legal employer?

A. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.

B. Entering the return will automatically reinstate the record on the return date.

C. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfiled to capture the return date. Update this segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.

D. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignment\’s in the source legal employer is reinstated automatically on the return date.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals under Manage Employment tasks as Auto Approve. Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for auto-approval? (Choose two.)

A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.

B. Set up dynamic approval rule.

C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.

D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.

E. Select the Number of Levels as 0.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose three.)

A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a basic enterprise structure.

B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and reference data sets.

C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the administrator.

D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job/position structures, the administrator can review them, make any necessary changes, and then load/roll back the final configuration.

E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and departments.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 4:

A static approval group named “Trio” comprises three members – Jacob, Susan, and Dia (in the mentioned order). For all the Manage Employment transactions, the approval should be routed to the “Trio” approval group.

When the assignment change transaction is submitted, what is the order in which these three members receive the assignment change approval notification?

A. System decides the approval route by randomly selecting approvers who are a part of the approval group.

B. First Approver -Dia, Second Approver – Susan, Third Approval -Jacob

C. All three get the notification at the same time.

D. First Approver -Jacob, Second Approver -Susan, Third Approver -Dia

E. The approval is routed alphabetically.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Identify three correct statements about Workforce Life Cycle. (Choose three.)

A. HR specialists can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for the workers to whom they have security access.

B. The Add Person tasks include creating a new person\’s first work relationship with the enterprise.

C. Line Managers can transfer their direct and indirect reports only.

D. HR specialists and line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for all workers.

E. Line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for all workers.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 6:

You want to use the Tree Management feature of Functional Setup Manager to organize data into hierarchies.

Which option represents seeded tree structures?

A. organization, job, division, geographies

B. organization, position, division, geographies

C. organization, position, department, geographies

D. organization, job, department, geographies

E. organization, position, division, establishment

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

For the Change Manager transaction. the first-level approval is set to the Application Role type. The name of the application role is HR Specialist Sales. In the Change Manager approval rule configuration, the Enable Auto Claim option is deselected.

Which two actions take place when the transaction for manager change is initiated for employees? (Choose two.)

A. The transaction has to be approved by all HR Specialist Sales representatives for it to be approved.

B. If one of the HR Specialist Sales representatives rejects the transaction, others can still approve it.

C. One of the HR Specialist Sales representatives should “Claim” the transaction for it to be assigned for approval.

D. The transaction goes for approval to all the workers who inherit the HR Specialist Sales role.

E. The transaction goes into error because it was not auto-claimed.

F. The transaction will be auto-claimed and assigned randomly to anyone who has the HR Specialist Sales role.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 8:

As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application.

Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)

A. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.

B. You must identify the top level of geography as a Country and define a geography type.

C. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load the geography hierarchy.

D. It is mandatory to define geography validation before geography hierarchy can be defined.

E. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

An ex-employee of your organization, who was employed at the USA office, resigned from her job 2 years ago. She will start her employment at the France office next month.

Which statement is correct about the Person Number and Assignment Number for this employee?

A. The employee\’s new person number will be her previous number suffixed by -1.

B. The employee continues with her old person number if the global sequence is used for the person number and the same assignment number as the France Legal Employer.

C. The employee gets a new person number and assignment number for her employment in France if the legal employer sequence is used for the person number.

D. The employee has a personal record with the enterprise so she will continue with the same person number but get a new assignment number within her new work relationship with the France Legal Employer.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An organization uses the Previous Employment content type to capture relevant employment details of employees. What do you do to make this content type available in other applications?

A. Do nothing. After the content type is created, it is available for use in all applications.

B. Make sure it is a non-freeform content type.

C. Specify a Subscriber Code for the content type.

D. Make sure it is a free-form content type.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two legal employers, and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in other countries)

B. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five legal employers and PSUs (all except India)

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. four LDGs (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, you are configuring an enterprise structure for an organization that has undergone major restructuring. The client wants you to make multiple versions of the enterprise

structure so that they can decide on a final one that suits them based on proper analysis and comparison.

What should you do to meet this requirement of the client?

A. Design the enterprise structure by using individual tasks available for each of the organizations and keep changing it until the final structure is agreed upon.

B. Create and load one enterprise structure at a time through Establish Enterprise Structure, analyze the structure and, if it does not suit the client, use the rollback option before creating another structure.

C. Configure multiple enterprise structures by using the Establish Enterprise Structure-guided flow. Analyze and compare them by using the configuration review pages, including the Technical Summary Report, before loading the final one.

D. Configure multiple enterprise structures and load all of them simultaneously so that analysis and comparison can be done.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

As an implementation consultant, you have defined multiple grades for each job and position. While defining employment terms or assignments, users must be able to select a grade only from the list that has been defined for the job or

position. However, all grades are available.

What is the cause of this?

A. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to Yes at the user level.

B. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to No at site level.

C. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to No at the site level.

D. GRADE_PAY_RATE_TYPE is set to No at the site level.

E. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to Yes at the site level.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal entity? (Choose three.)

A. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.

B. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.

C. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.

D. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.

E. Legal entities are not responsible for the payment of social insurance.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 15:

Which two options can be directly mapped to the employee record during hiring? (Choose two.)

A. Job Family

B. Legal Employer

C. Payroll Statutory Unit

D. Business Unit

E. Enterprise

F. Division

G. Sub-Division

Correct Answer: BD


 

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Avail Updated Lead4Pass 1Z0-931-22 Exam Dumps With Free Exam Materials | 2023-01

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1Z0-931-22 free dumps are questions from the latest full 1Z0-931-22 dumps

Question 1:

The Oracle Autonomous Database dedicated Exadata infrastructure feature is based upon which Oracle Cloud resources?

A. Oracle Machine Learning Zeppelin Notebook, Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure, Fleet Administrator, Database Administrator,

B. Virtual Cloud Network, Compartments, Policies, Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure

C. Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure, Autonomous Backup, Autonomous Container Database, Autonomous Database

D. Fleet Administrator, Database Administrator, Database User, Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/autonomous- database/atpfg/components.html#GUID268B36E1-87D8-4649-A370-226E2AE3FC5C


Question 2:

Which statement is FALSE about setting up compartment quotas?

A. Quotas set on a parent compartment override quotas set on childcompartments.

B. Compartment quotas cannot be set on the root compartment.

C. Compartment quotas use policies that allow the allocation of resources with a high level of flexibility.

D. You cannot manage quotas in a compartment unless you belong to a group that has the correct permissions.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

For someone that is not a service administrator to use SQL Developer Web, what package would you need to use to give them access?

A. SQLDEV_ADMIN.GRANT_SCHEMA

B. ORDS_ADMIN.ENABLE_SCHEMA

C. ORDS_ADMIN.GRANT_SCHEMA

D. ORDS_PRIV.ENABLE_SCHEMA

Correct Answer: B

As an alternative, the ADMIN can provide Web Access for a user, and RESTenable a user, with SQL

commands. The ADMIN user runs the following code:

BEGINORDS_ADMIN.ENABLE_SCHEMA(

);

COMMIT;

END;

/

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/autonomous-database/adbsa/sql-developer- web. html#GUID4B404CE3-C832-4089-B37A-ADE1036C7EEA


Question 4:

Which four file formats are supported when loading data from Cloud Storage?

A. DOC

B. AVRO

C. JSON

D. DDL

E. Dcsv

F. Parquet

Correct Answer: BCEF


Question 5:

Which option should you use to create a graph with Graph Studio?

A. A graph license key

B. NoSQL configuration

C. Graph created by a special tool downloaded from oracle.com

D. Graph analytics algorithms

E. Tables in an Autonomous Database instance

Correct Answer: E


Question 6:

Which two options are available to restore an Oracle Autonomous Database?

A. Select the backup from which the restore needs to be done.

B. Specify the point in time (timestamp) to restore.

C. Select the snapshot of the backup.

D. Use Recovery Manager (RMAN) to connect to Autonomous Database and back it up.

E. Specify the archived custom image.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

Which two statements are true when running DBMS_CLOUD?COPY_DATA? (Choose two.)

A. The source file can be in either Oracle Standard Storage or Oracle Archive Storage bucket in the Object Store.

B. The source files can reside in Oracle Object Storage, Amazon S3 Object storage, or Azure Blob storage.

C. A valid credential must be created prior to running the DBMS_CLOUD.COPY_DATA procedure.

D. The source file will be automatically removed after the DBMS_CLOUD.COPY_DATA procedure finishes successfully.

E. The target table will be created in Autonomous Database if it does not already exist.

Correct Answer: BC

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/autonomous-data-warehouse-cloud/user/file-uriformats.html#GUID-5D3E1614-ADF2-4DB5-B2B2-D5613F10E4FA

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/autonomous-data-warehouse-cloud/user/dbms- cloud. html#GUID9428EA51-5DDD-43C2-B1F5-CD348C156122


Question 8:

Which statement is correct with respect to the required action to move Autonomous Database resources to a different compartment?

A. Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure instances and Autonomous Container Databases have no dependent resources that move with them. Associated (non-dependent) resources remain in their current compartments.

B. Moving an Autonomous Database instance does not include its automatic backups.

C. You do not need to have sufficient access permissions on the compartment that the resource is being moved to.

D. Moving the compartment of the Autonomous Database will also move the Autonomous Container Database and Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure.

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Database/Concepts/databaseoverview.htm#moveRes


Question 9:

Which cloud service is NOT supported to import data pump files from using Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure?

A. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage

B. Google Cloud Storage

C. Amazon S3

D. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage Classic

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which two options are available to restore an Autonomous Data Warehouse? (Choose two.)

A. Backup and recovery must be done using Recovery Manager(RMAN).

B. Select the snapshot of the backup.

C. Select the archived redo logs.

D. Select the backup from which the restore needs to be done.

E. Specify the point in time (timestamp) to restore.

Correct Answer: DE

In the Restore prompt, select Specify Timestamp or Select Backup to restore to a point in time or to restore from a specified backup.

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/autonomous-data-warehouse-cloud/user/backkuprecover.html#GUID-78C28C41-AA87-4AD7-BEB6-693235C73F3C

1Z0-931-22 q10


Question 11:

A customer wants to increase the throughput of their inserts. They have discovered that the bottleneck is in the storage I/Os of their environment.

What should they do to remove this bottleneck?

A. Run the DBMS_CLOUD.INCREASE_THROUGHPUT procedure.

B. Remove any non-JSON data from the database.

C. Increase the number of OCPUs allocated to the database.

D. Ask Support to migrate their setup to a node without noisy neighbors.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which statement is NOT correct when setting up compartment quotas?

A. There are three types of quota policy statements which are set, unset, and zero.

B. Compartment quotas use policies that allow the allocation of resources with a high level of flexibility.

C. Along with compartment budgets, compartment quotas create a powerful toolset to manage your spending.

D. Compartment quotas are set by Oracle.

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.oracle.com/enus/iaas/Content/General/Concepts/resourcequotas.htm

1Z0-931-22 q12


Question 13:

Which set of options can be specified when defining the preferred maintenance schedule of the Exadata infrastructure for Autonomous Database Dedicated?

A. Week of the Quarter, Day of the Week, Start Hour

B. Month of the Year, Week of the Month, Day of the Week, Start Hour

C. Quarter of the Year, Month of the Quarter, Date of the Month, Start Hour

D. Month of the Quarter, Week of the Month, Day of the Week, Start Hour

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

1Z0-931-22 q14

Which stage of the indexing pipeline divides the text into tokens?

A. SECTION

B. FILTER

C. Otokenizer

D. LEXER

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two license types does the customer need to benefit from BYOL when leveraging on-premise Enterprise Database licenses in Oracle Autonomous Database?

A. Exadata

B. Active Data Guard

C. RAC, but only when scaling beyond 16 OCPUs

D. Transparent Data Encryption

E. Multitenant

Correct Answer: CE

Refer to https://www.oracle.com/autonomous-database/autonomous-data- warehouse/pricing/

If you run Oracle Database EnterpriseEdition and the required options listed below, then your BYOL

requirements are as follows:

For 1-16 OCPUs of a single Oracle Autonomous Data Warehouse instance:

For each supported Processor license of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options:

Multitenant, you may activate up to 2 OCPUs of the BYOL Cloud Service. For every 25 supported Named

User Plus licenses of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options: Multitenant, you may activate 1

OCPU of the BYOL Cloud Service. For 17 OCPUs or more of a single Oracle Autonomous Data

Warehouse:

For each supported Processor license of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options:

Multitenant and Real Application Clusters, you may activate up to 2 OCPUs of the BYOL Cloud Service.

For every 25 supportedNamed User Plus licenses of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options:

Multitenant and Real Application Clusters, you may activate 1 OCPU of the BYOL Cloud Service.

https://www.oracle.com/database/technologies/datawarehouse-bigdata/adb-faqs.html “Do customers need

Exadata licenses to benefit from BYOL?”


 

At last

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Updated Lead4Pass 1Z0-809 Dumps Latest Version With 1Z0-809 Free Exam Questions 2023-01-01

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Real questions from 1Z0-809 free dumps. 

Question 1:

Given the definition of the Vehicle class:

Class Vehicle {

int distance; //line n1

Vehicle (int x) {

this distance = x;

}

public void increased(int time) { //line n2

int timeTravel = time; //line n3

class Car {

int value = 0;

public void speed () {

value = distance /time travel;

System.out.println (“Velocity with new speed”+value+”kmph”);

}

}

new Car().speed();

}

}

and this code fragment:

Vehicle v = New Vehicle (100);

A. increased (60); What is the result?

B. Velocity with new speed

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.

E. A compilation error occurs at line n3.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Given:

IntStream stream = IntStream.of (1,2,3);

IntFunction inFu= x -> y -> x*y; //line n1

IntStream new stream = stream.map(inFu.apply(10)); //line n2

new stream.forEach(System.output::print);

Which modification enables the code fragment to compile?

A. Replace line n1 with: IntFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

B. Replace line n1 with: IntFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

C. Replace line n1 with: BiFunction inFu = x -> y -> x*y;

D. Replace line n2 with: IntStream new stream = stream.map(inFu.applyAsInt (10));

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Given the code fragment:

List values = Arrays.asList (1, 2, 3);

values. stream ()

.map(n -> n*2) //line n1

.peek(System.out::print) //line n2

.count();

What is the result?

A. 246

B. The code produces no output.

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Given the code fragment:

public class Foo {

public static void main (String [ ] args) {

Map unsortMap = new HashMap ( );

unsortMap.put (10, “z”);

unsortMap.put (5, “b”);

unsortMap.put (1, “d”);

unsortMap.put (7, “e”);

unsortMap.put (50, “j”);

Map treeMap = new TreeMap (new

Comparator ( ) {

@Override public int compare (Integer o1, Integer o2) {return o2.compareTo

(o1); } } );

treeMap.putAll (unsortMap);

for (Map. Entry entry : treeMap.entrySet () ) {

System.out.print (entry.getValue () + ” “);

}

}

}

What is the result?

A. A compilation error occurs.

B. d b e z j

C. j z e b d

D. z b d e j

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Given:

public class Counter {

public static void main (String[ ] args) {

int a = 10;

int b = -1;

assert (b >=1) : “Invalid Denominator”;

int = a / b;

System.out.println (c);

}

}

What is the result of running the code with the -ea option?

A. -10

B. 0

C. An assertion error is thrown.

D. A compilation error occurs.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Given:

class Bird {

public void fly () { System. out.print(“Can fly”); }

}

class Penguin extends Bird {

public void fly () { System. out.print(“Cannot fly”); }

}

and the code fragment:

class Birdie {

public static void main (String [ ] args) {

fly( ( ) -> new Bird ( ));

fly (Penguin: : new);

}

/* line n1 */

}

Which code fragment, when inserted at line n1, enables the Birdie class to compile?

A. static void fly (Consumer bird) { bird :: fly (); } {

B. static void fly (Consumer bird) bird.accept( ) fly (); } {

C. static void fly (Supplier bird) bird.get( ) fly (); } {

D. static void fly (Supplier bird) LOST

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Given:

1.

abstract class Shape {

2.

Shape ( ) { System.out.println (“Shape”); }

3.

protected void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Shape”); }

4.

}

5.

6.

class Square extends Shape {

7.

int side;

8.

Square int side {

9.

/* insert code here */

10.

this.side = side;

11.

}

12.

public void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Square”); }

13.

}

14.

class Rectangle extends Square {

15.

int len, br;

16.

Rectangle (int x, int y) {

17.

/* insert code here */

18.

Len = x, br = y;

19.

}

20.

void area ( ) { System.out.println (“Rectangle”); }

21.

}

Which two modifications enable the code to compile? (Choose two.)

A. At line 1, remove abstract

B. At line 9, insert super ( );

C. At line 12, remove public

D. At line 17, insert super (x);

E. At line 17, insert super (); super.side = x;

F. At line 20, use public void area ( ) {

Correct Answer: DF


Question 8:

Given:

class Sum extends RecursiveAction { //line n1

static final int THRESHOLD_SIZE = 3;

int stIndex, lstIndex;

int [ ] data;

public Sum (int [ ]data, int start, int end) {

this.data = data;

this index = start;

this. lstIndex = end;

}

protected void compute ( ) {

int sum = 0;

if (lstIndex ?stIndex<;= THRESHOLD_SIZE) {

for (int i = stIndex; i < lstIndex; i++) {

sum += data [i];

}

System.out.println(sum);

} else {

new Sum (data, index + THRESHOLD_SIZE, lstIndex).fork( );

new Sum (data, index,

Math.min (lstIndex, stIndex + THRESHOLD_SIZE)

).compute ();

}

}

}

and the code fragment:

ForkJoinPool fjPool = new ForkJoinPool ( );

int data [ ] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

fool.invoke (new Sum (data, 0, data. length));

and given that the sum of all integers from 1 to 10 is 55.

Which statement is true?

A. The program prints several values that total 55.

B. The program prints 55.

C. A compilation error occurs at line n1.

D. The program prints several values whose sum exceeds 55.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Given the content of Operator.java, EngineOperator.java, and Engine.java files: and the code fragment:

1Z0-809 Free Exam Questions 9

What is the result?

A. The Engine.java file fails to compile.

B. The EngineOperator.java file fails to compile.

C. The Operator.java file fails to compile.

D. ON-OFF

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Given the code fragment:

Path file = Paths. get (“courses.txt”); // line n1

Assume the courses.txt is accessible.

Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to print the content of the courses.txt file?

A. List fc = Files.list(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

B. Stream fc = Files.readAllLines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

C. List fc = readAllLines(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

D. Stream fc = Files.lines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Given the code fragment:

public void recDelete (String dir name) throws IOException {

File [ ] list of files = new File (dirName) .listFiles();

if (list of files ! = null and list of files.length >0) {

for (File aFile : listOfFiles) {

if (aFile.isDirectory ()) {

recDelete (aFile.get absolute path ());

} else {

if (aFile.getName ().endsWith (“.class”))

aFile.delete ();

}

}

}

}

Assume that Projects contains subdirectories that contain .class files and is passed as an argument to the

recDelete () method when it is invoked.

What is the result?

A. The method deletes all the .class files in the Projects directory and its subdirectories.

B. The method deletes the .class files of the Projects directory only.

C. The method executes and does not make any changes to the Projects directory.

D. The method throws an IOException.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Given the code fragments:

4.

void doStuff() throws ArithmeticException, NumberFormatException, Exception {

5.

if (Math.unexpected() >-1 throw new Exception (“Try again”);

6.

}

and

24.

try {

25.

doStuff ( ):

26.

} catch (ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException | Exception e) {

27.

System.out.println (e.getMessage()); }

28.

catch (Exception e) {

29.

System.out.println (e.getMessage()); }

30.

}

Which modification enables the code to print Try again.

A. Comment lines 28, 29, and 30.

B. Replace line 26 with: } catch (Exception | ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException e) {

C. Replace line 26 with: } catch (ArithmeticException | NumberFormatException e) {

D. Replace line 27 with: throw e;

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Given the definition of the Country class:

public class country {

public enum Continent {ASIA, EUROPE}

String name;

Continent region;

public Country (String na, Continent reg) {

name = na, region = reg;

}

public String getName () {return name;}

public Continent getRegion () {return region;}

}

and the code fragment:

List consist = Arrays.asList (

new Country (“Japan”, Country.Continent.ASIA),

new Country (“Italy”, Country.Continent.EUROPE),

new Country (“Germany”, Country.Continent.EUROPE));

Map<Country.Continent, List> regionNames = couList.stream ()

.collect(Collectors.grouping (Country ::getRegion,

Collectors.mapping(Country::getName, Collectors.toList()))));

System.out.println(region names);

A. {EUROPE = [Italy, Germany], ASIA = [Japan]}

B. {ASIA = [Japan], EUROPE = [Italy, Germany]}

C. {EUROPE = [Germany, Italy], ASIA = [Japan]}

D. {EUROPE = [Germany], EUROPE = [Italy], ASIA = [Japan]}

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Given the code fragment:

Map books = new TreeMap();

books. put (1007, “A”);

books. put (1002, “C”);

books. put (1001, “B”);

books. put (1003, “B”);

System.out.println (books);

What is the result?

A. {1007 = A, 1002 = C, 1001 = B, 1003 = B}

B. {1001 = B, 1002 = C, 1003 = B, 1007 = A}

C. {1002 = C, 1003 = B, 1007 = A}

D. {1007 = A, 1001 = B, 1003 = B, 1002 = C}

Correct Answer: B

Reference: TreeMap inherits SortedMap and automatically sorts the element\’s key


Question 15:

Given:

class Book {

int id;

String name;

public Book (int id, String name) {

this.id = id;

this.name = name;

}

public boolean equals (Object obj) { //line n1

boolean output = false;

Book b = (Book) obj;

if (this.name.equals(b name))}

output = true;

}

return output;

}

}

and the code fragment:

Book b1 = new Book (101, “Java Programming”);

Book b2 = new Book (102, “Java Programming”);

System.out.println (b1.equals(b2)); //line n2

Which statement is true?

A. The program prints true.

B. The program prints false.

C. A compilation error occurs. To ensure successful compilation, replace line n1 with: boolean equals (Book obj) {

D. A compilation error occurs. To ensure successful compilation, replace line n2 with: System.out.println (b1.equals((Object) b2));

Correct Answer: A


 

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New Updated 1Z0-1050-22 Exam Dumps Free Exam Questions 

Question 1:

Which costing levels can you enter for an offset account?

A. Job

B. Element Eligibility

C. Department

D. Position

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/global-human-resources/18b/faipc/payroll-costing.html#FAIPC1255854


Question 2:

A line manager has hired a worker who will be paid on a weekly basis. What navigation path should the payroll user take to enter the weekly payroll details for the worker?

A. Manage Work Relationship > Work Relationship Record

B. Manage Work Relationship > Assignment Record

C. Manage Payroll Relationship > Assignment Record

D. Manage Payroll Relationship > Payroll Relationship Record

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What happens if the costing process does not find a value for a segment defined as mandatory, and you have not created a suspense account at the Payroll level?

A. Calculation displays an error, and the person\’s results are not costed

B. No costing results are created for the person

C. Costing results are placed into a suspense account

D. Costing results display a blank (null) value in the segment

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

You want to define your own rules for converting a rate value from one periodicity to another, such as from weekly to annual. How can you achieve this?

A. Define an indirect element, write a fast formula to convert the processed value, and create the result for an indirect element.

B. Define your own Periodicity Conversion Rule and select it while creating the element.

C. Create an additional input value, calculate the converted value outside the system, and enter it while creating an element entry.

D. You cannot define your own rules for converting from one periodicity to another.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You have a requirement to control the values of one input value from another input value. How do you achieve this?

A. You cannot achieve this because interdependency on input values is not possible.

B. You can achieve this requirement using the table-validated value sets.

C. You can achieve this requirement using the independent and dependent value sets on input values.

D. You can achieve this using lookups.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

When submitting a payroll flow, who is the owner of a task if no one has been indicated within the payroll flow definition?

A. The user that submitted the payroll flow

B. Any user with the Payroll Administrator role

C. Any user with the Payroll Manager role

D. Any user with either the Payroll Administrator or Payroll Manager Role

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which delivered report can be used to verify the details of all payments made to third parties?

A. Payroll Activity Report

B. Payment Register Report

C. Third-Party Invoice Listing

D. Third-Party Payment Register

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/r13/wn/r13-wf-rewards-wn.htm


Question 8:

A customer has asked for notifications to be sent for tasks within a flow pattern. Notifications can be sent based on the status of the flow task. Which option shows the task statuses that are supported?

A. Error on Warning

B. Error, Warning, Complete

C. Error, Warning, Complete, In Progress

D. All Statuses

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You are a payroll customer but when you have created an earnings element using the Manage Elements feature it has not created a pay value input value. What is the reason for this?

A. The selected extension in Manage Features by Country or Territory was set to “Payroll Interface”.

B. The selected extension in Manage Features by Country or Territory was set to “Human Resources or None”.

C. The earnings element template always creates “Pay Value” as the input value.

D. The selected extension in Manage Features by Country or Territory was set to “Payroll”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You are implementing retro pay. You have created a retroactive event group to track the changes that need to be considered by the retropay process. To which feature should the retroactive event group be associated?

A. Element

B. Payroll definition

C. Work relationship records

D. Payroll relationship records

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E51367_01/globalop_gs/FAIGP/F1427200AN19C77.htm


Question 11:

A person has one Payroll Relationship and two assignments. Each assignment has two different departments. Each department is associated with a different cost center. You would like to transfer all the costs of this person to one cost center only.

Which two options achieve the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Define payroll costing with the cost center required

B. Define the Person

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

You need to associate a worker with your customer\’s weekly payroll but the payroll field only displays values for the monthly and bi-weekly payrolls. Which two issues are the source of the problem? (Choose two.)

A. You do not have the Manage Payroll Definition duty role

B. The weekly payroll has not been created in the worker\’s legislative data group

C. The weekly payroll has not been enabled for the worker\’s PSU

D. Your data role does not include a payroll security profile that includes the weekly payroll

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

The element template has created a “Results” element for a voluntary deduction element along with the base element. On which element eligibility should you enter the costing account information?

A. Base element

B. Calculator element

C. Results element

D. Distributor element

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18727_01/doc.121/e13554/T270794T273820.htm


Question 14:

Your company wants to pay its employees from the company bank account A and their third parties from company bank account B. What is the recommended approach for this?

A. Write a formula to select the correct bank account for employees and third parties.

B. Create one organization payment method with two payment sources and configure the usage for each payment source within the payment method rules table.

C. Create two personal payment methods for each of your employees: one for their salary payments and one for their third-party payments.

D. Ensure you run the prepayments process separately for your employees and your third parties.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two statements regarding the relationship between legal entities, legal employers, and payroll statutory units (PSU) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A legal employer can be associated with multiple PSUs

B. A legal entity can be both a legal employer and a PSU

C. Legal entities responsible for paying workers

D. PSUs are legal entities responsible for payroll tax and social insurance reporting

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financials/r13-update17d/faigl/legal-entities.html#FAIGL1453110


 

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Questions and answers from 1Z0-533 free dumps. 

Question 1:

Identify the two statements about the Planning Import security utility.

A. Imports Planning application access for users and groups

B. Imports users and groups into Planning

C. Requires the source text file to be named PLANSECFILE.txt

D. Can be scheduled to run nightly using an encrypted password

E. Clears existing security definitions by default before the import takes place

Correct Answer: AD

The Import Security utility performs an Oracle Hyperion Planning security import.

A: The ImportSecurity utility loads access permissions for users or groups from a text file into Planning.

(To add users or groups, see the Oracle Hyperion Enterprise Performance Management System Security Administration Guide. . not B)

Importing Access permissions overwrites existing access assignments only for imported members, data forms, data form folders, task lists, Calculation Manager business rules, and Calculation Manager business rule folders. All other existing access permissions remain intact. (not E).

The SL_CLEARALL parameter clears all existing access permissions; you can use it with other parameters to replace them. See also Exporting Access Permissions.

D: To import access permissions into Planning:

Locate the ImportSecurity utility by navigating to the bin directory.

From the Command Prompt, enter this case-sensitive command, one space, and the parameters, separating each with a comma. Enclose the parameters with double quotation marks:

ImportSecurity.cmd [-f:passwordFile] “app name,username,[delimiter],[RUN_SILENT],[SL_CLEARALL]”

This command can be scheduled.


Question 2:

Identify the two factual statements about a sparse Entity dimension In Hyperion Planning.

A. You cannot build alternate rollups or assign custom attributes.

B. Base currencies are assigned to entity members.

C. Exchange rates are assigned to entity members.

D. Entity along with Scenario and Period make up a planning unit.

E. Entity along with Scenario and Version make up a planning unit.

Correct Answer: BE

E: The Scenario and Version dimensions represent the broadest categories of data in your application. The scenario describes the type of data that a plan includes, such as budget, actual, or forecast, as well as the time span that the plan covers.

Version allows for flexibility and iterative planning cycles. For example, your application could have two versions, Working and Final, for each scenario. You can also use versions to model possible outcomes based on different assumptions

about interest rates, growth rates, and so on. For example, your application can have a Best Case and Worst Case version for each scenario.

Note:

Essbase maximizes performance by dividing the Essbase – Standard dimensions of an application into two types:

dense dimensions

sparse dimensions.

Sparse and dense are a property of the values of an attribute.

Sparse

Data is normally stored in sparse form. If no value exists for a given combination of dimension values, no row exists in the fact table. For example, if not every product is sold in every market. In this case, the Market and Product are sparse

dimensions.

It\’s why in the reporting tool Obiee for instance, by default, data are considered sparse.

Dense

Most multidimensional databases may also contain dense dimensions. A fact table is considered to have dense data if it has (of a high probability to have) one row for every combination of its associated dimension levels.


Question 3:

In a non-multicurrency Planning application, what three things happen if all options are checked for Refresh Database?

A. Dimension and member changes are pushed to Essbase.

B. Cell text and supporting detail changes are pushed to Essbase.

C. Security filters for dimensions and members are pushed to Essbase.

D. Security filters for shared members are pushed to Essbase.

E. Data changes are pushed to Essbase.

Correct Answer: ACD

During refresh:

* Essbase security filters are updated (C, D)

*Currency conversion calc scripts are updated

*Accounts or associated properties are propagated from the relational database to the Essbase database

*Custom attributes are added, modified, or deleted in the Essbase database

*Exchange rate values are repopulated in the Essbase outline

*Member formulas for certain accounts are generated or updated

*Additions or changes to alias tables and their association to dimensions or members are updated (A)

*The Essbase database is restructured

*UDAs are added to the Essbase database

Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition, Creating, and Refreshing Application Databases


Question 4:

You are designing a monthly projection Planning application. A starting point projection file is received with the current month’s data. Data forms, Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports should always focus on the current projection month.

What is the most efficient way to design the components to reduce maintenance each month?

A. Manually update the forms each month and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.

B. Manually update the forms each month; Use the “CurMo” Global variable for Business Rules and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.

C. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.

D. Use a “CurMth” substitution variable for data forms, Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.

E. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms; Use the “CurMo” Global variable for Business Rules and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.

Correct Answer: E

Business Rules use a global variable. In Essbase, use a substitution variable.


Question 5:

Identify three key benefits of the Planning solution.

A. Standardized data forms for plan data entry available both for the Web and in Excel

B. One tool to budget and forecast as well as provide reporting for very detailed Actuals Information

C. Central repository of business rules that can be run by end users to calculate plan data

D. Detailed security down to the cell level

E. Flexible solution customizable for almost any kind of budgeting and forecasting process

Correct Answer: ACE

A: Hyperion Planning leverages the Multidimensional functionalities and capabilities of Essbase to the fullest to provide varied planning options along with inherent Data Forms, MS Excel, and a Web-based grid interface for data entry and reporting needs. ata Forms in Hyperion planning provides a standard centralized grid-based interface for data entry and checks.

Customizing or fixing a Data Form issue takes less time and effort than Excel-based spreadsheets.

C: Using a central repository makes administration and maintenance of business rules easy because the repository stores information for several applications in one database.

A user or group who has the role of basic user can do these tasks:

*Launch business rules and sequences to which the user has access

*View business rules and sequences to which the users have access

*View all variables and macros

*Edit business rules, sequences, macros, variables, and projects for which the user was granted editing privileges

E: Oracle Hyperion Planning provides an in-depth look at business operations and their related impact on financials, by tightly integrating financial and operational planning models. With Oracle Hyperion Planning you can meet your immediate financial planning needs while enabling a platform for future cross-functional expansion and automated process integration.

Reference: Hyperion Business Rules, Administrative Guide


Question 6:

The budget office analyst needs to enter and plan data, use the Planning spreading feature that allows users to spread budget data based on last year\’s actuals, and modify data forms. What two roles should be provisioned for this user?

A. Grid Spread

B. Planner

C. Interactive User

D. Mass Allocate

E. Offline User

Correct Answer: BC

Planner:

The majority of Hyperion Planning users are planners who are responsible for department or project budgets. They conveniently work over the Web or the Spreadsheet Add-in to:

Enter, submit, and view data

Use pre-defined policies, procedures, routines, reports, and worksheets to enter, analyze, and report on application data

Interactive User:

Examples of an interactive users include a department head, sales director, or unit manager who submits budget information and data for approval. Interactive users can enter and view data. They can also create, maintain, and initiate:

Data entry forms on the Web

Spreadsheet Add-in worksheets

Reports using Hyperion Reports

Integrations using Hyperion Application Link

Business rules using Hyperion Business Rules


Question 7:

You are designing the storage properties for your Planning application.

What two design principles should you follow related to the dynamic calc storage property?

A. Dynamically calculated members should roll up to stored members.

B. You cannot calculate and store dynamically calculated members in calc scripts and business rules.

C. Consider dynamic calc members on sparse parents with 100 t children.

D. Tagging upper-level members of sparse dimensions can reduce block size.

E. If you use a large number of dynamic calls, you should consider increasing the Dynamic Calculator Cache.

F. Consider Dynamic Calc and Store over Dynamic Calc.

Correct Answer: BE

B: “If you specify a Dynamic Calc or Dynamic Calc and Store member explicitly in a calculation script, the calculation script fails. You cannot do a calculation script calculation of a Dynamic Calc or Dynamic Calc and Store member. To use a

calculation script to calculate a member explicitly, do not tag the member as Dynamic Calc.

E: The dynamic calculator cache is a buffer in memory that Essbase uses to store all of the blocks needed for a calculation of a Dynamic Calc member in a dense dimension (for example, for a query).

Incorrect answer:

F: Storing the information is no advantage in this scenario.


Question 8:

Identify the two true statements with regard to Versions and Scenarios.

A. Versions control data entry based on time periods set by the administrator.

B. There is only one version of one Scenario.

C. Versions allow several “what-if” Scenarios.

D. Users must have the same security settings in the Version dimension as they have in the Scenario dimension.

E. Versions can be top-down or bottom-up.

Correct Answer: CD

C: You use the Scenario and Version dimensions to create individual plans to be reviewed and approved. Each scenario/version combination contains its own set of data for the accounts and other dimensions of each entity. After users complete data entry for an entity for a specific scenario and version, they can submit or promote the data for the entity to another user for review and approval. The intersection of entity, scenario, and version is referred to as a planning unit. Planning tracks the status of each planning unit as it moves through the review process.

D. Seems likely.


Question 9:

Identify two times when a security refresh needs to be performed.

A. Member access has been assigned to a group.

B. Member access has been assigned to a user.

C. New group is created.

D. A new Member “East” has OnDESCENDANTSCREAD.access assigned.

E. New business rule is created.

Correct Answer: AB

After you establish or update user and group security, the Planning application needs to be refreshed to complete the update to Analytic Services security filters.

Incorrect:

D: This option is poorly worded. We here assume that the security of the member has not changed. C, E: no security has changed.

Reference: HYPERION SYSTEM 9 PLANNING, RELEASE 9 . 2 . 0 . 3 About Security in Planning


Question 10:

Identify two ways that Essbase data load rules cannot manipulate source data files.

A. Select or reject records based on certain criteria.

B. Flip the sign for records with a certain member tagged with a comment.

C. Split or join columns in a source.

D. Find and replace manipulations on source records.

E. Map data based on an external table.

Correct Answer: CE

C: Columns cannot be split or joined at runtime in the source.

E: An external table cannot be used to map data.

Note: A data Load Rules file is the second type of rules file involved in the data load process.

A data source for data load must contain :

not only the values that you want to load but also the identification of the location to which Essbase should load the values:

a data address that includes one member from every standard dimension in your outline.


Question 11:

What four prebuilt actions are available In EAS Business Rules?

A. Aggregate

B. Copy Data

C. Clear Block

D. Clear Data

E. Create Block

F. Allocate

Correct Answer: ABDE

You can choose from four possible actions to include in a graphical business rule:

Aggregate Data, Copy Data, Clear Data, and Create Blocks.

Note:

*Aggregate Data –Use to calculate your database by specifying which dimensions to calculate and what calculation options you want to use during the aggregation.

*Copy Data–Use to copy data from one part of your database to another. You select the source data to copy and then specify the target or destination value.

*Clear Data–Use to define a subset of data that will be cleared from the database before a new value is added. You can choose either to clear cells or to clear blocks of data.

*Create Blocks–Use to specify a data slice to ensure that blocks are created for all sparse member combinations in that slice.

Reference: Hyperion Business Rules, Administrative Guide, About Adding Actions to Graphical Business Rules


Question 12:

What are the correct predefined types of base time periods that can be established when creating the calendar in a planning application?

A. Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly, Custom

B. Monthly, Quarterly, Custom

C. Monthly, Quarterly, Weekly

D. Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly, Yearly, Custom

E. Only Custom periods are possible.

Correct Answer: B

To set up the calendar:

1. In the Classic Application Wizard, click Calendar.

2 Select a Base Period option to set how calendars roll up:

*12 Months: Four quarters per year; months roll up into parent quarters and quarters into years.

*Quarters: Quarters roll up into years.

* Custom: A custom time period, such as weeks or days. Etc.

Note: The calendar establishes the application\’s base time periods, starting fiscal year and month, and total number of years. Select the base time period and monthly distribution pattern based on the number of fiscal weeks in a month. The base time period options are the bottom-level time periods in the application. You can create a custom bases time period, such as weeks or days. Use monthly distribution patterns to determine how data entered into a summary time period is distributed or spread among the base time period you select. During data entry, users can enter data into summary time periods, such as years or quarters. Planning distributes these values over the base time periods that constitute the summary time period.

Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition, Setting up the Calendar


Question 13:

Identify the three characteristics of the Scenarios dimension.

A. Security can be assigned to members of the Scenario dimension.

B. It allows the administrator to assign valid periods for data entry

C. It allows bottoms-up or target planning

D. Exchange rate tables are tied to the Scenario dimension.

E. One member in the scenario dimension may be valid for Plan Type.

Correct Answer: ABD

A: Specify access rights to members of the Scenario dimension for groups or users.

Access rights determine users or groups can view or modify data. A user or group can have only one of these access rights: Read, Write, or None. Access rights for a user can be combined based on the groups to which the user belongs.

B: When creating a scenario For Start Yr., Start Period, End Yr., and End Period is used to select the time period to associate with the system.

D: The Scenario dimension has an Exchange Table property with a value of the name of an exchange rate table defined in the application.

Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition


Question 14:

Which three components can be changed after the creation of the Planning application?

A. Number of years

B. Names of plan types

C. Number of plan types

D. Initialization of WFP or CapEx Planning modules

E. Weekly distribution spread

F. Year Dimension Name

G. Default Currency

Correct Answer: ADF

Note: WFP?Workforce planning. Oracle Hyperion Capital Expense Planning (CAPEX) software is a specialized planning module that automates the planning of capital assets and capital asset-related expenses, such as depreciation, maintenance, and insurance.


Question 15:

You need to create a highly formatted, printable Income statement for each store in your company.

Each report should be emailed to the store manager at the close of each week (each store has a different store manager). What is the best way to deliver this solution?

A. With Financial Reporting, create a book for each store that contains a PandL for each store and use the book to distribute the reports to store managers via email.

B. With Financial Reporting, create a store PandL and use batch bursting to distribute the report to store managers via email.

C. With Web Analysis, create an income statement that store managers can log in and access.

D. Within Smart View Report Designer, use the Cascade feature to generate and distribute each store income statement via email.

E. Create a Planning PandL Data form and use email notifications to send to store managers.

Correct Answer: D

In addition to other capabilities, the Report Designer provides a cascaded output of reports in Excel. This will enable end users to create a report in Excel and cascade it to separate sheets based on members of a dimension not included as part of the report.


 

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New Updated 1Z0-404 Exam Dumps Free Exam Questions 

Question 1:

Where are passwords and licensing information stored?

A. Non-Volatile Random Access Memory (NVRAM)

B. Content Addressable Memory (CAM)

C. RAMmemory

D. Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDRAM)

E. Boot Flash

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

View the Exhibit.

1Z0-404 Exam Dumps Free Exam Questions 2

Which statement is true about this output of the show health command?

A. The two nodes have different health scores.

B. The training1 peer is the standby node.

C. The switchover bird force command was executed to do a manual failover.

D. The training6 peer is the active node.

E. The training6 peer will wait 1050 ms before considering the training1 peer out of service.

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

CORRECT TEXT

Which statement is true about the Host In Path (HIP) feature In the Session Border Controller?

A.

Correct Answer: A

Answer: By default, the session Border Controller\’s FTP, ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services cannot be accessed via the management interfaces. Answer: To enable these services (FTP ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services), the enable host-in-path command must be executed from the superuser mode. Answer: To enable these services, the Session Border Controller includes a software license that enables administrative traffic over the media interfaces.

Answer: By default, the Session Border Controller\’s FTP, ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services cannot be accessed via media interfaces. Answer: These four fields (FTP, ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services) are collectively known as the Host Interface Priority.

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E52358_01/doc/sbc_scx620_acliconfiguration.pdf


Question 4:

You are adding peers to a Policy-Based Realm Bridging (PBRB) configuration.

Which two configuration steps, among others, are required? (Choose two.)

A. Navigate to the media-manager configuration branch and configure the realm-config configuration element.

B. Navigate to the session-router configuration branch and configure the sip-address configuration element.

C. Navigate to the session-router configuration branch and configure the local-policy configuration element.

D. Navigate to the session-router configuration branch and configure the sip-nat configuration element.

E. Navigate to the media-manager configuration branch and configure the access-control configuration element.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 5:

Which two statements describe the functions of Session Border Controllers? (Choose two.)

A. they replace typical edge routers and firewalls in order to provide a unified network border for signaling and media control

B. they are session-aware devices that enable control of end-to-end interactive communications across IP network borders

C. they are based on the Windows operating system

D. they provide routing functions for IP, TCP, and SMTPusing application parameters

E. they provide signaling proxy functions for SIP, H.323, and MGCP, which include access control, signaling constraints, and topology hiding

Correct Answer: AE


Question 6:

Which three options are valid ways to apply Header Manipulation Rules (HMRs) to your existing configuration?

A. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and configure the in- manipulation parameter.

B. Navigate to the session-agent configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.

C. Navigate to the sip-interface configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.

D. Navigate to the session-agent configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.

E. Navigate to the session-group configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

You used the no command to delete a configuration element.

Which statement is true?

A. The deletion is lost on immediate reboot.

B. The deletion is reflected when viewing the running configuration.

C. The deletion takes effect immediately in the saved configuration.

D. The deletion always requires a reboot to take effect.

E. The deletion requires auto-save enabled.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Examine the output below from the show sipd invite command:

1Z0-404 Exam Dumps Free Exam Questions 8

How many 600 Busy Everywhere messages sent by the Session Border Controller in the last 140 seconds did not originate from a downstream device?

A. 157

B. 13

C. 4

D. 161

E. 0

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which three statements are true about the bootloader? (Choose three.)

A. It decompresses the image file and loads it into the main RAM

B. It reads the imagefile

C. It is based on Linux

D. It looks at the boot parameters

E. It is a Windriver\’s VxWork product

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 10:

To ensure the proper operation of a Session Border Controller HighAvailability (HA) pair, it is critical that both of the devices can originate legitimate traffic on media interfaces independent of the network interface IP address.

How is this type of traffic accommodated?

A. by setting the pri-utility-addr, sec-utility-addr, and sec-gateway values to addresses in the same subnet as the IP address configured on the management interfaces

B. by setting the pri-utility-addr, sec-utility-addr, and sec-gateway values to addresses in the same subnet as the IP address configured on the media interfaces

C. by setting the utility address and sec-gateway values to addresses in different subnets as the IP address configured on the Wacom interfaces

D. by setting a unique address on the welcome and wancom2 interfaces via the utility address command

E. via the utility address parameters on the welcome and wancom2 interfaces

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are configuring a network interface to enable the Session Border Controller to use the interface for signaling and media.

Identify two valid configuration steps for supporting VLAN 12 (Choose two.)

A. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and set the sub-port-id parameter to 12.

B. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and set the sub-port-id parameter to 0.

C. Navigate to the phy-interface configuration element and configure the hip-id parameter.

D. Navigate to the phy-interface configuration element and configure the pri-utility-address parameter.

E. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and configure the name parameter.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

What is the first thing you must do when setting up the boot parameters of the Session Border Controller?

A. reset the system clock

B. know the superuser mode password and access the configuration mode

C. disable FTP access to the wancom0 management interface

D. obtain the boot param license

E. verify the configuration by executing the verify-config command

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

How does the Session Border Controller ensure that a pinhole is kept open for persistent communication to a SIP endpoint behind a NAT device?

A. by changing the expires= parameter to a defined value in 200 OK responses to REGISTERs

B. by changing the expires= parameter to a defined value in 200 OK responses to INVITEs

C. by issuing PINGs to the endpoint\’s NAT address

D. by sending Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests at a defined frequency

E. by sending messages at a defined frequency

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Upon issuing the done command, you get an Error 409.

Which two options explain this error? (Choose two.)

A. You are trying to create an element with a unique identifier that already exists.

B. The configuration element you are creating is corrupted.

C. The element you are trying to save does not exist.

D. There is an internal server error.

E. You are trying to create a second instance of a single-instance configuration element.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about dynamic realm bridging? (Choose two.)

A. Egressrealm can be any, depending on time-of-day, called number, and so on.

B. Dynamic realm bridging is the routing of a signaling message coming from a given ingress realm to the next hop in an egress realm.

C. Dynamic realm bridging is a one-to-one association accomplished by using SIP-NAT.

D. Ingress and egress realms are unconditionally paired.

E. Dynamic realm bridging decisions are based solely on layer 3 (IP) information.

Correct Answer: AB


 

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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?

A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.

B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.

C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIMARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.

E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.

F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values That are not referenced in the defining query of the view.

Correct Answer: DEF


Question 2:

Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?

A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.

B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.

C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.

D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.

E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.

F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.

G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.

Correct Answer: CDFG


Question 3:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL

B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL

C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL

D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL

E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?

A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.

B. They can be performed on relational tables.

C. They can be performed on views.

D. They can be performed on remote tables.

E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.

F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.

Correct Answer: ABF


Question 5:

Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?

A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.

B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.

D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.

E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.

F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 6:

Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data: Which two are true?

1Z0-071 Exam Questions Q6 Free

A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.

B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).

C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.

D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.

E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?

A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.

B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.

C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.

D. It can be used for system and object privileges.

E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.

F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.

Correct Answer: AF


Question 8:

Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.

B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.

C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.

D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.

E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.

F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.

Correct Answer: EF


Question 9:

Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?

A. A synonym can have a synonym.

B. A synonym has an object number.

C. Any user can create a public synonym.

D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.

E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

Which two queries execute successfully?

A. SELECT INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY – SYSDATE FROM DUAL;

B. SELECT SYSTIMESTAMP + INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY FROM DUAL;

C. SELECT INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY – INTERVAL \’1\’ MINUTE FROM DUAL;

D. select INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY +INTERVAL \’1\’ MONTH FROM DUAL;

E. SELECT SYSDATE “INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

Which statement is true about aggregate functions?

A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero

B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types

C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement

D. Aggregate functions can be nested into any number of levels

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about the COUNT function?

A. It can only be used for NUMBER data types.

B. COUNT (DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULLs in the INV_AMT column

C. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table including duplicate rows and rows containing NULLs in any column.

D. A SELECT statement using the COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause.

E. COUNT(inv_amt) returns the number of rows in a table including rows with NULL in the INV_AMT column.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about defining relations between tables in a relational database?

A. Foreign key columns allow null values.

B. Unique key columns allow null values

C. Primary key columns allow null values.

D. Every primary or unique key value must refer to a matching foreign key value.

E. Every foreign key value must refer to a matching primary or unique key value.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 14:

In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?

A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session

B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session

C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session

E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session

F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement is filed in the same session.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

You execute these commands:

CREATE TABLE customers (customer id INTEGER, customer name VARCHAR2 (20));

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (1`Custmoer1 `);

SAVEPOINT post insert;

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (2, \’Customer2 `);

SELECTCOUNT (*) FROM customers;

Which two, used independently, can replace so the query retums 1?

A. ROLLBACK;

B. COMMIT;

C. ROLIBACK TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

D. CONOIT TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;

E. ROLLEBACK TO post_ insert;

Correct Answer: CE


 

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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.

B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.

C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.

D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.

E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.

Correct Answer: BD

In general, all scheduler objects created by the user can be exported/imported into the PDB using a data pump. Predefined scheduler objects will not get exported and that means that any changes made to these objects by the user will have to be made once again after the database has been imported into the pluggable database.

However, this is how to import/export works currently. A job defined in a PDB will run only if a PDB is open.


Question 2:

A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?

A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.

B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.

C. Configure a large pool if not already done.

D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.

E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by the media manager.

F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.

Correct Answer: BCD

Tuning RMAN Backup Performance: Procedure Many factors can affect backup performance. Often, finding the solution to a slow backup is a process of trial and error. To get the best performance for a backup, follow the suggested steps in this section:

Step 1: Remove RATE Parameters from Configured and Allocated Channels

Step 2: If You Use Synchronous Disk I/O, Set DBWR_IO_SLAVES

Step 3: If You Fail to Allocate Shared Memory, Set LARGE_POOL_SIZE Step 4: Tune RMAN Tape Streaming Performance Bottlenecks Step 5: Query V$ Views to Identify Bottlenecks

Reference:https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmtunin.htm#BRADV172


Question 3:

For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?

A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog

B. available archived redo log files

C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete

D. backups of tablespaces

E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: About the LIST Command: The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backups and copies. For example, you can list: -Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file – Backups that have expired -Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability -Archived redo log files and disk copies

Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/ B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/crept.htm#BRADV89585


Question 4:

Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.

C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.

D. It cannot have more than one dependency.

E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE

Chains are the means by which you can implement dependency-based scheduling, in which jobs are started depending on the outcomes of one or more previous jobs. DBMS_SCHEDULER.DEFINE_CHAIN_STEP DBMS_SCHEDULER.DEFINE_CHAIN_EVENT_STEP

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse009.htm#ADMIN12


Question 5:

Because of logical corruption of data in a table, you want to recover the table from an RMAN backup to a

specified point in time.

Examine the steps to recover this table from an RMAN backup:

1. Determine which backup contains the table that needs to be recovered.

2. Issue the recover table RMAN command with an auxiliary destination defined and the point in time

specified.

3. Import the Data Pump export dump file into the auxiliary instance.

4. Create a Data Pump export dump file that contains the recovered table on a target database.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 1, 4, 3

B. 1, 2

C. 1, 4, 3, 2

D. 1, 2, 4

Correct Answer: D

Because according to oracle PDFs if you run the restore table … auxiliary impede and rename can be included. So there is no reason to make the import manually if it can be already included in step 2.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmresind.htm#BRADV689


Question 6:

Examine the command:

SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROL FILE UNTIL CANCEL;

In which two scenarios is this command required?

A. The current online redo log file is missing.

B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.

C. All the control files are missing.

D. The database backup is older than the control file backup.

E. All the data files are missing.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/answer/Recover-database-using-backup-controlfile-until-cancel


Question 7:

Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?

A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.

B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.

C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.

D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.

E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have an unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.

F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

Correct Answer: DF

There are a number of restrictions for flashback archives: The tablespaces used for a flashback archive must use local extent management and automatic segment space management. The database must use automatic undo management. Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_11g_new_enabling_fdba.htm


Question 8:

The environmental variable oracle_Base is set to /u01/app/oracle and oracle_home is set to /u01/app/ oracle/product/12.1.0/db1.

You want to check the diagnostic files created as part of the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Examine the initialization parameters set in your database.

NAME TYPE VALUE

audit_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/admin/eml2rep/dump background_dump_deststring core_dump_deststring db_create_file_deststring db_recovery_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area diagnostic_deststring

What is the location of the ADR base?

A. It is set to/u01/app/oracle/product:/12.1.0/db_1/log.

B. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/admin/en12.1.0/dump.

C. It is set to /u01/app/oracle.

D. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area.

Correct Answer: C

The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) is a directory structure that is stored outside of the database.

It is therefore available for problem diagnosis when the database is down.

The ADR root directory is known as the ADR base. Its location is set by the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter. If this parameter is omitted or left null, the database sets DIAGNOSTIC_DEST upon startup as follows:

If environment variable ORACLE_BASE is set, DIAGNOSTIC_DEST is set to the directory designated by

ORACLE_BASE.

If the environment variable ORACLE_BASE is not set, DIAGNOSTIC_DEST is set to ORACLE_HOME/log.

Reference:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/diag001.htm#ADMIN11008


Question 9:

You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB)

CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.

Examine the list of possible steps required to perform the task:

1. Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.

2. Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.

3. Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.

4. Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.

5. Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.

6. Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.

7. Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.

8. Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses.

9. Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1 as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8

B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8

Correct Answer: C

Because step 2 says that you perform an expdp with the full clause and you don’t need to create the

tablespaces when you perform the impdp. FULL=yes will export tablespace definitions. So no need for step 9.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96652/ch01.htm


Question 10:

You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:

1. Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.

2. Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.

How would you create these jobs?

A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler-raised events.

B. Create both jobs using application-raised events.

C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application-raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.

D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler-raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.

Correct Answer: C

The bulk loader would be started in response to a file watcher scheduler event and the indexes would be rebuilt in response to an application event raised by the bulk loader. Your application can raise an event to notify the Scheduler to start a job. A job started in this way is referred to as an event-based job. The job can optionally retrieve the message content of the event.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse008.htm#CHDIAJEB https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm#CIABIEJA


Question 11:

Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In

the PDB hr_pdb, the common user c##admin and the local user b_admin have only the connect privilege.

You create a common role c##role1 with the create table and select any table privileges.

You then execute the commands:

SQL> GRANTc##role1 TO##Madmin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL>CONNsys/oracle@HR_PDB as sysdba

SQL> GRANTc##role1TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;

Which two statements are true?

A. C##admin can create and select any table, and grant the c##role1 role to users only in the root container.

B. B_admin can create and select any table in both the root container and Hr_pdb.

C. c##admin can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.

D. B_admin can create and select any table only in hr_pdb.

E. The grant c##role1 to b_admin command returns an error because the container should be set to ALL.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

Examine the commands executed in the root container of your multitenant container database (CDB) that

has multiple pluggable databases (PDBs):

SQL> CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123;

SQL> CREATE ROLE c##role1 CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT CREATE VIEW TO C##roleI CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT c##role1 TO c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin;

What is the result of the revoke command?

A. It executes successfully and the c##role1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user only in the root container.

B. It fails and reports an error because the container=all clause is not used.

C. It executes successfully and the c##rocl1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user in the root database and all the PDBs.

D. It fails and reports an error because the comtainer=current clause is not used.

Correct Answer: B

SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin; REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin * ERROR at line 1: ORA – 01951: ROLE `C##ROLE1\’ not granted to `C##A_ADMIN\’ SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL; Revoke succeeded. SQL> This CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123; will create a common user event container that is not specified.


Question 13:

Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVE LOG;

Which prerequisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?

A. The password for the encryption must be set up.

B. Oracle wallet for the encryption must be set up.

C. All the tablespaces in the database must be encrypted.

D. Oracle Database Vault must be enabled.

Correct Answer: B

Configuration encryption will be used by Transparent encryption. For transparent encryption, you will need to create a wallet, and it must be open. Transparent encryption will then occur automatically after you have issued the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON or CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR TABLESPACE ON command.

CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION: You can use this command to persistently configure transparent encryption. You cannot persistently configure dual mode or password mode encryption.

SET ENCRYPTION: You can use this command to configure dual mode or password mode encryption at the RMAN session-level.

Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/backup.1111/e10642/rcmbckad.htm#CEGEJABH


Question 14:

A database is running in archive log mode. The database contains locally managed tablespaces. Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUP SET SECTION SIZE 1024M DATABASE;

Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A. The backup succeeds only if all the tablespaces are locally managed.

B. The backup succeeds only if the RMAN default device for backup is set to disk.

C. The backup fails because you cannot specify the section size for a compressed backup.

D. The backup succeeds and only the used blocks are backed up with a maximum backup piece size of 1024 MB.

Correct Answer: D

COMPRESSED enables binary compression.

RMAN compresses the data written into the backup set to reduce the overall size of the backup set. All backups that create backup sets can create compressed backup sets. Restoring compressed backup sets is no different from restoring uncompressed backup sets.

RMAN applies a binary compression algorithm as it writes data to backup sets. This compression is similar to the compression provided by many media manager vendors. When backing up to a locally attached tape device, compression provided by the media management vendor is usually preferable to the binary compression provided by BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUPSET.

Therefore, use uncompressed backup sets and turn on the compression provided by the media management vendor when backing up to locally attached tape devices. You should not use RMAN binary compression and media manager compression together. Some CPU overhead is associated with compressing backup sets. If the target database is running at or near its maximum load, then you may find the overhead unacceptable.

In most other circumstances, compressing backup sets saves enough disk space to be worth the CPU overhead. SECTION SIZE sizeSpec Specifies the size of each backup section produced during a data file backup.

By setting this parameter, RMAN can create a multisection backup. In a multisection backup, RMAN creates a backup piece that contains one file section, which is a contiguous range of blocks in a file. All sections of a multisection backup are the same size.

You can create a multisection backup for a data file, but not a data file copy. File sections enable RMAN to create multiple steps for the backup of a single large data file. RMAN channels can process each step independently and in parallel, with each channel producing one section of a multisection backup set. 

If you specify a section size that is larger than the size of the file, then RMAN does not use a multisection backup for the file. If you specify a small section size that would produce more than 256 sections, then RMAN increases the section size to a value that results in exactly 256 sections.

Depending on where you specify this parameter in the RMAN syntax, you can specify different section sizes for different files in the same backup job. Note: You cannot use SECTION SIZE with MAXPIECESIZE or with INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1.


Question 15:

In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to

20.

Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved

C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds the TBS percent used

D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved

E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

Correct Answer: BC

The threshold for activating tiering policies is based on two parameters: TBS PERCENT USED and TBS PERCENT FREE Both values can be controlled by the DBMS_ILM_ADMIN package. TBS PERCENT USED and TBS PERCENT FREE default to 85 and 25, respectively.

Hence, whenever the source tablespace\’s usage percentage goes beyond 85 percent, any tiering policy specified on its objects will be executed and objects will be moved to the target tablespace until the source tablespace becomes at least 25 percent free.

Note that it is possible to add a custom condition to tiering policies to enable the movement of data based on conditions other than how full the tablespace is. In addition, the READ ONLY option must be explicitly specified for the target tablespace.


 

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Question 1:

Identify three reasons for using a recovery catalog with Recovery Manager (RMAN). (Choose three.)

A. to store backup information of multiple databases in one place

B. to restrict the amount of space that is used by backups

C. to maintain a backup for an indefinite period of time by using the KEEP FOREVER clause

D. to store RMAN scripts that are available to any RMAN client that can connect to the target database registered in the recovery catalog

E. to automatically delete obsolete backups after a specified period of time

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)

A. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.

B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independently of the Data Pump clients.

C. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.

D. Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Utility.

E. EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14215/dp_overview.htm


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about making RMAN image copies of a database? (Choose two.)

A. They can only be written to disk.

B. They can be made only when the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

C. They can be made only when the database is in the MOUNT state.

D. They consist of all used and unused blocks in the data files.

E. They can be made only when the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Correct Answer: AD

An image copy can be written only to disk.

An image copy is the same as data file. The disadvantage of image copy backup mode is that it occupies much space and does not skip unused data blocks. References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_rman_10_image_copies.htm


Question 4:

The CATDB12C database contains an Oracle Database 12c catalog schema owned by the RC12C user. The CATDB11 database contains an Oracle Database l1g catalog schema owned by the RC11 user.

A database with DBID=1423241 is registered in the CATDB11 catalog. Both the recovery catalog databases are open.

In the CATDB12c database, you execute the commands:

1Z0-063 exam questions 4

What is the outcome of the import?

A. It fails because the target database and recovery catalog database are of different versions.

B. It succeeds and all global scripts in the RC11 catalog that have the same name as existing global scripts in the RC12C catalog are automatically renamed.

C. It succeeds but the database is not automatically registered in the RC12c catalog.

D. It fails because RMAN is not connected to the target database with DBID=1423241.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

You issue the command:

SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROL FILE TO TRACE;

Which statement is true about the command?

A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specified in the diagnostic_dest initialization parameter.

B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.

C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.

D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Examine the commands executed in CDB$ROOT of your multitenant container database (CDB) that has multiple pluggable databases (PDB):

1Z0-063 exam questions 6

Which statement is true about granting the select privilege on the DBA_users view to the c##ROLE1 role?

A. The command fails and gives an error because object privileges cannot be granted to a common user.

B. The command fails because the container is not set to current.

C. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session and query the DBA_users view in cdb$root and all the PDBs.

D. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session in cdb$root and all the PDBs, but can only query the dba_users view in cdb$root.

E. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session and query the DBA_users view only in cdb$root.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You plan to duplicate the multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that contains the pluggable database (PDB) SALES:

1Z0-063 exam questions 7

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The root and seed databases are included in the duplication.

B. Only the SALES PDB is duplicated as the non-CDB CDBDUP.

C. A backup of the SALES PDB must exist before the execution of the command.

D. An auxiliary instance must have been started with the initialization parameter ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE set to TRUE.

E. RMAN must be connected to a recovery catalog for the execution of the command.

Correct Answer: AD

D: When duplicating a whole CDB or one more PDBs:

You must create the auxiliary instance as a CDB. To do so, start the instance with the following declaration in the initialization parameter file: enable_pluggable_database=TRUE

A: To duplicate PDBs, you must create the auxiliary instance as a CDB. To do so, start the instance with

the declaration enable_pluggable_database=TRUE in the initialization parameter file. When you duplicate one or more PDBs, RMAN also duplicates the root (CDB$ROOT) and the seed database (PDB$SEED). The resulting duplicate database is a fully functional CDB that contains the root, the seed database, and the duplicated PDBs.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmdupdb.htm


Question 8:

You create a new database by using the CREATE DATABASE command in SQL *Plus, with the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause specified.

Which statement is true about the database that is created?

A. It is created as a container database (CDB) with CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and a pluggable database (PDB).

B. It is created as a non-CDB that becomes a CDB after the first PDB is plugged in.

C. It is created as a PDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.

D. It is created as a CDB with the CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED databases.

Correct Answer: D

The CREATE DATABASE command with the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause indicates that a CDB is being created. The CDB will contain a root (CDB$ROOT) and a seed (PDB$SEED).

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SQLRF/statements_5005.htm


Question 9:

Your database is running on the host OUSERVER. You back up your database regularly using RMAN and the backups are cataloged in a recovery catalog. For testing purposes, you want to replicate your database to another host, OUSERVER1, with the same directory structure. So, you copy the backups to the new host.

What must you do to make the database operational in OUSERVER1?

A. Restore the control file from the backup by using the CATALOG option, restore the data files by using the SET NEWNAME command, and recover the data files.

B. Restore the data files by using the CATALOG option and use the SET NEWNAME command to change the location.

C. Restore the control file from the backup by using the CATALOG option, and then restore and recover the data files.

D. Restore the data files from the backup by using the recovery catalog, use the SWITCH command to change the location, and recover the data files.

Correct Answer: A

Catalog any backups not recorded in the repository with the CATALOG command.

Restore the data files to their original locations. If volume names have changed, then run SET NEWNAME commands before the restore operation and perform a switch after the restore operation to update the control file with the new locations for the data files, as shown in the following example.

Note: One way to name duplicate data files is to use the SET NEWNAME command before executing the DUPLICATE command. RMAN supports the following commands, listed in order of precedence:

1. SET NEWNAME FOR DATAFILE and SET NEWNAME FOR TEMPFILE

2. SET NEWNAME FOR TABLESPACE

3. SET NEWNAME FOR THE DATABASE

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmadvre.htm


Question 10:

Examine the list of possible steps to transport a tablespace across platforms that have the same compatibility level, character sets, and endian format:

1. Make the tablespace read-only at the source database.

2. Export metadata from the source database.

3. Import metadata into the target database.

4. Transfer the dump file and data files to the target machine.

5. Convert data files by using Recovery Manager (RMAN).

6. Make the tablespace read-write at the target database.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 4, and 3

B. 2, 4, 3, and 5

C. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3, and 6

D. 1, 2, 4, 3, and 6

Correct Answer: D

Step 1 (1): To copy tablespaces from one database to another using transportable tablespace, the source tablespaces are first kept in READ-ONLY mode (to ensure data consistency). Once the tablespaces are in READ-ONLY mode, the actual datafiles belonging to the source tablespaces are copied from the source database to the target database (using any available methods like scp, sftp, rcp, etc).

Step 2 (2): Once the tablespace is kept in READ-ONLY mode, we need to generate the metadata export of the tablespaces that need to transport using the DataPump export utility.

Step 3 (4): Once the metadata export is generated on the source database for all the tablespaces that need to be transported, we need to copy the Export Dump file as well as all the datafiles belonging to the tablespaces to be transported to the target database server.

References: http://www.oraclebuffer.com/oracle/migrate-oracle-database-using-transportable-tablespace/


Question 11:

In which three situations must you use a recovery catalog? (Choose three.)

A. when you want to store RMAN global scripts that can be used across multiple databases

B. when you want to restrict the amount of space used by backups

C. when you want to perform incremental backups by using a block change tracking file

D. when you want to list data files that were in a target database at a given time by using the AT clause with the REPORT SCHEMA command

E. when you want to maintain backup metadata longer than the period specified by the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter

Correct Answer: ADE

A: Some RMAN features function only when you use a recovery catalog. For example, you can store RMAN scripts in a recovery catalog. The chief advantage of a stored script is that it is available to any RMAN client that can connect to the target database and recovery catalog. Command files are only available if the RMAN client has access to the file system on which they are stored.

A locally stored script is associated with the target database to which RMAN is connected when the script is created, and can only be executed when you are connected to this target database. A global stored script can be run against any database registered in the recovery catalog.

D: If you use a recovery catalog, then you can use the clause to specify a past time, SCN, or log sequence number, as shown in these examples of the command:

RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT TIME \’SYSDATE-14\’; # schema 14 days ago RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT SCN 1000; # schema at scn 1000 RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT SEQUENCE 100 THREAD 1; # schema at sequence 100 RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA FOR DB_UNIQUE_NAME standby1;

E: The CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME initialization parameter determines the minimum number of days that records are retained in the control file before they are candidates for being overwritten. Thus, you must ensure that you resynchronize the recovery catalog with the control file records before these records are erased.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmcatdb.htm

https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmreprt.htm#BRADV90911


Question 12:

Which three requirements should be successfully met by an Oracle Secure Backup (OSB) user so that OSB performs RMAN backup or restore requests? (Choose three.)

A. RMAN preauthorization on the host

B. OSB encryption for data in transport and on tape

C. matching the OS user identity of the Oracle instance associated with the database username

D. assigned to a class with rights to back up or restore the Oracle database

E. scheduling of the RMAN backup to occur automatically at user-defined intervals

F. assigned to a class with rights to browse all directories and catalogs

Correct Answer: ADF

A: Performing Oracle database backups using RMAN requires RMAN user preauthorization within OSB

D: The preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user must also be assigned to an Oracle Secure Backup

class possessing the following rights:

access Oracle backups (set to the owner, class, or all)

perform Oracle backups and restores

F: The preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user must be mapped to operating system privileges to

access the files to be backed up or restored. the preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user can perform

RMAN operations only on the host where it has access to files.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16926_01/doc.121/e16564/osb_rman_backup.htm#OBADM199


Question 13:

Which two statements are true about setting the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter to a nonzero value? (Choose two.)

A. The MTTR advisor is enabled only if the value is greater than the default value.

B. Automatic checkpoint tuning is enabled.

C. The value of the LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL parameter overrides the value of the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter.

D. The time is taken to recover an instance after a crash is always exactly the same as the value set for the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter.

Correct Answer: AC

The FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET initialization parameter lets you specify in seconds the expected

“mean time to recover” (MTTR), which is the expected amount of time Oracle takes to perform a crash or

instance recovery for a single instance.

To enable MTTR advisory, set the initialization parameter FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a nonzero

value. If FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET is not specified, then MTTR advisory will be OFF.

When specified, FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET is overridden by LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL.

Note: The default value is 0. The range of values is 0 to 3600 seconds.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams079.htm#REFRN10058

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A97630_01/server.920/a96533/instreco.htm


Question 14:

You execute the commands to configure settings in RMAN:

1Z0-063 exam questions 14

Then, you issue the following command to take a backup:

1Z0-063 exam questions 14-2

Which statement is true about the execution of these commands?

A. The backup terminates because the backup destination for the disk is not specified in the BACKUP command.

B. It backs up two copies of each of the data files to disk and media, and two copies of archived logs to media.

C. It backup up the data files and archived logs, making one copy of each data file and archived log on disk and media.

D. It backs up the data files and archived logs to media, making two copies of each data file and archived log.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). RMAN is connected to CDB$ROOT.

Examine the command:

RMAN> LIST FAILURE;

Which statement is true about this command?

A. It lists failures only for the CDB root database.

B. It lists failures for a PDB only when RMAN is connected to a recovery catalog.

C. It lists failures for the CDB and all the PDBs in this CDB.

D. It lists failures only if RMAN is connected to a PDB.

Correct Answer: A

In the current release, Data Recovery Advisor can only be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in

non-CDBs and the root of a multitenant container database (CDB). Data Recovery Advisor is not

supported for pluggable databases (PDBs).

Note: You can run the LIST FAILURE command to show all known failures.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmrepai.htm


 

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Question 1:

Which MySQL utility program should you use to process and sort the Slow Query Log based on query time or average query time?

A. mysqldumpslow

B. mysqldump

C. MySQL access

D. MySQL show

E. MySQL slow

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Consider: Which statement best describes the meaning of the value for the key_len column?

1Z0-888 free questions 2

A. It shows how many bytes will be used from each index row.

B. It shows the number of characters indexed in the key.

C. It shows the total size of the index row.

D. It shows how many columns in the index are examined.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A particular government\’s security policy is to have very strict data encryption and safety settings. This is done by restricting access based on their own CA authority and limiting access to particular users within a department. Which method could be used to restrict access as required?

A. using GRANT … REQUIRE X509 AND REQUIRE ISSUER `/C=…..\’ AND REQUIRE SUBJECT `/C=…..\’

B. using GRANT USAGE, X509, …….ON *.* TO user@remotehost IDENTIFIED BY `secret_password\’

C. using GRANT … REQUIRE SSL for a secure connection

D. using GRANT USAGE, SSL, …..ON *.* TO user@remotehost IDENTIFIED BY `secret_password\’

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

1Z0-888 free questions 4

What does the possible_keys column in this output denote?

A. if it is possible for you to include any indexes in your query

B. whether there are any indexes on the tables that you are querying

C. if there are any indexes that may be used to solve this query

D. whether you are using any indexes in your query

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

You have a consistent InnoDB backup created with mysqldump, the largest table is 50 GB in size.

You start to restore your backup with this command; shell> MySQL –u root –p < backup.sql

After 30 minutes, you notice that the rate of restoration seems to have slowed down. No other processes or external factors are affecting server performance.

Which is the most likely explanation for this slowdown?

A. The MySQL server has stopped inserting data to check index consistency.

B. InnoDB is doing CRC32 checks over the tablespace data as it grows.

C. The MySQL server is taking a periodical snapshot of data so it can resume the restore if it is interrupted mid-way.

D. InnoDB has filled the redo log and now must flush the pages.

E. Secondary indexes no longer fit into the buffer pool.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which two options describe how MySQL Server allocates memory? (Choose two.)

A. Each connection may have its own per-thread memory allocations.

B. Thread memory is pre-allocated up to thread_cache_size for performance.

C. Each thread allocates memory from a global pool.

D. Global memory resources are allocated at server startup.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Which three are the key advantages of standard MySQL replication? (Choose three.)

A. supports native automatic failover

B. enables automatic resync of databases when discrepancies are detected

C. provides arbitrary geographic redundancy with minimal overhead to master

D. synchronously guarantees identical slave copy

E. is easy to configure and has low-performance overhead

F. can easily add slaves for read scaling

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 8:

You are contacted by a user who does not have permission to access a database table. You determine after an investigation that this user should be permitted to have access and so you execute a GRANT statement to enable the user to access the table.

Which statement describes the activation of that access for the user?

A. The access does not take effect until the user logs out and back in.

B. The access does not take effect until the next time the server is started.

C. access is available immediately.

D. The access does not take effect until you issue the FLUSH PRIVILEGES statement.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

You have a MySQL replication setup and you intentionally stop the SQL thread on the slave.

1Z0-888 free questions 9

What are two reasons that you may stop the SQL thread on the slave while keeping the I/O thread running? (Choose two.)

A. to allow the remaining events to be processed on the slave while not receiving new events from the master

B. to allow a backup to be created under a reduced load

C. to allow for point-in-time recovery on the slave

D. to prevent schema changes from propagating to the slave before they are validated

E. to prevent any transaction from experiencing a deadlock

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

Which two methods accurately monitor the size of your total database size over time? (Choose two.)

A. monitoring the Innodb_rows_inserted status variable

B. monitoring the innodb_redo_log_size variable

C. monitoring the information_schema.TABLES table

D. monitoring data-dir size in the operating system

E. monitoring cumulative Innodb_page_size increase

F. monitoring the performance_schema_hosts_size variable

Correct Answer: CF


Question 11:

Consider the index information for the dept_emp table in the employee\’s schema:

1Z0-888 free questions 11

Which two conclusions can be made based on the output of the query? (Choose two.)

A. There are three indexes in the table.

B. There is a redundant index on the dept_no column.

C. The secondary indexes are optimized for unique key lookups.

D. The values on the emp_no column must be unique.

E. The selectivity of the dept_no column is the best of the indexed columns.

F. There is a redundant index on the emp_no column.

Correct Answer: CF


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about InnoDB auto-increment locking? (Choose two.)

A. InnoDB never uses table-level locks.

B. InnoDB always protects auto-increment updates with a table-level lock

C. InnoDB does not use locks to enforce auto-increment uniqueness.

D. The auto-increment lock can be a table-level lock.

E. Some settings for innodb_autoinc_lock_mode can help reduce locking.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 13:

You want to create a temporary table named OLD_INVENTORY in the OLD_INVENTORY database on the master server. This table is not to be replicated on the slave server.

Which two changes would ensure that the temporary table does not propagate to the slave? (Choose two.)

A. Set binlog_format=MIXED with the –replicate-ignore-temp-table option.

B. Use the –replicate-do-db, –replicate-do-table, or –replicate-wild-do-table option with the value equal to OLD_INVENTORY.

C. Change the binlog_format option to ROW and restart myself before you create the OLD_INVENTORY table.

D. Stop SQL_THREAD on the slave until you have finished using the OLD_INVENTORY temporary table.

E. Use the –replicate-ignore-table option with the value equal to OLD_INVENTORY.OLD_INVENTORY and restart me before creating the temporary table.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 14:

Which three allocate memory per thread in MySQL? (Choose three.)

A. query cache

B. thread cache

C. read buffer

D. internal temporary table

E. sort buffer

F. InnoDB buffer pool instance

Correct Answer: CEF

Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.6/en/memory-use.html


Question 15:

Suppose you are adding rows to a MyISAM table and the –data-dir location runs out of disk space. What will happen when this occurs?

A. The server will crash.

B. The server suspends that INSERT operation until space becomes available.

C. An error message will be returned to the client. Server Error: ER_IO

D. The server suspends operations for all storage engines until space becomes available.

Correct Answer: B


 

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