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Question 1:
Isa Global Inc. is based in the United States with divisions in Europe and Asia. All journal imports, recurring journals, mass allocations, and manual journal entries have been posted for their European subsidiary. What is the next logical step in the period-close process?
A. opening the next period
B. closing the current period
C. revaluing foreign currency balances
D. translating to the functional currency
E. consolidating to the parent set of books
Correct Answer: C
Question 2:
Select two actions that ledger sets permit. (Choose two.)
A. performing variance inquiries
B. being used for mass budgets
C. sending budget balance inquiries
D. viewing account balances for multiple ledgers in one view
E. grouping multiple ledgers that share the same chart of accounts and calendar
Correct Answer: DE
Question 3:
Select three activities that must be performed to complete the setup of the key accounting flexfield. (Choose three.)
A. Create aliases.
B. Define a value set.
C. Define security rules.
D. Define an account structure.
E. Define valid segment values.
F. Create account combinations.
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 4:
Which two statements are true about the reporting currency in Oracle General Ledger? (Choose two.)
A. It is an integrated extension of a ledger.
B. It replaces multiple reporting currencies.
C. Reporting currencies are the same as secondary ledgers.
D. Reporting currencies cannot have the same chart of accounts, accounting method, and ledger processing options.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 5:
The company’s two senior executives have different budget figures. They want Peter, the GL accountant, to prepare two current budgets in Oracle Financials and submit budgets to both of them. What would be your response?
A. It is not possible to have more than one current budget.
B. Whether you can have multiple current budgets depends on the budget organization.
C. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the budget level if you want to have multiple current budgets.
D. The Require Budget Journal profile option must be set at the set of books level if you want to have multiple current budgets.
E. The Oracle General Ledger budget functionality supports multiple current budgets, so there is no problem in satisfying this requirement.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
Identify the four setup options that control supplier defaults. (Choose four.)
A. financial options
B. payables options
C. receiving options
D. purchasing options
E. Payables system setup
F. Trading Community Architecture (TCA)
Correct Answer: ABDE
Question 7:
Identify three ways that an invoice can be submitted for validation. (Choose three.)
A. online by clicking the Validate button in the Invoice Batches window
B. online by clicking the Validate and Account button in the Invoice Batches window
C. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Invoice Workbench
D. in batch by submitting the Payables Invoice Validation program from the Submit Request window
E. online by selecting either the Validate check box or the Validate Related Invoices check box in the Invoice Actions window
Correct Answer: ADE
Question 8:
You are working on an implementation for Accounts Payable for ABC Inc. Your client has three requirements:
1. They want to be able to pay only certain types of suppliers by batch.
2. Each payment batch must be under $100,000 USD, or the batch automatically gets canceled without user intervention.
3. Every single payment for a supplier site must be between $10 USD and $10,000 USD, or the payment is automatically not issued.
To meet the above requirements, you perform these steps:
A. Set up suppliers with pay groups for each type, and use them when running the payment batch.
B. Set up the payment batch with Maximum Outlay equal to $100,000 USD.
C. Set up the payment batch with Maximum/Minimum payments as $10 USD and $10,000 USD. Which requirements have you met?
A. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Payables list four seeded payment methods. They are check, outsourced check, electronic, and wire. Choose the correct description for the wire.
A. a paper check to print and send to a supplier
B. an EFT, EDI, or XML to the bank of a supplier
C. a funds transfer is initiated by contacting the bank and requesting a wire payment to the bank of a supplier
D. transmission of payment information to an external party, such as your bank, that prints checks on your behalf
Correct Answer: C
Question 10:
Which event reverses an accrual for an item set to accrue on the receipt?
A. paying an invoice
B. delivering goods to a final destination
C. running the Receipt Accruals – Period-end process
D. matching an invoice in Payables to a purchase order
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
Identify three setup options that are defined in the Financial Options window. (Choose three.)
A. interest
B. retainage
C. miscellaneous
D. expenses clearing
E. expense AP accrual account
Correct Answer: BCD
Question 12:
Select two actions available in Oracle General Ledger. (Choose two.)
A. deleting posted journals
B. exporting data to subsidiary ledgers
C. importing data from subsidiary ledgers
D. consolidating balances in subsidiary ledgers
E. consolidating balances from multiple ledgers
Correct Answer: CE
Question 13:
Identify the different types of data that can be processed using the GL Interface. (Choose three.)
A. rates
B. budget
C. vendors
D. statistical
E. intercompany
F. currency codes
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 14:
Choose the reason why Tina is unable to view the sub ledger entries from Oracle Payables in the Oracle General Ledger module. She has run the transfer program that completes successfully.
A. Journal Import is not submitted.
B. The Journal source is not defined.
C. The Journal category is not defined.
D. Payables is not integrated with General Ledger.
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
ABC Corporation has five companies, which operate in different industries. Each company has a different ledger-processing option that is industry specific. Choose the number of primary ledgers that are required
to be defined.
A. five
B. four
C. two
D. one
E. three
Correct Answer: A
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Question 1:
Which operation is allowed in a BMQL query?
A. SELECT, INSERT, and DELETE
B. SELECT and UPDATE
C. SELECT, INSERT, and UPDATE
D. SELECT
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
A client wants customers to be able to select a laptop category from a drop-down list in the Product Configuration section. After the laptop category is selected, all laptops within that category need to be displayed without the user having to do any more selections.
Which option meets this requirement?
A. Formula Administration
B. Util library function
C. Commerce library function
D. Auto Update
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
Which two scenarios can be automated with File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Choose two.)
A. An administrator needs to bulk update attachments on multiple Commerce Transactions
B. Every month, an administrator needs to apply changes requested by the marketing department on descriptions for parts in CPQ Cloud
C. An administrator needs to update Configuration Attribute Value Pricing on a Model and deploy the
changes
D. Every night, an administrator queries the inventory database and updates a CPQ Cloud data table with the new inventory levels
Correct Answer: BD
Question 4:
Your customer has sales organizations in two countries.
The customer wants to make sure that users from one country have access only to quotes from that country.
How do you achieve this?
A. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. For each step, define two different participant profiles: Profile A and Profile B. For each profile, select one matching group.
B. Hide Transaction Manager in CPQ and make sure that all access to quotes is performed from the CRM system where you can easily define which quotes should be visible for different users.
C. Define different steps (for example, Pending A and Pending B) for each country. The participant profile of each step allows access through user groups (either Group A or Group B depending on the step). Using transition rules, make sure that quotes for Country A are always moved to steps belonging to that country.
D. Define two groups: Country A and Country B. Define a participant profile, Sales, for each step. Define an auto-forwarding rule which returns either “Group A~company~Sales” or “Group B~company~Sales”.
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
What is the correct method to add new parts data to the CPQ Cloud database?
A. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data into a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed ZIP file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.
B. Use the “Import from Source” function in the Migration Center to connect to the remote part system and upload the part data directly to the CPQ Cloud database.
C. Perform a bulk download of at least one part to capture the part file format that the CPQ Cloud site uses, populate the new part data into the downloaded part file (.csv file), and enter “add” in the Update column for each new part, save the spreadsheet as a .csv file, put the .csv file in a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.
D. Export the part data from your current part system into a .csv file, put the .csv file into a compressed zip file, and use Bulk Upload to upload the part data to the CPQ Cloud site.
E. Use Bulk Upload to upload the data from the remote part system into a .csv file and import the file into the CPQ Cloud site.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
When implementing Subscription Ordering according to the Subscription Ordering Implementation Guide, you are asked to modify the formula for the Price (List) line level attribute.
What must you do to properly modify the formula?
A. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price files of the BOM Item Definition table with a true value of the valid price value.
B. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of zero.
C. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid entry in a specific Subscription Ordering price book with a true value of zero.
D. Add an initial condition that tests for the Action Code to be either DELETE or TERMINATE with a true value of Part Base Price.
E. Add an initial condition that tests for a valid price value in the Price field of the BOM Item Mapping table with a true value of the valid price value.
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
What standard functionality would you use to align attribute labels on a configuration screen to that they are evenly distributed vertically?
A. Add spacers in the Configuration Layout and define spacer height
B. Add read-only text area attributes in the layout with the required dimensions
C. Add HTML attributes and use
D. Use CSS
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Identify the three data types available for part custom fields. (Choose three.)
A. “String,” can be changed to “Single Select Menu”
B. “Boolean”
C. “Float,” can be changed to “Integer”
D. “Date,”, can include time
E. “Currency”
F. “Multi Select Menu”
Correct Answer: ACE
Question 9:
A customer sets up a BOM mapping for a Configuration model using a single simple Table-Based BOM Mapping Configuration rule, as well as the BOM Item Definition and BOM Item Mapping Tables. When reviewing their implementation, they notice the following: The BOM Root Items Administration List shows the root BOM item and its child BOM items correctly.
No errors are displayed. (Accessed from Admin > Products > BOM > BOM Root Items List) The BOM Mapping Administration List shows no root BOM items or child BOM items. No errors are displayed. (Accessed from the BOM Mapping rule\’s “Save and View Details” button)
Which filed have they incorrectly populated in their BOM Mapping Tables?
A. “Configurable Attribute Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table
B. “Parent BOM Map Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table
C. “Root Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table
D. “Parent Variable Name” in the BOM Item Definition Table
E. “Part Number” in the BOM Item Definition Table
F. “BOM Item Variable Name” in the BOM Item Mapping Table
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
The commerce step “Pending” has four participant profiles in the following order: SalesRep, SalesManager, Owner, and Admin.
The Admin profile allows access with the FullAccess user type.
The Owner profile has at performer steps “start” step selected.
The step has an auto-forwarding rule.
A FullAccess user with the SalesGroupA and SalesManagerA groups creates a new quote and saves it, which moves the quote to “Pending”.
The auto-forwarding rule returned the following two lines: SalesManagerA~Company~SalesManager SalesGroupA~Company~SalesRep
Which profile will be used to display the quote in the “Pending” step to this user?
A. SalesManager profile
B. SalesRep profile
C. Admin profile
D. Owner profile
Correct Answer: B
Question 11:
Using standard functionality, how do you prevent a user from manually adding or removing rows in an array set?
A. by hiding the control attribute and marking it as a forced set
B. by using CSS to hide icons
C. by hiding the control attribute
D. by selecting the “Disable user override” property on the configurable array set editor page
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
How do you modify a specific user\’s access (grant access or remove access) to Product Families, Supported Product Families, and Data Table folders?
A. For each Product Family or Data table folder affected, click the Modify tab for that item and then select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.
B. Click the Group name on the Group Administration List page that has this user as a member, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.
C. Use the Navigation Menus item on the Administration home page to grant or remove access to specific Product Families or Data Table folders for the user.
D. Go to the Product Family definition or the Data Table folder properties for which you want to grant or remove access, click the Access Permissions tab, select or deselect the checkboxes related to the users you want to grant access to or remove access from for this Product Family or Data Table folder.
E. Click the user\’s name on the User Administration List page to edit the user, click the Access Permissions tab, and select or deselect the checkboxes related to the items you want to grant access to or remove access from for this user.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Based on default values, which statement is false about automatic FTP (File Transfer Protocol) processing in CPQ Cloud?
A. You must upload the file to the automated folder on the FTP server
B. You must list files in the order in which they should be processed in the upload_list.xml file
C. FTP uploads are processed every 90 minutes
D. You can use the Bulk Data service to extract the file format and upload it via FTP automation
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
When using Web Services 1.0, consider the following sequence of a client system calling CPQ Cloud WebServices.
1. Call Security Login WebServices with User ID and Password.
2. Create a Commerce update transaction WebServices call by using an existing transaction ID.
3. Make the following updates in the web service XML:
Set Session ID Set “_shipTo_first_name” to “myName”
4. Submit the WebService call.
5. Call Security Logout WebServices with the Session ID to close the session. Based on the given sequence, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The call in step 4 will throw an error
B. The Commerce transaction should be updated with the new Ship To name
C. The session will still be open
D. Step 3 does not specify an action to execute; therefore, nothing is updated in the transaction
E. Step 5 is unnecessary. The session ID is not needed to log out
Correct Answer: CE
Question 15:
Which three discount types are available in pricing? (Choose three.)
A. percent discount
B. quantity-dependent discount
C. amount discount
D. promotion discount
E. absolute price
Correct Answer: ABC
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Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?
(Choose two.)
A. UOM information IS
B. shipping information
C. on-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. reservations information
Correct Answer: BE
Question 2:
Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose three.)
A. the ABC class is an Item attribute.
B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.
C. an ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.
D. ABC classes can be used to group Items for planning purposes.
E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your items belong.
Correct Answer: CDE
Question 3:
You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)
A. Move Order
B. Locator transfer
C. Subinventory transfer
D. WIP component Issue
E. Miscellaneous Receipt
F. WIP assembly completion
G. Interorganization transfer direct
Correct Answer: AC
Question 4:
What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.
B. The items have a non reservable material status.
C. The Inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.
D. The Inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.
E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.
Correct Answer: BE
Question 5:
Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)
A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.
B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.
C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub-inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub-inventory.
D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for non-asset (expense) sub-inventories for which quantities are tracked.
E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance levels
F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle count header level
Correct Answer: ADF
Question 6:
Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are manufactured in one operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different operating units.
All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization\’s standard cost plus a transfer charge percentage.
Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose three.)
A. Define an Intercompany Price List.
B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.
C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.
D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.
E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.
F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.
G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for all inventory organizations in each operating unit.
Correct Answer: CEF
Question 7:
Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)
A. Planning, Engineering, Costing
B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory
C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials
D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing
E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process
F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger
G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process
Correct Answer: AD
Question 8:
Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the
customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form.
Which form would provide this Information?
A. Pending Status
B. View Material Transactions
C. Find Pending Transactions
D. Transaction Open Interface
E. Inventory Accounting Period
Correct Answer: E
Question 9:
What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for Inventory Items using the Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?
A. Items cost only
B. Items with on-hand quantity only
C. Either item with the on-hand quantity or items costed
D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items cost
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots. Expired lots______.
A. Can be reserved
B. Are not allowed to do subinventory transfer
C. Are not included in Inventory valuation reports
D. Cannot be transacted and included in on-hand quantities
E. Are not included in the cycle and physical counting adjustments
F. Are not considered as an on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning
Correct Answer: F
Question 11:
ABC Company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1. Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?
A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions
B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM
C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM
D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class
E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)
A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.
B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.
C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.
D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization level.
E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations while transacting on an item.
F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 14:
Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the item. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from nonlocal sources.
Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection Required.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local source.
F. Create item transaction default for the item hi the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the Item in the Inventory Organization.
Correct Answer: EGH
Question 15:
For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing. what are the system requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)
A. the Receiving Transaction manager must be active.
B. the Cost Manager Interface manager must be active.
C. the Move Transaction interface manager must be active.
D. the Material Transaction interface manager must be active.
E. the Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be active.
Correct Answer: BD
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[Lead4Pass] Free 1Z0-518 Study Guide Real Exam Questions and Answers
Question 1:
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)
A. View asset Information across multiple asset books.
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignments.
C. Submit and view data across different Ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility.
Correct Answer: DE
Question 2:
Which two statements are true regarding the partitioning of data by an application? (Choose two.)
A. General Ledger is partitioned by Ledgers.
B. Accounts Payable is partitioned by Ledgers.
C. Fixed Assets are partitioned by Operating Unit.
D. Accounts Receivable is partitioned by Operating Unit.
E. Order Management is partitioned by Inventory Organization.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 3:
ABC Corp. has determined its Accounting Key Flexfield structure for the Implementation of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. The Accounting Key Flexfield structure contains five Segments: Company, Business Unit, Department, Account, and Product.
They have the following requirements:
1) The Department values should be based on the Business Units.
2) They want to produce a quarterly Balance Sheet for each Company.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Product Value Set is dependent on the Accounts.
B. The Business Unit Value Set is defined as Independent.
C. The Account Segment has a Value Set with no Validation.
D. The Company Segment is qualified as the Balancing Segment.
E. The Department Segment Is qualified as an Intercompany Segment.
F. Cross-validation rules are required to enforce the dependency of Departments on the Business Units.
Correct Answer: BDF
Question 4:
Identify four tasks that you can perform using Oracle Workflow in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, (choose four}
A. Automata business processes,
B. Generate account code combinations,
C. Approve standard business documents,
D. Send notifications using Advanced Queuing,
E. Generate Inventory item numbers using item generator workflow,
F. Integrate with third-party business systems that are not on a company network.
Correct Answer: ABDF
Question 5:
Identify two correct statements related to Key Performance Indicators and the KPI region in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)
A. can be of table format only
B. can be configured for each dashboard
C. organizes data into reporting hierarchies
D. is a strategic business factor that is used for reporting
E. contains a unique set of graphical information on a dashboard
Correct Answer: BD
Question 6:
The organization that Receivables uses to validate items is set up using______.
A. the AR: Items Flexfield Mode profile option
B. the AR: Allow Manual Invoice Lines profile option
C. the AR: Item Validation Organization profile option
D. item validation organization In the OM Parameters window
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Ten analysts are assigned the same Receivables responsibility and are given their own logins. The requirement is to restrict three of the analysts from creating chargebacks or adjustments.
What would be your advice to ensure compliance with this internal control?
A. Use forms personalization to restrict function access.
B. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the responsibility level.
C. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to no at the user level for the three analysts.
D. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the user level for the three analysts.
E. Set the “AR: Cash – Allow Actions” system profile to yes at the application level for the three analysts.
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the fields required at the header level?
A. date, customer, source, type, GL date, legal entity
B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to
C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to
D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) date, class
Select three statements that apply to IReceivables. (Choose three.)
A. It Is a Web-based self-service application.
B. It can be used to verify the status of Invoices and receipts.
C. It is geared towards call centers, as well as credit and collections departments.
D. It can be used to initiate the Oracle Approvals Management (AME) credit memo request workflow.
Correct Answer: ABD
Question 10:
The client entered a miscellaneous receipt by mistake; it was posted to General Ledger. Now the miscellaneous receipt needs to be reversed.
Which method would you advise the client to use?
A. Carry out a standard reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.
B. Carry out a debit memo reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.
C. Create a receivable activity adjustment for the reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.
D. Create an adjustment in receivables for the reversal of the effect of the miscellaneous receipt.
E. Create a journal entry in General Ledger to reverse the accounting impact created by the posting of the miscellaneous receipt.
Correct Answer: B
Question 11:
After registering new data sources, you must complete your Bill Presentment Architecture by creating database views.
How many database views can you create for each data source?
A. one
B. nine
C. three
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
You are setting up Receivable Accounting Events in Subledger Accounting. Identify Event Entity.
A. Invoices
B. deposits
C. guarantees
D. transactions
E. chargebacks
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
You have just opened the Transactions form. Which field would you see on this form?
A. company
B. legal entity
C. cost center
D. operating unit
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Which two statements are true about invoicing rules and accounting rules? (Choose two.)
A. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is optional.
B. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is not allowed.
C. If a transaction has an invoicing rule, an accounting rule is also required.
D. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect until Invoices are paid.
E. Invoicing rules and accounting rules have no effect unless you choose the accrual method of accounting.
F. Invoicing rules determine when invoices are due. Accounting rules affect how invoices me accounted for
Correct Answer: CE
Question 15:
Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the AutoInvoice Execution report. They needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section of the report shows the following:
A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.
B. General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross-validation rules.
C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invoice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit memo Is selected first.
D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit memo Is selected first.
E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is end-dated a day earlier.
Correct Answer: D
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Question 1:
Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)
A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.
D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.
Correct Answer: CEF
Question 2:
A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales orders with distributor key strokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)
A. Defaulting rules
B. Transaction types
C. OM: invoice source
D. Processing constraints
E. Automatic attachments rules
F. OM: invoice transaction type
G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions
Correct Answer: ABEG
Question 3:
ACME has offices in various countries, and its customers and suppliers are based around the globe.
Given that addresses are formatted differently in each country, how would you set up the system to handle this situation?
A. Set up the address as a context-sensitive key flex field.
B. Set up the address as a free format segmented value set.
C. Set up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive flex field D. Set up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)
A. Accrual is a valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.
B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.
C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.
D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using only Basic pricing.
E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.
F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.
Correct Answer: BEF
Question 5:
Which option identifies the requirements to ship and confirm a sales order line?
A. The item attribute is shippable and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
B. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Picked and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
C. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Booked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
D. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Entered, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Awaiting Shipping, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
Correct Answer: B
Question 6:
The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types.
Identify five valid item types. (Choose five)
A. Ship Only
B. Order Only
C. OM Standard
D. Order Header
E. OM Price Only
F. Return for Credit
G. OM change Order
H. OM blanket Header
Correct Answer: BCDGH
Question 7:
An order has five lines with line status of Staged/Pick Confirmed.
There is no record on the Delivery tab in the Shipping Transaction form for this order.
What could be the possible resolution?
A. Resolve the shipping exception.
B. Enable shipping privileges for the user.
C. Autocreate delivery from the Pick Release form.
D. Autocreate delivery from the Delivery Transaction form.
E. Autocreate delivery from the Shipping Transaction form.
Correct Answer: E
Question 8:
ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.
All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using Configurator, which makes it intuitive for configuring PTO models.
Which statement is true?
A. A routing needs to be defined for the PTO model.
B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.
C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.
D. After selecting all the options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured part.
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on collection data. (Choose four)
A. Define price-lists
B. Define ATP rules
C. Setup stock locators
D. Setup transit lead time
E. Set up pricing modifiers
F. Select the ATP item attribute
G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise
H. Set up Inventory Organization Hierarchy
Correct Answer: BDFG
Question 10:
Identify three correct statements about Cascading Attributes. (Choose three)
A. Enable Quick Code OM_Header_to_Line_Cascade.
B. Enable the Key Profile option OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade Header Changes to Line.
C. The Cascading Attributes feature is applicable to User Interface, but not for any API (Process Order)
D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint still allows updates to other lines.
E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the Profile OM: Sales Order Form Cascade Header change to the line.
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 11:
Allowing a negative on-hand balance is set at _________.
A. The Entity Level
B. The Subinventory Level
C. The operating Unit Level
D. The Item master inventory level
E. The Inventory organization level
Correct Answer: E
Question 12:
Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three) A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.
B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.
C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.
D. The system parameter OM Employee for self-service orders has been changed to an OM system parameter with the same name.
E. The system parameter name OM employee for self-service order in single OM system parameter which has not changed to an OM profile.
F. The profile OM employee for self-service orders is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship orders created by external users.
Correct Answer: ACF
Question 13:
Choose the correct statement that applies to LPNs.
A. LPNs are organization independent.
B. Deliveries must exist before creating LPNs.
C. No container item is required to create LPNs.
D. LPN number can be defined with a prefix, starting number, and suffix.
E. The delivery line status should be picked and released before it can be assigned to LPNs.
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Which three statements are true about the intercompany drop ship process across different operating units? (Choose three)
A. Customer\’s addresses are visible across the ledger.
B. Customer addresses are not visible across the ledger.
C. The shipping organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.
D. The procurement organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.
E. The shipping organization creates an intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.
F. The procurement organization creates an intercompany Receivables invoice for the goods
Correct Answer: ACF
Question 15:
Which statement best describes locator Control? (Choose two)
A. Cannot be changed after it is specified
B. Can be specified at the item master level
C. Can be specified at the operating unit level
D. Can be specified at the inventory organization level
Correct Answer: BD
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Question 1:
When you enter a receipt, you first use the Find Expected Receipts window to locate the source document
for the receipt.
Select four valid source documents for a receipt. (Choose four.)
A. An approved internal requisition line
B. An in-transit shipment within your inventory
C. A shipment from a supplier based on a purchase order
D. A move order from inventory for material storage relocation
E. A return from a customer based on a return material authorization (RMA)
F. A shipment from inventory backed by an internal safes order generated by an internal requisition
Correct Answer: BCEF
Question 2:
Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window?
A. Viewer: Text
B. Concurrent: Report Copies
C. Flexfields: Open Key Window
D. Concurrent Report: Access Level
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)
A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.
B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as other entities.
C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best practice to do so.
D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.
E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you cannot have it default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would default when you log in the next time.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 4:
Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.
A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link
B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link
C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation
D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
Which three financial options can default when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)
A. Ship Via
B. Default Buyer
C. RFQ-Only Site
D. Bill-To Location
E. Supplier Classification
F. Payment Bank Account
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 6:
Which window in Purchasing would you use to copy on the existing global Approved Supplier List entry and make it local to your organization?
A. Supplier Status
B. Request For Quotation
C. Supplier-Item Attribute
D. Approved Supplier List Statuses
E. Sourcing Rule/Bill of Distribution Assignments
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Which two statements are true about using foreign currency? (Choose two)
A. Requisition total is expressed in foreign currency.
B. Currency can be changed even after a requisition is approved.
C. Currency cannot be changed once a purchase order is approved.
D. A foreign currency reference can be specified for each purchase order line.
E. Requisition can automatically source blanket agreements or catalog quotations with foreign currency information.
Correct Answer: CD
Question 8:
A recent shipment of item A was routed to the inspection department according to standard practice, but
no receipt for item A is available in the system for inspection.
What might have happened?
A. Requester set the receipt routing to Direct Delivery in the requisition,
B. Receiving clerk created an express receipt instead of a standard one.
C. Buyer changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt in the purchase order line.
D. Buyer changed the routing to Direct Delivery at the supplier site level for this supplier.
E. Receiving clerk changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt at the time of receiving.
Correct Answer: E
Question 9:
Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.
A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.
B. Prepare for the period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL
C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.
D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.
E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.
Correct Answer: A
Question 10:
A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source
inventory items across different organizations.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL
B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.
C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.
D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.
E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.
Correct Answer: BE
Question 11:
An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment. Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.
B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.
C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.
D. Company X has set up Planning and would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can be set to New or Approved.
Correct Answer: CD
Question 12:
The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase
agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option
to update and create blanket purchase sourcing rules.
Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?
A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules
D. PO: Allow Auto creation of Oracle Sourcing Documents
Correct Answer: C
Question 13:
A medium-sized multinational company based in the US has two business groups (BG), BG1 (for the US) and BG2 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies H1 and H2, respectively. The company has a policy that only the Controllers and those above them can approve capital Items on requisitions and purchase orders.
However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must also be able to authorize capital purchases. The account range for capital items is 2000-2599. The relevant approval limits are:
1) Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000 2) Controller in BG1: $500,000 3) Controller in BG2: $200,000
Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)
A. An employee in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee\’s manager and forwarded to the group Controller in BG1 who approves it.
B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee\’s manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.
C. The buyer hi BG1 raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BG1 who approves it.
D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with a charge for inventory items to be stocked in an asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.
E. The shop floor supervisor in BG1 raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The supervisor\’s manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BG1 for final approval.
F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in BG2 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2 places the order on the supplier.
Correct Answer: CF
Question 14:
When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)
A. entering suppliers twice
B. issuing specific invoices
C. generating inaccurate returns
D. generating inaccurate receipts
E. generating accurate supplier reports
F. issuing more payments than necessary
G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary
Correct Answer: AFG
Question 15:
Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?
A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.
B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.
C. Manually enter RFQs and Data Load Quotations.
D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.
E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,
F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.
Correct Answer: F
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Review the boot environments displayed on your system:
Which option describes the Solaris-1 BE?
A. It is active on the next reboot.
B. It is active now.
C. It is inactive.
D. It is unbootable.
E. It is active now and on reboot.
F. It has been removed and will no longer be available after the next reboot.
Correct Answer: E
In the below output, NR (now running) means the BE is active now and will be the active BE on reboot.
Example:
Display your existing BE information.
# beadm list
BE Active Mountpoint Space Policy Created
solaris NR / 12.24G static 2011-10-04 09:42
Question 2:
View the Exhibit and review the disk configuration.
The following command is executed on the disk:
zpool create pool1 c3t3d0s0
What is the result of executing this command?
A. A zpool create error is generated.
B. A 1-GB ZFS file system named /pool1 is created.
C. A 15.97-GB storage pool named pool1 is created.
D. The disk will contain an EFI disk label.
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
View the Exhibit and review the zpool and ZFS configuration information from your system.
Identify the correct procedure for breaking the /prod_data mirror, removing c4t0d0 and c4t2d0, and making the data on c4t0d0 and c4t2d0 accessible under the dev_data mount point.
A. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0zpool import pool2zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/ prod_data
B. zpool detach pool1 pool2zpool attach pool2zfs set mountpoint=/dev_data pool2/prod_data
C. zpool split pool1/prod_data -n pool2/dev_datazfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data
D. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0zpool import pool2
Correct Answer: D
In this Solaris release, you can use the zpool split command to split a mirrored storage pool, which
detaches a disk or disks in the original mirrored pool to create another identical pool.
After the split operation, import the new pool.
Question 4:
The storage pool configuration on your server is:
You back up the /pool1/data file system, creating a snapshot and copying that snapshot to tape (/dev/ rmt/0). You perform a full backup on Sunday night and Incremental backups on Monday through Saturday night at 11:00 pm. Each incremental backup will copy only the data that has been modified since the Sunday backup was started.
On Thursday, at 10:00 am, you had a disk failure. You replaced the disk drive (c4t0d0). You created pool (pool1) on that disk.
Which option would you select to restore the data in the /pool1/data file system?
A. zfs create pool1/data load the Monday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0Load the Wednesday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0
B. Load the Sunday tape and restore the Sunday snapshot:zfs recv pooll/data < /dev/rmt/0zfs rollback pool1/data@monLoad the Wednesday tape and restore the Wednesday snapshot:zfs recv pool/ data < /dev/mt/0zfs rollback pool1/data@wed
C. zfs create pool/data load the Wednesday tape and enter:zfs recv -F pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0
D. Load the Sunday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/mt/0Load the Wednesday tape and enter:* commands missing*
Correct Answer: D
First, the full backup must be restored. This would be the Sunday backup. Then the last incremental backup
must be restored. This would be the Wednesday backup. Before restoring the Wednesday incremental file
system snapshot, the most recent snapshot must first be rolled back.
By exclusion D) would be the best answer even though it is incomplete.
Question 5:
To assist in examining and debugging running processes, Solaris 11 has a utility that returns pro arguments and the names and values of environment variables.
What is the name of this utility?
A. ppgsz
B. pargs
C. pmap D. pgrep
Correct Answer: B
The parts utility examines a target process or processes the core file and prints arguments, environment variables, and values, or the process auxiliary vector.
Question 6:
You are installing Oracle Solaris 11 on a SPARC-based system by using the Test Installer. Which three statements are true?
A. The ROOT user will always be configured as a role.
B. The root filesystem will always be deployed on ZFS.
C. The root filesystem will always be located on a local disk.
D. The network can be configured using DHCP.
E. The set of packages that will be installed is server based.
F. You must always create one regular user when installing the system.
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 7:
You are planning group names for a new system. You decide to use a numbering convention that includes the year and month the project began, to form the group number and name for work associated with that project.
So, for example, a project targeted to begin in January 2013 would have the number (name):
201301(Pr20l301)
What are the two problems with your plan?
A. Group names may not contain a numeric character
B. Group names may be no longer than 7 characters.
C. Group numbers should not be larger than 60000.
D. Group names should be all lowercase.
Correct Answer: CD
C: The Group ID (GID) field contains the group\’s numerical ID. GIDs can be assigned whole numbers between 100 and 60000.
D: Group names contain only lowercase characters and numbers.
Question 8:
You have installed software updates to a new boot environment (BE) and have activated the booting to the new BE, you notice system errors. You want to boot to the last known good configuration. Which option would you use on a SPARC system to boot to the current boot environment?
A. boot -L currentBE
B. boot -Z rpool/ROOT/currentBE
C. boot -a Enter the currentBE dataset name when prompted.
D. boot rpool/ROOT/currentBE
E. boot -m currentBE
F. beadm activate currentBE
Correct Answer: F
You can change an inactive boot environment into an active boot environment. Only one boot environment can be active at a time. The newly activated boot environment becomes the default environment upon reboot.
How to Activate an Existing Boot Environment
1. Use the following command to activate an existing, inactive boot environment:
beam activate beName
beName is a variable for the name of the boot environment to be activated.
Note the following specifications.
beam activate beName activates a boot environment by setting the bootable pool property, boots, to the
value of the ROOT dataset of the boot environment that is being activated.
beam activate sets the newly activated boot environment as the default in the menu.lst file.
2. Reboot.
The newly activated boot environment is now the default on the x86 GRUB menu or SPARC boot menu.
Question 9:
You are troubleshooting network throughput on your server.
To confirm that the load balancing among aggregated links is functioning properly, you want to examine
the traffic statistics on the links comprising the aggregation.
You suspect a problem with the OpenLDAP package and want to make sure that the files have not to be modified or otherwise tampered with.
Which command would validate all of the files contained in the openldap package and report any problems?
A. pkgchk OpenLDAP
B. pkg info OpenLDAP
C. pkg contents OpenLDAP
D. pkg verify openldap
E. pkg set-property signature-policy verify
Correct Answer: A
pkgchk checks the accuracy of installed files or, by using the -l option, displays information about package files. pkgchk checks the integrity of directory structures and files. Discrepancies are written to standard error along with a detailed explanation of the problem.
Question 11:
Which three options describe the purpose of the zonep2vchk command?
A. Used on a Solaris 10 global zone to access the system for problems before migrating that system to a Solaris 10 branded zone.
B. Used to access a Solaris 10 global zone for problems before migrating that zone to a Solaris 11 global zone
C. Used to create zonecfg template for a Solaris 10 global zone that will be migrated to a solaris10 branded zone.
D. Used to migrate an Oracle Solaris 11 global zone to a non-global zone.
E. Used to migrate a Solaris 10 global zone to a non-global zone on the same server; the non-global zone can then be migrated to a Solaris 11 server as a Solaris 10 branded zone.
Correct Answer: CDE
zonep2vchk
-check a global zone\’s configuration for physical to virtual migration into a non-global zone
The zonep2vchk utility is used to evaluate a global zone\’s configuration before the process of physical-to-virtual (p2v) migration into a non-global zone. The p2v process involves archiving a global zone (source) and then installing a non-global zone (target) using that archive Zonep2vchk serves two functions. First, it can be used to report issues on the source which might prevent a successful p2v migration. Second, it can output a template zonecfg, which can be used to assist in configuring the non-global zone target.
Zonep2vchk can be executed on a Solaris 10 or later global zone. To execute on Solaris 10, copy the zonep2vchkutility to the Solaris 10 source global zone. When running on Solaris 10, a target release of S11 can be specified, which will check for p2v into a Solaris 10 Branded zone.
Question 12:
You are going to create live zones on your server. Disk space is critical on this server so you need to reduce the amount of disk space required for these zones. Much of the data required for each of these zones is identical, so you want to eliminate the duplicate copies of data and store only data that is unique to each zone.
Which two options provide a solution for eliminating the duplicate copies of data that is common between all of these zones?
A. Create the zones by using sparse root zones.
B. Set the dedup property to on and the dedupe ratio to at least 1.5 for the pool.Create a separate ZFS file system for each zone in the zpool.
C. Put all of the zones in the same ZFS file system and set the dedupratio property for the ZFS file system to at least 1.5.
D. Put all of the zones in the same ZFS file system and set the dedup property for the file system to on.
E. Put each zone in a separate ZFS file system within the same pool. Set the dedup property to one for each ZFS file system.
Correct Answer: DE
n Oracle Solaris 11, you can use the deduplication (dedupe) property to remove redundant data from your ZFS file systems. If a file system has the dedup property enabled, duplicate data blocks are removed synchronously. The result is that only unique data is stored, and common components are shared between files.
Question 13:
The crash dump notification on your server is:
The documentation states that there should be two core files for each crash dump in the /var/crash directory named vmdump.0
Which command should you choose to display these two files?
A. save core -f vmdump.0
B. dumped uncompressed
C. gunzip vmdump.0
D. dumped -z off
Correct Answer: A
Decompress using savecore -f vmdump.0
savecore – save a crash dump of the operating system
-f dump file Attempt to save a crash dump from the specified file instead of from the system\’s current dump device. This option may be useful if the information stored on the dump device has been copied to an on-disk file by means of the dd(1M) command.
Question 14:
To confirm the IP addresses and netmasks have been correctly configured on the network interfaces, which command(s) should you use?
A. ipadm show-if
B. ipadm show-nic
C. ipadm show-addr
D. ipadm show-addripadm show-mask
E. ipadm show-ipipadm show-mask
F. ipadm show-config
Correct Answer: C
Show address information, either for the given addrobj or all the address objects configured on the specified interface, including the address objects that are only in the persistent configuration.
Example: # ipadm show-and ADDROBJ TYPE STATE ADDR lo0/v4 static ok 127.0.0.1/8
lo0/v6 static ok ::1/128
Question 15:
You have been asked to do an orderly shutdown on a process with a PID of 1234, with the kill command.
Which command is best?
A. kill -2 1234
B. kill -15 1234
C. kill -9 1234
D. kill -1 1234
Correct Answer: B
On POSIX-compliant platforms, SIGTERM is the signal sent to a process to request its termination. The symbolic constant for SIGTERM is defined in the header file signal. h. Symbolic signal names are used because signal numbers can vary across platforms, however, on the vast majority of systems, SIGTERM is signal #15.
SIGTERM is the default signal sent to a process by the kill or kill all commands. It causes the termination of a process, but unlike the SIGKILL signal, it can be caught and interpreted (or ignored) by the process. Therefore, SIGTERM is akin to asking a process to terminate nicely, allowing cleanup and closure of files.
For this reason, on many Unix systems during the shutdown, init issues SIGTERM to all processes that are not essential to powering off, waits a few seconds, and then issues SIGKILL to forcibly terminate any such processes that remain.
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Question 1:
Which modification needs to be made to the Service Management Facility before you publish a new package to the IPS repository?
A. The pkg. depot must be disabled.
B. The pkg/read-only property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to false
C. The pkg/writable_root property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to true.
D. The pkg/image_root property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to the location of the repository.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: pkg/image_root
(string) The path to the image whose file information will be used as a cache for file data.
Reference: man pkg. depot
Question 2:
You run the command distant show-link -r.
Select the two correct statements regarding the information displayed in the INTRS column.
A. No value is listed for virtual network interfaces.
B. A value of 0 is listed for virtual interfaces and ether stubs.
C. The number of Interrupts is listed, which indicates network efficiency.
D. A number equal to the number of transmitted Ethernet frames is listed for physical links.
E. The number of packets that were interrupted by a collision is listed, which may indicate hardware problems.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation: In this output, the statistics for interrupt (INTRS) are significant. Low interrupt numbers indicate greater efficiency in performance. If the interrupt numbers are high, then you might need to add more resources to the specific link.
Display receive-side statistics only. Includes bytes and packets received, hardware and software drops,
and so forth.
List of supported RX fields:
link
Tuesday
bytes
pets
intros
polls
hydrops: Hardware drops
drops: software drops (owing to bandwidth enforcement) ch<10: number of packet chains of length < 10
ch10-50: number of packet chains of length between 10 and 50 ch>50: number of packet chains of length
> 50
Reference: man distant
Question 3:
You want to deploy Oracle Solans 11 with the Automated Installer (Al). You need to make sure that your server and network meet the requirements for using Al Choose the three options that describe the requirements for using Al. (Choose three.)
A. You must set up DHCP. The DHCP server and Al install server can be the same machine or two different machines.
B. You can create only one manifest per install service. If you need more than one manifest, create multiple install services.
C. The minimum requirement to operate as an Al install server is 1 GB of memory.
D. If two client machines have different architectures and need to be installed with the same version of the Oracle Solaris 11 OS( then create two Al manifests and a single install service.
E. Load the install/installed package on the Al server.
Correct Answer: ADE
Question 4:
The resource control in your zone is:
roll
name: zone.CPU-shares
value: (pnv=phvJleged,limit=20,aclion=none)
When you boot the zone, this message is displayed:
WARNING: The zone.cpu-shares rctl is set but FSS is not the default scheduling class for this zone. FSS
will be used for processes in the zone but to get the full benefit of FSS, it should be the default scheduling
class.
Which option will resolve this issue?
A. in the global zone, run this command to change the process scheduler for the global zone dispadmin -d FSS
B. in the non-global zone, run this command to change the process scheduler for this specific zone: dispadmin -d FSS
C. Change the zone resource control to: value: (priv=privileged,limit=20,action=none, default)
D. Use svccfg to modify the general/scheduler property in the svc:/system/zones: default service: svccfg -s system/zones: default editprop general/scheduler=FSS
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
You are setting up an automated installer (AI) install server and issuing the following command:
Which four options describe the install server that you have configured?
A. The service name is prod_ai.
B. DHCP base IP address is 192.168.1.100
C. The initial IP address for the install clients will be 192.168.1.100. This IP address is temporary. After the client is booted, it will use IP addresses in the following range: 192.168.1.101-105.
D. Five IP addresses are allocated for DHCP clients, starting with 192.168.1.100.
E. The Install server will support up to five clients.
F. The AI net image ISO file is located in /repo/prod and the net image ISO will be unpacked in /export/ repo.
G. The AI net image ISO file is located in /repo/repo and is named /repo/prod/_ai.iso.
Correct Answer: ABDF
Explanation: A: -n
Uses this install service name instead of the default
service name.
B: -i
Sets up a new DHCP server. The IP addresses,
starting from dhcp_address_start, are set up.
D: -c
Sets up a total number of IP addresses in the
DHCP table equal to the value of the
count_of_ipaddr. The first IP address is the
value of dhcp_ip_start that is provided by the
-I option.
F: -s
Specifies the location of the AI ISO image to use for
setting up the install service.
Required: Specifies the location to set up the net image.
Reference: man installed
Question 6:
You have already generated a 256-bit AES raw key and named the keystore file /mykey. You need to use the key to create an encrypted file system.
Which command should you use to create a ZFS encrypted file system named pool1/encrypt using the / mykey keystore?
A. zfs create – o encryption = /mykey pool1/encrypt
B. zfs create – o encryption = 256-ccm – o key source = raw, file : ///my key pool1/encrypt
C. zfs create – o encryption = AES key source = /mykey pool1/encrypt
D. zfs create – o encryption = on key store = /mykey pool1/encrypt
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Example: Encrypting a ZFS File System by Using a Raw Key
In the following example, an aes-256-ccm encryption key is generated by using the petrol command and is
written to a file, /cindykey.file.
# pktool genkey keystore=file outkey=/cindykey.file keytype=aes keylen=256 Then, the /cindykey.file is
specified when the tank/home/Cindy file system is created.
Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Examples of Encrypting ZFS File Systems
Question 7:
Which three statements are true for the Oracle Solans 111mage Packaging System (IPS)? (Choose three.)
A. a local repository should be stored on a 2FS file system.
B. Network access to an IPS repository is provided to client systems using NFS.
C. Network access to an IPS repository is provided to client systems using NFS and HTTP.
D. The distribution constructor can get packages from a local IPS to build an installation image.
E. A mirror repository contains all of the metadata and content for software packages.
F. Clients access a mirror repository to obtain a publisher\’s catalog and software packages.
Correct Answer: DEF
Question 8:
New features wore added to ZFS in Oracle Solaris11. Your justification to upgrade from Solaris10 to oracle Solaris11 is that it will be possible to take advantage of the enhancements that were made to ZFS.
Identify the three ZFS functions and features that are included in Oracle Solaris 11, but not in Solaris 10.
A. Encrypted ZFS datasets
B. Ability for ZFS to detect and remove redundant data from the tile system
C. Shadow Data Migration
D. Ability to split a mirrored ZFS storage pool
E. Ability to use ZFS on the boot drive and boot to a ZFS root file system.
F. elimination of the swap file system when using ZFS on the root disk
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation: A: ZFS encryption was introduced in ZFS Pool Version Number 30, Solaris Nevada b149.
Filesystem encryption since Solaris 11 Express
B: Deduplication was introduced in ZFS Pool Version Number 21, Solaris Nevada b128.
E: Booting From a ZFS Root File System Both SPARC-based and x86-based systems use the new style of booting with a boot archive, which is a file system image that contains the files required for booting. When a system is booted from a ZFS root file system, the path names of both the boot archive and the kernel file are resolved in the root file system that is selected for booting.
Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Booting From a ZFS Root File System
Question 9:
Which three Installation options allow for a “hands-free” and “unattended\'” Installation of the Solaris 11 environment?
A. Jumpstart
B. LiveCD
C. A text Installation over the network
D. An Automated Installation performed on an x86 client
E. An Automated Installation using media from a local DVD or USB drive
F. An Automated Installation using a networked repository
Correct Answer: DEF
Explanation: Oracle Solaris 11 uses Automated Installer (AI) for unattended installations.
Unattended installations are possible by placing the contents of the AI Image media (or ISO image contents from a download) on an AI server.
Reference: Differences between Oracle Solaris 10 and 11 for System Administrators http:// www.oracle.com/technetwork/server-storage/solaris11/overview/solaris-matrix- 1549264.html
Question 10:
View the Exhibit and review the pool and ZFS configuration information from your system.
Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q10Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q10
Identify the correct procedure for breaking the /prod_data mirror, removing c4t0d0 and c4t2d0, and making the data on c4t0d0 and c4t2d0 accessible under the dev_data mount point.
A. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0 zpool import pool2 zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data
B. zpool detach pool1 pool2 zpool attach pool2 zfs set mountpoint=/dev_data pool2/prod_data
C. zpool split pool1/prod_data -n pool2/dev_data zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data
D. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0 zpool import pool2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In this Solaris release, you can use the pool split command to split a mirrored storage pool, which detaches a disk or disks in the original mirrored pool to create another identical pool. After the split operation, import the new pool.
Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Creating a New Pool By Splitting a Mirrored ZFS Storage Pool
Question 11:
View the Exhibit
To simplify the administration of a network, the decision was made to use bridging rather than routing Your
the network includes three Oracle Solaris 11 systems,
en-tiny cib uiiuyo yiuviumy reuunuaiu pauiways.
You previously created the bridges on each system with the following commands:
E. SystemC # ipadm set-prop -p forwarding=on bridges
F. SystemC # dladm set-link prop -p promiscuous=on bridges
Correct Answer: E
Question 12:
You have been asked to troubleshoot the initial configuration of a virtual network connecting two local zones with the outside world.
View the exhibit.
The command dladm create-vnic -1 vswitch192.168.1 vnic1 fails with the error dladm: invalid link name `vswitch192.168.1\’ What is the reason for this error?
A. The name vswitch192.168.1 is not legal.
B. The zone must be specified with dladm create-vnic -z zone3 vnic1.
C. The virtual interface must be specified with dladm create-vnic -z zone3 vnic1.
D. The virtual interface must be created with ipadm create-vnic -1 switch192.168.1.
E. The virtual switch must be created first with dladm create -etherstub vswitch192.168.1.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation: There is no data link named vswitch192.168.
We need to create an etherstub first.
See the Note and example below for details.
Note: Create a VNIC in the system\’s global zone.
# dladm create-vnic -l data-link vnic-name
data-link is the name of the interface where the VNIC is to be configured.
-l link, –link=link
link can be a physical link or an other stub.
vnic-name is the name that you want to give the VNIC.
For example, to create a VNIC named vnic0 on interface e1000g0, you would type the following:
# dladm create-vnic -l e1000g0 vnic0
Example: Creating a Virtual Network Without a Physical NIC
First, create an etherstub with the name stub1:
# dladm create-etherstub stub1
Create two VNICs with the names hello0 and test1 on the etherstub. This operation implicitly creates a virtual
switch connecting hello0 and test1. # dladm create-vnic -l stub1 hello0 # dladm create-vnic -l stub1 test1 Reference: man dladm
Question 13:
You have set up the task. max-was resource control on your Solaris 11 system.
Which option describes how to configure the system so that syslogd notifies you when the resources control the threshold value for the task? max-lips resource has been exceeded?
A. Use the rctladm command to enable the global action on the task.max-lwpa resource control.
B. Modify the /etc/syslog.conf file to activate system logging of all violations of the task.max- lwps and then refresh then svc: /system/system-log: default service.
C. Activate system logging of all violations of task.max-lwpp in the /etc/rctldm.conf file and then execute the rctladm-u command.
D. Use the prct1 command to set the logging of all resource control violations at the time the task. max was resource control is being set up.
E. Use the setrct1 command to set the logging of all resource control violations for the task.max-was resource control.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: rctladm – display and/or modify the global state of system resource controls The following command activates system logging of all violations of the task. max-lips. # rctladm -e syslog task.max-lips
# Reference: man rctladm
Question 14:
You are using Wireshark or snoop to observe network traffic, by using the observability node /dev/net/budget. The bridge was created with: dladm create-bridge -1 net -1 net2 bridge
The captured packets are those__________.
A. sent, prior to VLAN tag modifications
B. received, after VLAN tag modifications
C. received, prior to VLAN tag modifications
D. sent and received, after VLAN tag modifications
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
Identify three options that describe the new Oracle Solaris 11 zone features.
A. There are boot environments for zones.
B. Administrators can delegate common administration tasks by using RBAC.
C. Oracle Solaris 11 supports Solaris 8, 9, and 10 branded zones.
D. You can migrate a physical Solaris 10 system and its non-global zones to a solaris10 branded zone running on an Oracle Solaris 11 system.
E. It is possible to change the host ID of a zone.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation: A: The beam utility includes support for creating and administering non-global zone boot environments. Note: A boot environment is a bootable instance of the Oracle Solaris operating system image plus any other application software packages installed into that image. System administrators can maintain multiple boot environments on their systems, and each boot environment can have different software versions installed.
B: Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security feature for controlling user access to tasks that would normally be restricted to the root role. By applying security attributes to processes and to users, RBAC can divide up superuser capabilities among several administrators.
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Question 1:
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NO GUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to a lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes of session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?
A. by granting a secure application role to the user
B. by implementing Database Resource Manager
C. by using Oracle Label Security options
D. by assigning a profile to the user
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT\’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?
A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING \’HQ\’;
B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING `HQ\’;
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?
A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.
Correct Answer: D
The stop_on_window_close attribute controls whether the GATHER_STATS_JOB continues when the maintenance window closes. The default setting for the stop_on_window_close attribute is TRUE, causing Scheduler to terminate GATHER_STATS_JOB when the maintenance window closes. The remaining objects are then processed in the next maintenance window.
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following
specifications:
Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
The database will have a mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?
A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration
Correct Answer: C
Question 6:
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments.
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.
Correct Answer: DE
Question 7:
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?
A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
Correct Answer: D
References:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm (see log writer process (LGWR))
Question 8:
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?
A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)
A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view
Correct Answer: DE
You can, for example, select, join, or sort external table data. You can also create views and synonyms for external tables. However, no DML operations (UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE) are possible, and no indexes can be created, on external tables.
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 11:
The HR user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
On investigation, you find that the user’s tablespace uses Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error? (Choose two.)
A. Altering the data file associated with the USERS tablespace to extend automatically
B. Adding a data file to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with auto-extend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value
Correct Answer: AB
Question 12:
Which three factors influence the optimizer\’s choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 13:
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.
Correct Answer: CE
Question 14:
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?
A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high watermark. What should you ensure before the start of the operation?
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
Correct Answer: A
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Question 1:
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp\’
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error. (Choose two.)
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, and restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shut down the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Correct Answer: AE
*
Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.
*
If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.
Question 2:
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
Correct Answer: AC
The triggers cloned to the interim table are disabled until the redefinition is completed. Once the redefinition is complete, all cloned objects are renamed to the original names used by the objects they were cloned from.
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener. or configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener. ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.
Correct Answer: C
Question 5:
An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) finding in your production database reports that the shared pool is inadequately sized. You diagnose that this is due to the different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. The following are the parameter settings for the database instance: You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components depending on the workload.
Which option would solve this problem?
A. setting the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to 200M and the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M
B. setting the MEMORY_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE parameters to 400M
C. setting the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M
D. setting the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M
Correct Answer: C
Question 6:
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Correct Answer: B
Question 7:
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1. Mount the CDB.
2. Close all the PDBs.
3. Open the database.
4. Apply the archive redo logs.
5. Restore the data file.
6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Correct Answer: A
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
*
Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.
Cannot close the pdb as the system data file was missing…
So the only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of
PDB.
*
Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an
inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances) / After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs are created since the backup is available.
* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery: SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
Question 8:
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled?
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization
Correct Answer: BCF
* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users–either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users.
Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives a good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
Question 9:
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database.
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined in the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disruption to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Correct Answer: ACD
A: You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
D: Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use the ALTER TABLE…MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.
C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same tablespace.
Incorrect Answers:
B, E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuilt with UPDATE INDEXES when you move the
Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server connections?
A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations
B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables
Correct Answer: ABC
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following: / (B)UGA (User Global Area) for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where transactions interact with multiple databases) /Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements / (A) Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves
Note:
*
large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore operations, I/O
server processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle XA.
*
Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction manager other than
Oracle Database.
*
UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon information, and can also
contain the OLAP pool.
*
Configuring the Large Pool
Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list (not D). Oracle Database does not
attempt to age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if the database instance
uses any of the following Oracle Database features:
*
Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in the shared pool.
*
Parallel query
The parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.
*
Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore
operations. For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates buffers
that are a few hundred kilobytes in size.
Question 11:
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
You plan to use the In-Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC? (Choose three.)
A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero-padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays
Correct Answer: AEG
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage. Exadata (A), Pillar Axiom (G), or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA).
Note:
*
Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to support Pillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above
*
Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, better performance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.
Question 13:
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.
How does a real-time Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Correct Answer: B
Note:
*
The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
*
The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM).
*
The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.
Question 14:
The tnsnames. ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:
The TNSPING command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:
SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl
What could be the reason for this?
A. The listener is not running on the database node.
B. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.
C. The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.
D. The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.
E. The listener is running on a different port.
Correct Answer: C
Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request arrives.
Question 15:
Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:
1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
4. Revoke unused privileges.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.
6. Stop analyzing the data.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4
C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
E. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4
Correct Answer: B
1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
6. Stop analyzing the data.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges\’ lists.
4. Revoke unused privileges.
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