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You want to display the value of the currency as $100.00. Which code inserted on line 1 will accomplish this?
A. NumberFormat formatter = NumberFormat.getInstance(locale).getCurrency();
B. NumberFormat formatter = NumberFormat.get currency(locale);
C. NumberFormat formatter = NumberFormat.getInstance(locale);
D. NumberFormat formatter = NumberFormat.getCurrencyInstance(locale);
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://zetcode.com/java/numberformat/
Question 3:
Given:
What is the result?
A. WorkingUnknown
B. Unknown
C. TuesdayUnknown
D. The compilation fails.
E. Tuesday
F. Working
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
Given:
Which two method implementations are correct when inserted independently in line 1? (Choose two.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: AE
Question 5:
Given:
executed with this command: java Main one two three What is the result?
A. 0). one
B. 0). one1). two2). three
C. The compilation fails.
D. It creates an infinite loop printing:0). one1). two1). two…
E. A java. lang.NullPointerException is thrown.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
Given the Customer table structure:
1.ID Number Primary Key
2.NAME Text Nullable Given code fragment:
Which statement inserted on line 14 sets the NAME column to a NULL value?
A. Stmt.setNull(2, java,sql. Types, VARCHAR);
B. Stmt.setNull(2 string, class);
C. Stmt.setNull(2, null);
D. Stmt.setNull(2, java.lang, string);
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
Given: What is the result?
A. 3 5 3 3
B. 3 3 3 3
C. 3 5 3 5
D. 5 5 3 3
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
Why does this compilation fail?
A. The method Y. print (object) does not call the method super.print (object)
B. The method x. print (object) is not accessible to Y.
C. In method x. print (Collection), system. Out:: prints is an invalid Java identifier.
D. The method print (object) and the method print (object…) are duplicates of each other.
E. The method Y. print (object…) cannot override the final method x.print (object….).
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Given the code fragment:
What is the result?
A. 1
B. The compilation fails at line
C. 10
D. The compilation fails at line 16.
E. The compilation fails at line 13.
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Given:
What is the type of x?
A. char
B. List
C. String
D. List
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
Given the code fragment:
What is the result?
A. An ArrayIndexOutofBoundsException is thrown at runtime.
B. The compilation fails.
C. gh ij kl
D. gj hk il
E. ghi jkl
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
Given: What is the result?
A. NullPointerException is thrown at line 4.
B. NullPointerException is thrown at line 10.
C. A compilation error occurs.
D. Hello
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
Given:
What is the result?
A. watermelonorangelemongrapeapricotapple
B. nothing
C. appleapricotgrapelemonorangewatermelon
D. appleorangegrapelemonapricotwatermelon
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
Given:
What is the result?
A. null
B. nothing
C. It fails to compile.
D. java. lang.IllegalAccessException is thrown.
E. Student
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
Given:
Which two codes, independently, can be inserted in line to 1 compile?
A. Abacus aba = (int m, int n) -> { m * n };
B. Abacus aba = (int e, int f) -> { return e * f; };
C. Abacus aba = (a, b) -> a * b;
D. Abacus aba = v, w -> x * y;
E. Abacus aba = (int i, j) -> ( return i * j; };
Correct Answer: CE
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You encountered an insufficient privilege error in the middle of a long transaction.
The database administrator is informed and immediately grants the required privilege:
GRANT UPDATE ON world.city TO `user1\’;
How can you proceed with your transaction with the least interruption?
A. Roll back the transaction and start the transaction again in the same session.
B. Re-execute the failed statement in your transaction.
C. Change the default database and re-execute the failed statement in your transaction.
D. Close the connection, reconnect and start the transaction again.
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
Examine these statements, which execute successfully:
CREATE ROLE r_world_rd;
GRANT SELECT ON world.* TO r_world_rd;
CREATE USER john IDENTIFIED BY `P@ssw0rd\’;
GRANT r_world_rd TO john;
Examine these statements issued by user John:
What is the reason for the error?
A. The statement was blocked by MySQL Firewall.
B. John has not activated the role.
C. John needs to reconnect to the database.
D. The DBA needs to execute FLUSH PRIVILEGES.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Binary log events for the `mydb1\’ schema must be copied to a different schema name `mydb2\’. Which command will do this?
A. mysqlbinlog –rewrite-db=\’mydb1->mydb2\’ | MySQL
B. mysqlbinlog –datebase=mydb1 –database=mydb2 | MySQL
C. mysqlbinlog –rewrite-db=\’mydb1\’ –rewrite-db=\’mydb2\’ | MySQL
D. mysqlbinlog –read-from-remote-server –raw | sed `s/mydb1/mydb2/g\’ | MySQL
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Examine this MySQL Shell command: dba.rebootClusterFromCompleteOutage()
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It reconfigures InnoDB Cluster if the cluster was stopped.
B. It performs InnoDB Cluster instances rolling restart.
C. It only starts all InnoDB Cluster instances.
D. It is not mandatory that all instances are running and reachable before running the command.
E. It stops and restarts all InnoDB Cluster instances and initializes the metadata.
F. It only stops and restarts all InnoDB Cluster instances.
G. It picks the minimum number of instances necessary to rebuild the quorum and reconfigures InnoDB Cluster.
Correct Answer: BD
Question 15:
Which two statements are true about MySQL server multi-source replication? (Choose two.)
A. It is not compatible with auto-positioning.
B. It needs to be re-instanced after a crash to maintain consistency.
C. It uses only time-based replication conflict resolution.
D. It relies on relay_log_recovery for resilient operations.
E. It does not attempt to detect or resolve replication conflicts.
F. It must use GTID replication.
Correct Answer: CF
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Question 1:
Which statement is true about primitive variables?
A. They can be compared with the == operator.
B. They can be compared with the equals method only.
C. They cannot be compared.
D. They can be compared with the compareTo method only.
Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to compile?
A. new int num[];
B. int[] num;
C. int[10] num;
D. int num[10];
Correct Answer: B
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Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI: SS? (Choose two.)
A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional seconds
B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table
C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone
D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR
E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the database server
F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE
Correct Answer: CF
Question 4:
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?
A. in the undo tablespace
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace
C. in the SGA
D. in the PGA
E. in the temporary tablespace
Correct Answer: E
Oracle database 12c Release 1 (12.1) introduced the concept of temporary undo, allowing the undo segments for global temporary tables to be stored in the temporary tablespace. This allows global temporary tables to be used in physical standby databases and read-only databases, as well as removing the need to create a redo.
16.7 Managing Temporary Undo By default, undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and are logged in the redo, which is the same way undo is managed for persistent tables.
However, you can use the TEMP_UNDO_ENABLED initialization parameter to separate undo for temporary tables from undo for persistent tables. When this parameter is set to TRUE, the undo for temporary tables is called temporary undo.
16.7.1 About Managing Temporary Undo records are stored in the database\’s temporary tablespaces and thus are not logged in the redo log. When temporary undo is enabled, some of the segments used by the temporary tablespaces store the temporary undo, and these segments are called temporary undo segments.
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:
1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions
2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid
Which data type should you use?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE
D. TIMESTAMP
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE
Correct Answer: B
Since the third requirement for banking application is
\’Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid\’
So, Data Type \’INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND\’ must be used to calculate the duration in a number of days.
Question 6:
In the file of a single instance database, LOCAL_LISTENER is set to LISTENER_1.
The TNSNAMES.ORA file in $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin in the database home contains:
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic service registration cannot be used for this database instance
B. The LREG process registers services dynamically with the LISTENER_1 listener
C. LISTENER_1 must also be defined in the LISTENER.ORA file to enable dynamic service registration
D. There are two listeners named LISTENER and LISTENER_1 running simultaneously using port 1521 on the same host as the database instances
E. The definition for LISTENER_1 requires a CONNECT_DATA section to enable dynamic service registration
Correct Answer: B
The listener forwards client requests to supported services. These services are dynamically registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration. The registration is performed by the Listener Registration (LREG) process. Dynamic service registration does not require any manual configuration in the listener.ora file.
Which three statements are true concerning logical and physical database structures? (Choose three.)
A. All tablespaces may have one or more data files
B. The extent of a segment must always reside in the same data file
C. A small file tablespace might be bigger than a big file tablespace
D. A segment can span multiple data files in some tablespaces
E. A segment\’s blocks can be of different sizes
F. A segment might have only one extent
G. Segments can span multiple tablespaces
Correct Answer: CDF
Question 8:
Which two statements are true regarding a SAVEPOINT? (Choose two.)
A. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a CREATE INDEX statement
B. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a TRUNCATE statement
C. Only one SAVEPOINT may be issued in a transaction
D. A SAVEPOINT does not issue a COMMIT
E. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a DELETE statement
Correct Answer: DE
Question 9:
Which three functions are performed by dispatchers in a shared server configuration? (Choose three.)
A. writing inbound requests to the common request queue from all shared server connections
B. checking for outbound shared server responses on the common outbound response queue
C. receiving inbound requests from processes using shared server connections
D. sending each connection input request to the appropriate shared server input queue
E. broadcasting shared server session responses back to requesters on all connections
F. sending shared server session responses back to requesters on the appropriate connection
Correct Answer: ACF
Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/manproc001.htm#ADMIN11168 An ***idle shared server process picks up*** the virtual circuit from the common queue
Question 10:
Which two statements are true about the SET VERIFY ON command? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used only in SQL*Plus
B. It displays values for variables used only in the WHERE clause of a query
C. It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus
D. It displays values for variables created by the DEFINE command
E. It displays values for variables prefixed with and
Correct Answer: CD
Question 11:
Which three statements are true about a self to join? (Choose three.)
A. The ON clause must be used
B. The query must use two different aliases for the table
C. It must be an equijoin
D. It must be an inner join
E. The ON clause can be used
F. It can be an outer join
Correct Answer: BEF
Question 12:
You want to write a query that prompts for two column names and the WHERE condition each time it is executed in a session but only prompts for the table name the first time it is executed.
The variables used in your query are never undefined in your session.
Which query can be used?
A. SELECT andandcol1, andandcol2 FROM andtable WHERE andandcondition = andandcond;
B. SELECT andcol1, andcol2 FROM andandtable WHERE andcondition;
C. SELECT andcol1, andcol2 FROM “andtable” WHERE andcondition;
D. SELECT `andandcol1\’, `andandcol2\’ FROM andtable WHERE `andandcondition\’ = `andcond\’;
E. SELECT andandcol1, andandcol2 FROM andtable WHERE andandcondition;
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table: You want to display details of all customers who reside in cities starting with the letter D followed by at least two characters.
Which query can be used?
A. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE `D_%\’;
B. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = `%D_\’;
C. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE `D_\’;
D. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = `D_%\’;
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
Examine this command:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. DML may be performed on tables with one or more extents in this data file during the execution of this command.
B. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered READ ONLY before executing the command.
C. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered OFFLINE before executing the command.
D. If Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is used, then the file is renamed but moved to DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.
E. The file is renamed and stored in the same location
Correct Answer: AE
Queries and DML and DDL operations can be performed while the data file is being moved, for example, 1-SELECT statements against tables and partitions 2-Creation of tables and indexes 3- Rebuilding of indexes Other notes: 1- If objects are compressed while the data file is moved, the compression remains the same. 2- You do not have to shut down the database or take the data file offline while you move a data file to
another location, disk, or storage system.
3- You can omit the TO clause only when an Oracle-managed file is used. In this case, the
DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST initialization parameter should be set to indicate the new location.
4-If the REUSE option is specified, the existing file is overwritten.
note: The REUSE keyword indicates the new file should be created even if it already exists.
5-If the KEEP clause is specified, the old file will be kept after the move operation. The KEEP clause is not
allowed if the source file is an Oracle-managed file.
Question 15:
Which three statements are true about dropping and unused columns in an Oracle database? (Choose three.)
A. A primary key column referenced by another column as a foreign key can be dropped if using the CASCADE option.
B. An UNUSED column\’s space is reclaimed automatically when the block containing that column is next queried.
C. An UNUSED column\’s space is reclaimed automatically when the row containing that column is next queried.
D. Partition key columns cannot be dropped.
E. A DROP COLUMN command can be rolled back
F. A column that is set to UNUSED still counts towards the limit of 1000 columns per table
Correct Answer: ADF
Answer A is RIGHT: Orders is the Parent table with PRIMARY KEY ord_no, Order_items is the child table which ord_no is REFERENCE KEY that references ord_no of the Parent table, now drop PRIMARY KEY on Orders by command: ALTER TABLE orders DROP COLUMN ORD_NO CASCADE CONSTRAINTS;
Answer D is RIGHT: ORA-12984: cannot drop partitioning column Answer F is RIGHT: Unused Columns Count against 1000-column Table Limit Causing ORA-01792 on Compressed Table (Doc ID 2259600.1) and “ORA-01792: Maximum Number Of Columns In A Table Or View Is 1000” AND HIDDEN_COLUMN name is recreated with date and timestamp (Doc ID 2624150.1)
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Question 1:
What are the two benefits of having the Essbase cube embedded in the General Ledger Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. Posting performance is much faster
B. Integrating with third-party systems is easier because the Essbase cube provides a chart of accounts mapping rules
C. General ledger balances are multidimensional, allowing you to perform robust reporting and analysis
D. You can access real-time results for reporting and analysis because every time a transaction is posted in General Ledger, multidimensional balances are also updated simultaneously
E. You no longer need to create and maintain hierarchies because the Essbase cubes are created when you create your chart of accounts
Correct Answer: CD
Question 2:
Your customer uses Financials Cloud, Projects, Inventory, and Procurement.
Which two statements are true regarding intercompany accounting for these products? (Choose two.)
A. Each product has its own Intercompany Accounting feature that needs to be set up separately
B. Within Financials Cloud, Intercompany Balancing Rules are used to balance both cross-ledger intercompany transactions and single-ledger Intercompany journals
C. Intercompany Balancing Rules are defined centrally and applied across Financials and Project Portfolio Management
D. They need to license a separate stand-alone Intercompany product that acts as the Intercompany Accounting Hub
Correct Answer: BC
Question 3:
If you want to achieve multi-step cascading allocations, which feature do you use?
Which two statements are true regarding the Intercompany Reconciliation Report? (Choose two.)
A. You can only drill down to the general ledger journal and then from there to the sub ledger journal entry.
B. This report can be run using an additional currency and conversion rate that converts all amounts into a common currency for comparison.
C. This report displays only the reconciled transactions. You need to further process automatic reconciliation to reconcile the unreconciled transactions.
D. This report includes Ledger balancing lines generated when the primary balancing segment value (BSV) is in balance, but either the second or third BSVs are not.
E. This report displays the intercompany receivables and intercompany payables balances in summary for a period.
In which two ways can your users customize the Springboards and Work Areas to suit their individual working styles? (Choose two.)
A. Users have very little control over their Springboards and Work Areas; they can only resize columns
B. They can use Personalization to move and remove regions from those pages
C. They can have the System Administration customize pages for them using Page Composer
D. They can format each table by hiding and showing columns, moving columns, and resizing columns
Correct Answer: BD
Question 6:
You are reconciling your sub-ledger balances and you need a report that includes beginning and ending account balances and all transactions that constitute the account\’s activities.
What type of report will provide this type of information?
A. Account Analysis Reports
B. Aging Reports
C. an online Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) report creating ad hoc queries on transactions and balances
D. Journals Reports
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
You want to be notified of anomalies in certain account balances in real-time. What is the most efficient way to do this?
A. Create an Account Group using Account Monitor
B. Use Account Inspector
C. Open a Smart View file saved on your desktop
D. Perform an account analysis online
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
While creating a Journal Entry Rule Set, you are not able to use an Account Rule recently created. Which two options explain that? (Choose two.)
A. The Account Rule\’s conditions are not defined
B. The Account Rule\’s chart of accounts has no account values assigned
C. The Account Rule is defined with a different chart of accounts from the Journal Entry Rule Set
D. The Account Rule is using sources assigned to different event classes from that of the associated Journal Entry Rule Set
Correct Answer: CD
Question 9:
Your customer is planning to have three balancing segments for generating balance sheets and income statements at the cost center segment and program segment levels.
D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D
Which two recommendations would you give your customer? (Choose two.)
A. Additional intercompany rules will need to be defined for the two additional balancing segments
B. Every journal where debits do not equal credits across the three balancing segments will result in the system generating extra journal lines to balance the entry
C. Additional intercompany balancing and clearing options will need to be defined
D. When entering journals manually, the customer will need to make sure that debits and credits are equal across all balancing segments because the system will not automatically balance the journal
Your customer is implementing budgetary control with encumbrance accounting. Your customer has businesses in Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore with a ledger in each country with a Corporate chart of account instances that has four segments. Which three statements are true regarding the creation of a controlled budget? (Choose three.)
A. The control budget structure has all the chart of account segments as budget segments
B. Control budgets are always absolute to generate encumbrance accounting
C. A control budget is associated with a ledger and creates three control budgets for Australia, New Zealand, and Singapore
D. A control budget can allow overriding rules only if the control level is absolute
E. A control budget can be associated with a different calendar than an accounting calendar
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 12:
Which two statements are true regarding the Balances Cubes in General Ledger? (Choose two.)
A. They are updated automatically when the General Ledger period is opened
B. New dimensions can be added to a General Ledger Balances Cube
C. They have updated automatically when the Revaluation process is run
D. A new Balances Cube is created for a unique combination of Ledger and Currency
E. They have updated automatically when the Translation process is run
Most of the accounting entries for transactions from your source system use TRANSACTION_AMOUNT as a source of the entered amount accounting attribute. For some events, you need to use TAX_AMOUNT as the source.
At what level can you override the default accounting attribute assignment?
A. Journal Entry Rule Set
B. Event Type
C. Journal Line Rule
D. JournalEntry
E. Event Class
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
You want to specify Intercompany System Options. Which three factors should you consider? (Choose three.)
A. whether to enforce an enterprise-wide currency or allow intercompany transactions in local currencies
B. whether to allow receivers to reject intercompany transactions
C. automatic or manual batch numbering and the minimum transaction amount
D. automatic or manual batch numbering and the maximum transaction amount
E. the approvers who will approve intercompany transactions
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 15:
Your new accountants have been making mistakes in reconciling accounts assigned to them. Your account balances have either spiked or dropped 30-40% every period due to human error. This causes delays in reconciliation. What feature can you use to be proactively notified of account anomalies in a more timely manner?
A. Account Monitor
B. Financial Reports with Embedded charts
C. Smart View
D. Account Inspector and its charts
Correct Answer: A
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[1Z0-1055-22 Exam Dumps] Free 1Z0-1055-22 Real Exam Questions and Answers
Question 1:
You are voiding a payment and have selected Cancel as the Invoice Action. After performing the void, you notice the invoice is not canceled but has an Invoice Cancel hold on it. What is the reason for this?
A. The invoice has been partially paid by another payment.
B. The invoice date is not in the current open period.
C. The invoice is already on hold.
D. The invoice accounting date is not in the current open period.
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
When submitting the Payables to the General Ledger Reconciliation report, the extract did not select any data. What should you check?
A. Make sure you assign an Account parameter when running the extract to include liability accounts.
B. Make sure you specified a Business Unit in the parameters when running the extract.
C. Make sure you enabled the Reconciliation flag to all of your liability natural account values.
D. Make sure you assigned a Financial Category of Accounts Payable to all your liability natural account values.
Correct Answer: D
You must assign a Financial Category of Accounts payable to all your liability natural account values. This is a required setup step for Payables to General Ledger reconciliation. References:https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel8/financialscs_gs/FAPPP/F1011880AN1B94 8.htmc
Question 3:
A company makes the payment in a currency different from the invoice and ledger currency. What setup options are required to make the cross-currency rate type the default?
A. Manage Invoice Options and Manage common options for Payables and Procurement
B. Manage Payable Options and Manage Invoice Options
C. Manage Invoice Options and Manage Procurement agents
D. Manage common options for Payables and Procurement and Manage Procurement agents
E. Manage Payment Options and Manage common options for Payables and Procurement
Correct Answer: B
You can change the conversion rate type at invoice entry or payment creation time. References:https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/financialscs_gs/FAIPP/FAIPP1470345.htm
Question 4:
There are four key reports in Cash Management.
What is the correct match for each report and its description?
Report
1. Cash to General Ledger Reconciliation Report
2. Bank Statement Report
3. Cash in Transit Report
4. Bank Statement Analysis Report Description
1. Lists all transactions for a specific bank account, that have been remitted to the bank but have not been cleared.
2. Displays the bank statements that are used to analyze balances and transaction details.
3. Displays balance and transaction information for specific bank statements.
4.
Lists bank statement transactions that are accounted in GL but are not reconciled in Cash Management.
Certain suppliers that your customer regularly deals with are exempt from tax. How would you configure tax for this?
A. Enable the relevant suppliers for Offset Tax and create an offset Tax to remove the calculated tax line from these suppliers.
B. Define a Tax Status and Rate for Exempt, define a Party Fiscal Classification of Exempt, assign it to the relevant suppliers, and write a rule to incorporate the exempt Party Fiscal Classification.
C. Create a new Tax Regime for the Exempt tax and subscribe the exempt suppliers to the tax regime on the Configuration Options tab.
D. Define a Tax Status and Rate for Exempt, define a Supplier Fiscal Classification of Exempt, assign it to therelevant suppliers, and write a rule to incorporate the exempt Supplier Fiscal Classification.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
You need to submit a 1099 report; your State format has changed slightly since last year. How should you submit your 1099s for the State in the current year?
A. Manually enter the 1099s for the State and submit.
B. Generate a 1096 form and submit it instead.
C. Run and submit your 1099s because it will automatically reflect any changes.
D. Edit the 1099 template to reflect the changes, and then run and submit the 1099 report.
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
Which three are supported image formats for the Integrated Imaging solution? (Choose three.)
A. RTF
B. JPEG
C. TIFF
D. XLS
E. PNG
Correct Answer: BCE
Question 8:
What data can you find in an Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence subject area attribute column?
A. values that are organized into parent-child relationships
B. data that is metric and can be added up or aggregated
C. information about a business object with values that are dates, Ids, or text
D. data that provides a measure of something
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
During your business trip to the UK, you took a taxi ride and paid for it by using your personal Visa credit card. While entering your expenses, you get a warning that a different conversion rate was applied to the taxi expense by Visa that the one used by your company.
How do you handle this situation?
A. Do not enter the taxi expense and call your Finance Department so that they can make changes in the conversion rate settings and you do not violate the allowable limit.
B. Call Visa to address the issue and tell them to make adjustments to their conversion rate. Then, wait to get a revised statement.
C. Overwrite the conversion rate with the one Visa provided and enter a justification that Visa used a different conversion rate.
D. Use the corporate-defined conversion rate even if it means you will not be reimbursed fully.
Correct Answer: C
Payables use five types of exchange rates. Payables use exchange rates to convert invoice and payment amounts into your ledger currency.
* User. Used to manually enter your own exchange rate during invoice entry or at payment time. If you use the User exchange rate type, if the Payables option Calculate User Exchange Rate is enabled, and if you are using the Invoices window or the open interface table, then Payables calculates the invoice exchange rate if you provide the Ledger Currency amount.
Etc. References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18727_01/doc.121/e12797/T295436T368341.htm
Question 10:
You need to enter a last-minute invoice during the closing process. What is the quickest way to enter and post the invoice to the general ledger?
A. Enter the invoice via a spreadsheet. Then, from the Manage Invoices page, query the invoice, validate it, create accounting, and then open general ledger\’s Manage Journals page and post the associated invoice journal entry.
B. Enter the invoice in the Create Invoice page, choose the Validate option, and then the Account and Post to Ledger option.
C. Enter and post a manual journal entry directly into the general ledger.
D. Enter the invoice via a spreadsheet and then validate, account, and post the invoice from the spreadsheet.
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Which three options are available to filter data when you submit the Prepare Payables to Ledger Reconciliation report? (Choose three.)
A. Ledger Set
B. Supplier
C. Balancing Segment Value
D. Business Unit
E. Natural Account
F. Legal Entity
Correct Answer: ACD
Typically General Ledger users are secured by data access sets. Data access sets use primary balancing segment values to secure access to ledgers, ledger sets, and portions of ledgers. Payable users are secured by business units.
For the Payables to General Ledger Reconciliation report:
General Ledger users can see general ledger data for the balancingsegment values in their data access set. General Ledger users can also see the Payables or Oracle Fusion Subledger Accounting data for all business units linked to the
ledger.
Payables users can see the Payables and Subledger Accounting data for business units in their security definition. Payables users can also see general ledger data for all balancing segment values in the ledger.
Rule 1: If the invoice amount is> $1000, route it to User 1.
Rule 2: If the invoice amount < $1000, auto approve it.
Now, the user creates an invoice for $1000 and routes it for approval.
What will happen?
A. Invoice will be auto-approved.
B. The workflow will fail once approval is initiated.
C. The initiate option is greyed out for the invoice.
D. Invoice will be sent to User 1 for approval.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
An installment meets all of the selection criteria of a Payment Process Request but it still did not get selected for payment processing. Identify two reasons for this.
A. The pay-through date is in a closed Payables period.
B. The pay-through date is in a future period.
C. The invoices need revalidation.
D. The invoice has not been accounted for.
E. The installment was manually removed.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation: An installment can meet the selection criteria of a payment process request, yet not get selected for payment for one or more reasons.
You can review installments that were not selected for payment, along with the reasons they were not selected, on the Not Selected tab of the Review Installments page.
The reasons are as follows:
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37017_01/doc.1115/e22897/F438410AN16238.ht m
Question 14:
You have enabled Payment Approval for your payment process requests (PPR). At what stage of the PPR is the payment approval process automatically triggered?
What is the invoice type of an unapproved, unmatched invoice that was created in the Supplier Portal?
A. Standard Invoice
B. Standard invoice request
C. Credit Memo
D. Supplier payment request
E. iSupplier Invoice
Correct Answer: B
Standard invoice request: An invoice submitted without a purchase order by a supplier through Oracle Fusion Supplier Portal that is pending review and approval by the appropriate persons within the deploying company.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37583_01/doc.1116/e22897/F431919AN100ED.ht m
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Question 1:
Your customer has three sites defined in the system, site 1, site 2, and site 3. All sites have their own billing strategy defined and Balance Forward Billing is enabled for site 1 and Site 2 at the account level. How will bills be generated?
A. Sites 1, 2, and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.
B. Sites 2 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.
C. Sites 1 and 2 activities will be included in a single bill.
D. Sites 1 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
You are not able to initiate a bankruptcy request at the customer site level on behalf of a customer. Which two conditions are failing? (Choose two.)
A. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes for the customer.
B. The Collections Administrator creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should have the Collection Manager and Customer Profile Administrator roles assigned.
C. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes in Manage Collections Preferences in the Functional Setup Manager for Advanced Collections.
D. The Collections Manager creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should be configured as a resource.
E. Bankruptcy must be applied at the customer level, which includes all transactions at the customer, account, and Site levels.
F. The customer does not have the default strategy and default collector assigned at the customer account and site level.
Correct Answer: CE
Question 3:
You have created a sales invoice for $900 USD with an item line of $750 USD and a tax rate of 20%. The customer has made a payment of $500 USD and you are required to process the cash application to apply the $500 USD to the item line and $0 USD to tax. How would you achieve this?
A. Set the credit classification revenue recognition policy to look for Line First and Tax Later.
B. Create a Memo Line or receivable activity to have the check box selected for Apply Item Line First.
C. Set Application Rule Set to Line First–Tax After at the transaction type level and/or a default value at system options.
D. Set Application Rule Set to Line First–Tax After at the transaction source level and/or a default value at the receipt method.
E. Set the payment terms revenue recognition policy to look for Line First and Tax Later.
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Which two items are required for customer invoicing? (Choose two.)
A. Lockbox
B. Customers
C. Remit-to-address
D. Customer Profile Class
Correct Answer: BC
Question 5:
Which two determinant types are used in reference data assignment? (Choose two.)
A. Business Unit
B. Account Segment
C. Project Segment
D. Project unit
Correct Answer: AD
Question 6:
When a customer opts to make a payment by a credit card, this receipt is identified as a(n) _______________.
A. miscellaneous receipt
B. quick cash receipt
C. manual receipt
D. automatic receipt
E. AutoLockbox receipt
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
Your customer has a state tax of 20% and a city tax of 10% as non-inclusive tax rates that are applicable on a transaction line. Your invoice has two lines: Line 1 with $600 USD and Line 2 with $400 USD. What will be the resulting tax and invoice amounts for your tax invoice?
A. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $16.67 USD, and an invoice total of $1,184.34 USD.
B. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $91.11 USD, and an invoice total of $1,257.78 USD.
C. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $91.11 USD, and an invoice total of $1,000 USD.
D. state tax of $200 USD for the invoice, city tax of $10 USD, and an invoice total of $1,210 USD.
E. state tax of $200 USD for the invoice, city tax of $100 USD, and an invoice total of $1,300 USD.
Correct Answer: E
Question 8:
Which two are rules applicable to the issue of refunds? (Choose two.)
A. You cannot refund more than either the original receipt amount or the remaining unapplied amount.
B. You can refund receipts that were either remitted or cleared.
C. You can issue a credit card refund to a customer who has made a cash payment.
D. You can refund receipts that are factored in.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 9:
What is the impact on transactions of changing the billing cycle for a customer or group of customers?
A. The billing cycle does not have any impact on new transactions.
B. Existing transactions with no activity retain the old billing cycle.
C. Existing transactions with activity adapt to the new billing cycle.
D. New transactions after this change inherit the new billing cycle.
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
Which role provides access to Receivables? Revenue Adjustments Real-Time OTBI Subject area?
A. Revenue Manager
B. Accounts Receivable Manager
C. Accounts Receivable Specialist
D. Billing Specialist
Correct Answer: B
Accounts receivable manager job role – the subject area is Receivables – Revenue Adjustment Real Time
Accounts receivable specialist job role – the subject area is Receivables – Adjustment Real Time
Question 11:
When reversing a receipt, if an adjustment or chargeback exists, how are the off-setting adjustments created?
A. manually, but without using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities
B. automatically, but without using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities
C. automatically by using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities
D. manually by using Chargeback Reversal activities
E. manually by using Adjustment Reversal activities
Correct Answer: C
When you reverse a receipt, if an adjustment or chargeback exists, Receivables automatically generates off-setting adjustments using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities.
Question 12:
You are creating a remittance bank account for the factored with recourse bills receivable remittance receipt method. Which bank account setup controls receipt application to short-term debt?
A. short-term debt clearing days
B. risk elimination days
C. clearing days
D. collection days
E. lead days
F. recall days
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Your Customer Upload Batch with an error and you identify the error as being due to an incorrect Payment Method. How will you correct the error?
A. by using the Customer Import Interface work area
B. by using the correct Customer Payment Method spreadsheet
C. by using the correct Customer Data spreadsheet
D. by importing the correct data by using a new spreadsheet upload
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Which three transaction types are used to generate late charges? (Choose three.)
What are the three drill-down options available in the task pane for Receipt Remittance? (Choose three.)
A. Lockbox Transmission History
B. Create Automatic Receipts
C. Correct Funds Transfer Errors
D. Create Receipt Remittance Batch
E. Manage Receipt Remittance Batches
Correct Answer: CDE
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Question 1:
A consulting services company is currently working on a business transformation project for your client, which spans multiple years. At the first period close, the consulting services company has recognized revenue and the accounting entry created is: Dr. Unbilled Receivables 40,000 Cr Revenue 40,000 At the end of the period, the client is sent an associated bill. What would be the corresponding invoice accounting entry? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Dr. Unearned Revenue 40,000Cr Accounts Receivables 40,000
B. Dr. Accounts Receivables 40,000Cr Unbilled Receivables 40,000
C. Dr. Accounts Receivables 40,000Cr Revenue 40,000
D. Dr. Unearned Revenue 40,000Cr Revenue 40,000
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
You want to export your project plan to Oracle Project Financial Management Cloud after initial scheduling is complete in Microsoft Projects. Identify three conditions that must be met for exporting milestone tasks. (Choose three.)
A. only one labor resource assignment with 100 effort
B. lowest-level tasks set up with non-zero duration
C. lowest-level tasks set up with zero duration
D. only one labor resource assignment with 0 effort
E. percent work complete values of 0 or 100 percent
Topic – Microsoft Project Prevalidation: Explained
The following table describes the Prevalidation rules for tasks and resource assignments.
Level Rule
Lowest-level One labor and multiple expense resources are allowed for a lowest-level task.
tasks Remove other resources.
Summary Only one labor resource with zero allocation is allowed for a summary task. Remove tasks and all other resources.
Milestone No subtasks are allowed under milestone tasks. Milestones must be the lowest-level tasks.
Milestone Milestone tasks must have zero duration.
tasks
Milestone Only one labor resource, with zero effort, is allowed for a milestone task. Remove all tasks and other resources.
When exporting milestone tasks, ensure that the tasks:
These are the lowest-level tasks with zero duration, that is, the same start and finish dates.
Have only one labor resource assignment with zero effort.
Have percent work complete values of 0 or 100 percent. Any other values are set to zero before export.
Question 3:
Your customer wants to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across multiple assets based on the construction-in-process cost of each asset. Identify the asset allocation method that you must use as the default method while configuring project types to meet this requirement. (Choose the best answer.)
A. Standard Unit Cost
B. Actual Unit
C. Current Cost
D. Estimated Cost
E. Spread Evenly
Correct Answer: C
Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/project-portfolio-management/19a/oapfm/project- foundation-configuration-manage-project-types.html#OAPFM220111 Topic ?Asset Cost Allocation Methods: Explained The asset cost allocation method determines how indirect or common costs incurred on a project are allocated to multiple assets.
You can specify an asset cost allocation method to enable Oracle Fusion Project Costing to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across multiple assets. Unassigned asset lines typically occur when more than one asset is assigned to an asset grouping level. Projects and project templates inherit a default asset cost allocation method from the associated project type.
You can override the default at the project level. If you use capital events to allocate costs, then you can also override the asset cost allocation method at the event level. The following table describes the available asset cost allocation methods. Method Basis of Cost Allocation
Actual Units Number of units defined for each asset Current Cost Construction-in-process (CIP) cost of each asset Estimated Cost of each asset Standard Unit Combination of the standard unit cost and the number of units Cost defined for each asset Spread Evenly Equal allocation of cost to each asset
Question 4:
Your customer wants to calculate Estimate to Complete (ETC) as the difference between Current Planned Cost and Actual Cost. In Progress Settings, which option would you use in conjunction with the ETC method to meet this requirement? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Effort
B. Cost
C. Manual Entry
D. Remaining Plan
Correct Answer: B
Reference https://ppmhelp.saas.hpe.com/en/9.42/Help/Content/UG/PjMUG/view_pj_cost_data_costtab.htm Below is an example of the Financial Summary view on the Cost tab of the Project Overview page.
Question 5:
Which five steps are required for the File-Based Data Import Integration option?
A. Run Process to transfer data to interface tables.
B. Install an Excel add-in.
C. Upload the file to the server.
D. Download an Excel template.
E. Populate the spreadsheet with data and generate a CSV file.
You have projects and tasks defined with transaction controls, which do not allow certain types of charges to the project. Your business needs to create invoices in AP with this project every period and hence would like to make the process easier by creating a distribution set.
As you create the distribution set, you notice that these distribution set lines are not validated against the project transaction controls and you are allowed to save it without any validation errors. Identify the reason why the project transaction controls are not applied. (Choose the best answer.)
A. There is no expenditure type information available on the distribution set line.
B. There is no expenditure organization information available on the distribution set line.
C. There is no expenditure item date information available on the distribution set line.
D. The account code combination is not available on the distribution set line.
Correct Answer: C
Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/project-portfolio-management/18c/oapfm/project- costing-configuration-define-project-costing-integrations. html#OAPFM174886 How can I validate distribution sets for project information? Oracle Fusion Projects performs validations on Oracle Fusion Payables distribution sets for payables invoices at the time you create the actual distribution set lines.
It validates the project and task number during invoice validation. Distribution sets are typically used on recurring transactions, and the associated project does not have transaction controls.
When you create a distribution set in Oracle Fusion Payables, the distribution set line is not validated against the project transaction controls in Oracle Fusion Projects because you do not enter an expenditure item date, which is required for transaction control validation. The expenditure item date is not provided because you use the distribution sets for an indefinite period of time.
Question 7:
Identify the attribute of a project type that determines if expenditure items are billable, and the amount type to be used as the basis for transfer pricing. (Choose the best answer.)
A. work type
B. event type
C. cost type
D. expenditure type
Correct Answer: A
Reference
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/projectcs_gs/OAPFM/OAPFM1125361.htm#OAPFM1125277 (what\’s a work type?)
In billing, you can use work types to classify work for the following purposes:
To determine the default billable status of expenditure items. To classify cross-charge amounts into cost and revenue for cross-charge transactions. Tip: To use work types to determine whether an expenditure item is billable you must set the profile option Work Type Derived for Expenditure Item to Yes.
When you create or import expenditure items, the default work type is inherited from the associated task. Tasks, in turn, inherit work type values from parent tasks and ultimately from the project. Project types determine the default work type value for projects and project templates.
Question 8:
Your client is involved in automation control systems installation. Over the years, they have analyzed their total project spend on specific resource classes. They have identified that their cost spread distribution factor on a 10-spread point
scale resembles:
0-4-10-11-14-13-10-4-0-0. Identify two ways to handle this kind of spread on their budgets and forecasts. (Choose two)
A. Create a new spread curve or edit an existing spread curve to exactly match the spread points and attach it to a project template.
B. Create a new spread curve or edit an existing spread curve to exactly match the spread points and attach it to the resource class.
C. Use the predefined Bell Curve spread with small deviations on the spread points.
D. Use the predefined S-Curve spread with small deviations on the spread points.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 9:
Your organization has been awarded a new contract based on which you are allowed to sell: Items not tracked in inventory Inventory items Services Which contract structure would fulfill your requirement of item sales? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Create two contract lines with a line type each of “free-form, project-based buy agreement” and “bundle sell, project-based”.
B. Create two contract lines with a line type each of “sell intent, free-form, project-based” and “sell intent, item, project-based”.
C. Create two contract lines with a line type each of “product, project-based, sell agreement, standalone” and “sell intent, item, project-based”.
D. Create two contract lines with a line type each of “sell intent, item, project-based\’ and “subscription, project-based, sell”.
Correct Answer: B
Question 10:
Your customer wants a project start date to cascade to the project tasks but does not want the finish date to be cascaded. Identify the default setup in a project template that can be used to enable this. (Choose the best answer.)
A. Cascade change to the start date.
B. Do not cascade date changes.
C. Cascade change to the finish date.
D. Cascade changed the start date and the finish date.
Use the Cascade option choice list to determine whether your changes to project dates cascade to tasks.
Use the Basic Information region on the Edit Project Template page to select one of the following options:
Do not cascade project date changes to tasks: Both start and finish dates are editable. However, you must ensure the following:
The project start date is not later than the earliest task date. The project finish date is not earlier than the latest task date. Cascade project start date changes to affected tasks: You can edit only the project start date. Cascade project finish date
change to affected tasks: You can edit only the project finish date. Do not cascade project date changes to tasks as the default value. You must select the cascade option each time you change the project dates, as your selection isn’t saved
for future date changes. If you select to roll up planned dates for tasks or are using an external application for scheduling, then you can’t modify the project start or finish dates.
Question 11:
Identify the precedence order in which cost rates are determined for a planning resource when deriving raw costs for rate-based planning resources. (Choose the best answer.)
A. Override rate > Job rate schedule > Resource class rate schedule > Person rate schedule
B. Person rate schedule > Job rate schedule > Resource class rate schedule > Override rate
C. Job rate schedule > Resource class rate schedule > Override rate > Person rate schedule
D. Override rate > Person rate schedule > Job rate schedule > Resource class rate schedule
E. Resource class rate schedule > Override rate > Job rate schedule > Person rate schedule
Your business user has created a purchase order (PO) that has the following attributes:
Accrue at Receipt = Yes
Matching Option = 2 way
Receipt Close Tolerance = 100%
After approval, the PO is closed for receiving without creating a receipt. An AP invoice is created by matching the PO. The user now runs Create Accounting for Receiving Transactions and then the “Import and Process Cost transactions”
ESS (Enterprise Scheduler Service) job using the Transaction Source parameter as “Oracle Payables”. The user notices that there is no cost transferred to the projects. Identify two reasons for this problem. (Choose two.)
A. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to NO, the cost is transferred to projects by receipt accounting.
B. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to YES, the cost is transferred to projects by Cost Management and not by Payables.
C. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to Yes, the cost is transferred to projects only if there are accounted receipt lines.
D. When you have an AP invoice that is matched against a PO with Accrue at Receipt set to Yes, the cost is transferred to the project by payables.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 13:
After completing setups in a source environment, your customer wants to move the setup data to a target environment. Identify the two statements related to the task list scope, which you must consider before taking a decision based on the customer’s requirement. (Choose two.)
A. Exported setup data can be filtered by specific scope values if the business object has scope enabled for the setup data export.
B. Exported setup data cannot be filtered by specific scope values if the business object has scope enabled for the setup data export.
C. A scope value is used to assign users who can perform a task within an implementation project.
D. A task list can be segmented by a scope value and a task can be performed for each qualifying value of the selected object.
As you go through the first-quarter close for your customer, you notice that the burden amounts calculated do not seem to be right. Based on the calculations, you notice that the amounts calculated are not considering the burden schedule override at a task level, which was done during the second month of the quarter. Identify the reason for this problem. (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier cannot be reprocessed.
B. Only new expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule; expenditure items processed earlier can be manually marked for reprocessing.
C. You can enable automatic reprocessing of expenditure items processed before the burden schedule change.
D. All expenditure items charged to the task use the new burden schedule.
You have been asked to set up one active person, who is not a team member in the project, as a quality manager for each quality task created under projects. However, when you try to assign the quality manager as Task Manager, you cannot find the person\’s name in the list of values. What is the reason for this problem? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The “Require Task Managers to be Project Team Members” profile option is set to No.
B. The “Require Task Managers to be Project Team Members” profile option is set to Yes.
C. The quality manager belongs to a department that is not associated with the project.
D. The quality manager is not assigned a supervisor.
Correct Answer: B
Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/project-portfolio-management/19a/fapfm/introducing- oracle-project-portfolio-management-cloud-services. html#FAPFM428138 Topic – Project Foundation Profile Options Profile Option Name – Task Managers Must Be Project Team Members Description – Specify whether task managers must be project team members. Values?No (Default) / Yes Setup Task Name – Require Task Managers to be Project Team Members
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Question 1:
A manager returned from their US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his source location of the UK Subsidiary. Which is the option a Human Resource representative should exercise to reinstate the manager\’s records in the source legal employer?
A. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.
B. Entering the return will automatically reinstate the record on the return date.
C. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfiled to capture the return date. Update this segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.
D. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignment\’s in the source legal employer is reinstated automatically on the return date.
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals under Manage Employment tasks as Auto Approve. Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for auto-approval? (Choose two.)
A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
B. Set up dynamic approval rule.
C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.
E. Select the Number of Levels as 0.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 3:
Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose three.)
A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a basic enterprise structure.
B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and reference data sets.
C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the administrator.
D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job/position structures, the administrator can review them, make any necessary changes, and then load/roll back the final configuration.
E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and departments.
Correct Answer: ABD
Question 4:
A static approval group named “Trio” comprises three members – Jacob, Susan, and Dia (in the mentioned order). For all the Manage Employment transactions, the approval should be routed to the “Trio” approval group.
When the assignment change transaction is submitted, what is the order in which these three members receive the assignment change approval notification?
A. System decides the approval route by randomly selecting approvers who are a part of the approval group.
B. First Approver -Dia, Second Approver – Susan, Third Approval -Jacob
C. All three get the notification at the same time.
D. First Approver -Jacob, Second Approver -Susan, Third Approver -Dia
E. The approval is routed alphabetically.
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
Identify three correct statements about Workforce Life Cycle. (Choose three.)
A. HR specialists can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for the workers to whom they have security access.
B. The Add Person tasks include creating a new person\’s first work relationship with the enterprise.
C. Line Managers can transfer their direct and indirect reports only.
D. HR specialists and line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for all workers.
E. Line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and assignments for all workers.
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 6:
You want to use the Tree Management feature of Functional Setup Manager to organize data into hierarchies.
Which option represents seeded tree structures?
A. organization, job, division, geographies
B. organization, position, division, geographies
C. organization, position, department, geographies
D. organization, job, department, geographies
E. organization, position, division, establishment
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
For the Change Manager transaction. the first-level approval is set to the Application Role type. The name of the application role is HR Specialist Sales. In the Change Manager approval rule configuration, the Enable Auto Claim option is deselected.
Which two actions take place when the transaction for manager change is initiated for employees? (Choose two.)
A. The transaction has to be approved by all HR Specialist Sales representatives for it to be approved.
B. If one of the HR Specialist Sales representatives rejects the transaction, others can still approve it.
C. One of the HR Specialist Sales representatives should “Claim” the transaction for it to be assigned for approval.
D. The transaction goes for approval to all the workers who inherit the HR Specialist Sales role.
E. The transaction goes into error because it was not auto-claimed.
F. The transaction will be auto-claimed and assigned randomly to anyone who has the HR Specialist Sales role.
Correct Answer: CD
Question 8:
As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of setting up geographies in the application.
Which three statements are true about defining geographies? (Choose three.)
A. You must set geography validation for the specific address style for a country.
B. You must identify the top level of geography as a Country and define a geography type.
C. You can only modify all levels of the geography structure before you load the geography hierarchy.
D. It is mandatory to define geography validation before geography hierarchy can be defined.
E. You must map geography to reporting establishments for reporting purposes.
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 9:
An ex-employee of your organization, who was employed at the USA office, resigned from her job 2 years ago. She will start her employment at the France office next month.
Which statement is correct about the Person Number and Assignment Number for this employee?
A. The employee\’s new person number will be her previous number suffixed by -1.
B. The employee continues with her old person number if the global sequence is used for the person number and the same assignment number as the France Legal Employer.
C. The employee gets a new person number and assignment number for her employment in France if the legal employer sequence is used for the person number.
D. The employee has a personal record with the enterprise so she will continue with the same person number but get a new assignment number within her new work relationship with the France Legal Employer.
Correct Answer: B
Question 10:
An organization uses the Previous Employment content type to capture relevant employment details of employees. What do you do to make this content type available in other applications?
A. Do nothing. After the content type is created, it is available for use in all applications.
B. Make sure it is a non-freeform content type.
C. Specify a Subscriber Code for the content type.
D. Make sure it is a free-form content type.
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent Worker category.
How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be configured for this company?
A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two legal employers, and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in other countries)
B. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five legal employers and PSUs (all except India)
C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs
D. four LDGs (UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, you are configuring an enterprise structure for an organization that has undergone major restructuring. The client wants you to make multiple versions of the enterprise
structure so that they can decide on a final one that suits them based on proper analysis and comparison.
What should you do to meet this requirement of the client?
A. Design the enterprise structure by using individual tasks available for each of the organizations and keep changing it until the final structure is agreed upon.
B. Create and load one enterprise structure at a time through Establish Enterprise Structure, analyze the structure and, if it does not suit the client, use the rollback option before creating another structure.
C. Configure multiple enterprise structures by using the Establish Enterprise Structure-guided flow. Analyze and compare them by using the configuration review pages, including the Technical Summary Report, before loading the final one.
D. Configure multiple enterprise structures and load all of them simultaneously so that analysis and comparison can be done.
Correct Answer: C
Question 13:
As an implementation consultant, you have defined multiple grades for each job and position. While defining employment terms or assignments, users must be able to select a grade only from the list that has been defined for the job or
position. However, all grades are available.
What is the cause of this?
A. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to Yes at the user level.
B. PER_DEFAULT_GRADE_FROM_JOB_POSITION is set to No at site level.
C. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to No at the site level.
D. GRADE_PAY_RATE_TYPE is set to No at the site level.
E. PER_ENFORCE_VALID_GRADES is set to Yes at the site level.
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal entity? (Choose three.)
A. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
B. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
C. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
D. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
E. Legal entities are not responsible for the payment of social insurance.
Correct Answer: BCD
Question 15:
Which two options can be directly mapped to the employee record during hiring? (Choose two.)
A. Job Family
B. Legal Employer
C. Payroll Statutory Unit
D. Business Unit
E. Enterprise
F. Division
G. Sub-Division
Correct Answer: BD
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Question 1:
The Oracle Autonomous Database dedicated Exadata infrastructure feature is based upon which Oracle Cloud resources?
Which statement is correct with respect to the required action to move Autonomous Database resources to a different compartment?
A. Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure instances and Autonomous Container Databases have no dependent resources that move with them. Associated (non-dependent) resources remain in their current compartments.
B. Moving an Autonomous Database instance does not include its automatic backups.
C. You do not need to have sufficient access permissions on the compartment that the resource is being moved to.
D. Moving the compartment of the Autonomous Database will also move the Autonomous Container Database and Autonomous Exadata Infrastructure.
Which set of options can be specified when defining the preferred maintenance schedule of the Exadata infrastructure for Autonomous Database Dedicated?
A. Week of the Quarter, Day of the Week, Start Hour
B. Month of the Year, Week of the Month, Day of the Week, Start Hour
C. Quarter of the Year, Month of the Quarter, Date of the Month, Start Hour
D. Month of the Quarter, Week of the Month, Day of the Week, Start Hour
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Which stage of the indexing pipeline divides the text into tokens?
A. SECTION
B. FILTER
C. Otokenizer
D. LEXER
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
Which two license types does the customer need to benefit from BYOL when leveraging on-premise Enterprise Database licenses in Oracle Autonomous Database?
A. Exadata
B. Active Data Guard
C. RAC, but only when scaling beyond 16 OCPUs
D. Transparent Data Encryption
E. Multitenant
Correct Answer: CE
Refer to https://www.oracle.com/autonomous-database/autonomous-data- warehouse/pricing/
If you run Oracle Database EnterpriseEdition and the required options listed below, then your BYOL
requirements are as follows:
For 1-16 OCPUs of a single Oracle Autonomous Data Warehouse instance:
For each supported Processor license of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options:
Multitenant, you may activate up to 2 OCPUs of the BYOL Cloud Service. For every 25 supported Named
User Plus licenses of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options: Multitenant, you may activate 1
OCPU of the BYOL Cloud Service. For 17 OCPUs or more of a single Oracle Autonomous Data
Warehouse:
For each supported Processor license of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options:
Multitenant and Real Application Clusters, you may activate up to 2 OCPUs of the BYOL Cloud Service.
For every 25 supportedNamed User Plus licenses of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition plus Options:
Multitenant and Real Application Clusters, you may activate 1 OCPU of the BYOL Cloud Service.
https://www.oracle.com/database/technologies/datawarehouse-bigdata/adb-faqs.html “Do customers need
Exadata licenses to benefit from BYOL?”
At last
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