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[New] Free 1Z0-511 Exam Questions, Exam Materials

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Question 1:

Your customer has set up a contract project with a distribution rule Work/Work. Identify three setup options to:

A. Set up revenue categories as required.

B. Define revenue accountsatthe revenue category setup level.

C. Define AutoAccounting rules to derive revenue accounts based on revenue category.

D. Definegrouping option by revenue category on the invoice format and attach the invoice format at the project type level.

E. Define grouping option by revenue category on the project type.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation:

Note:

Revenue and Billing Information

When you enter revenue information for your project, you specify a revenue distribution rule for the revenue accrual method and the billing method for this project.

When you enter billing information, you specify invoice formats, bill cycle days, and other invoicing information. The project type determines which revenue

distribution rule appears as the default value for this field, and which other revenue distribution rules you can choose from. Oracle Projects predefines the following

revenue distribution rules:

Cost/CostAccrue revenue and bill using the ratio of the actual cost to budgeted cost (percent spent). Cost/EventAccrue revenue using the ratio of the actual cost to

budgeted cost (percent spent), and bill based on events.

Cost/WorkAccrue revenue using the ratio of the actual cost to budgeted cost (percent spent), and bill as work occurs.

Event/EventAccrue revenue and bill based on events.

Event/WorkAccrue revenue based on events, and bill as work occurs. Work/EventAccrue revenue as work occurs, and bill based on events.

Work/WorkAccrue revenue and bill as work occurs.

Question 2:

Identify two predefined transaction sources that Oracle Projects uses to import the transactions generated within Oracle Projects.

A. Oracle Interproject Supplier Invoices

B. Oracle Projects Intercompany Supplier Invoices

C. Project Allocations

D. Capitalized Interest

E. Oracle Interprojed Customer Invoices

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:

Oracle Projects uses predefined transaction sources to import project allocations and capitalized interest transactions that it generates internally.

References:

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

1Z0-511 free dumps questions 3

In your company\’s Expenditure/Event Organization Hierarchy, organization labor costing rules are assigned to all organizations except San Jose. What happens when you run the “PRC: Distribute labor costs” program for a timecard transaction entered by an employee from the San Jose organization?

A. Therule assigned for SanFranciscotakes precedence and the transaction will be successfully distributed.

B. The rule assigned for the USA takes precedence and the transaction will be successfully cost-distributed.

C. The rule assigned for California takes precedence and the transaction will be successfully cost distributed.

D. The program ignores this transaction because no labor costing rules are assigned for San Jose. and completes normally.

E. The program completes normally. However, the output will have this transaction under the exceptions section with the message “No Labor costing rule assigned for the organization.”

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 4:

Which two options are not task attributes for financial task structure?

A. Task Type

B. Service Type

C. Work Type

D. Chargeable Flag

E. Scheduled Dates

Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:

Incorrect:

Not A: Task types assign default attributes to tasks and control how Oracle Projects processes tasks.

Task types specify basic task attributes.

Not C: Work types represent a classification of work. You use work types to classify both actual and scheduled work.

Not E: Oracle Projects uses start and finish dates to control processing, indicate estimated and scheduled duration, and serve as tools to evaluate project

performance.

The start and finish dates at the project level are:

Actual: Actual dates when work on the project started and finished. You can use these dates to drive future timecards and earned value functionality.

(not E)Scheduled: Scheduled start and finish dates for the project.

Target: The expected lifespan of the project.

Estimated: A task manager\’s estimate of when work on the project will be started and finished.

Baseline: The baselined schedule

Question 5:

A new contract project is created for work for a customer by using event-based billing. A decision has been made to give a discount to the customer on a particular invoice. You want to apply this discount and reduce the invoice without affecting revenue.

Which event type should be used to achieve this?

A. Manual

B. Invoice Reduction

C. Deferred Revenue

D. Automatic

E. ScheduledPayment

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Event Type Classification is: Scheduled Payment, Deferred Revenue, Invoice Reduction, Manual, or Automatic (for billing events only)

Question 6:

In which two circumstances would it be appropriate to deselect the “Interface Revenue to GL” option in System Implementation Options, before you run the Interface to GC?

A. During data migration if revenue is already in General Ledger

B. When Revenueis handled in Accounts Receivable

C. WhenAutoAccounting is incorrect and the Revenue interfacing to GeneralLedger needs to be put on hold.

D. When Financewants to reconcile Unbilled Receivables/Unearned Revenue

E. When Revenue was generated in error for all projects in Released status and needs to be corrected.

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:

A: If the revenue amounts are already interfaced to General Ledger (GL) through a different interface, then uncheck the `Interface Revenue to GL\’ option in the implementation options and run the `Interface Revenue to GL\’ process in Oracle projects. This will turn the flags in the revenue records as accepted in GL, though it is not interfaced. Once this is done, revert back the implementation option back to its original state.

Question 7:

What type of project will a company require to use Organization Forecasting?

A. contract project

B. Administration Project

C. Organization Planning Project

D. capital project

E. multi-function project

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Note:

*Compute Forecast Labor Revenue

This process calculates the potential revenue of labor expenditure items based on established bill rates and markups. The expenditure items that the process

selects are billable labor expenditure items charged to contract projects that have not yet been processed by the Generate Draft Revenue process. The items do not have to be approved to be processed for forecast revenue.

Question 8:

An organization uses Oracle Projects and has fully installed Oracle Human Resources. Which statement does not apply to this scenario?

A. Employees can be entered and maintained in Oracle Projects.

B. Jobs can be set up in Oracle Projects.

C. Organizations can be defined In Oracle Projects.

D. Organization Hierarchies can be defined in Oracle Projects.

E. WorkerAssignments can be viewed in Oracle Projects.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Note:

*Oracle Projects fully integrates with Oracle Human Resources to keep track of employees and information relevant to them, such as bill rates and mailing

address.

Question 9:

Identify the four different levels where transaction controls are defined.

A. Expenditure Categories

B. Expenditure Organization

C. Employee

D. Project Organization

E. Expenditure Type

F. Person Type

Correct Answer: ACDE

Explanation:

You can configure transaction controls by the following:

(A)Expenditure Category

(C)Employee

(E)Expenditure Type

Non-Labor Resource

Question 10:

Your client has expressed a desire to produce and summarize invoice lines for Non-Labor transactions by type of expenditure based on high-level tasks of the project. Which invoice formal grouping should he use to achieve this?

A. TopTask, ExpenditureType

B. TopTask, Employee

C. Revenue Category, Expenditure Category, Top Task

D. TopTask, Expenditure Category

E. TopTask, Revenue Category, Expenditure Category, Expenditure Type

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Note *Oracle Projects processes tasks based on their position in the structure. The three distinct positions are: Top Task: A task whose parent is the project Mid Task: A task that is not a top task or a lowest task Lowest Task: A task that is at the bottom of the structure, without any child tasks *You can configure transaction controls by the following: Expenditure Category

Employee Expenditure Type Non-Labor Resource

Question 11:

Which three types of People Resources do Oracle Projects support?

A. Team Roles

B. Straight Time

C. Jobs

D. Item

E. Named Person

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation:

Note:

*People resources represent named persons or any grouping of named persons(E)by attributes such as job(C), organization, or role(A), whose time (effort)

capacity is consumed to complete the project work. Example: Amy Marlin

Question 12:

Identify three adjustment actions that require submission of Distribute costs program to process the adjustments.

A. Change Comment

B. Release Hold

C. Split

D. Transfer

E. Recalculate Revenue

F. Capitalizable to Non-Capitalizable

Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation:

After you have performed the adjustment actions, you need to run the appropriate processes to process the adjustments.

The table below notes what processes to run to process each adjustment action.

1Z0-511 free dumps questions 12

Question 13:

A customer has gone into bankruptcy and is unable to pay their bills. This means that the projected revenue is now overstated. How can the customer reduce the revenue on the project to accurately reflect the amount of collectible revenue?

A. Create a revenue write-off event for the uncollectable element and interface to General Ledger.

B. Create a negative funding line and assign it to the project thus reducing its revenue.

C. Createacost adjustments on the project using preapproved batches.

D. Create a credit memo in Oracle Projects and interface it to Accounts Receivable.

E. Enter a transaction control against the expenditure types and regenerate the draft invoice.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 14:

What must be defined to enable a company to use an organization for a straight-time expenditure?

A. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add Cost Centers as the Organization type.2. Add an organization classification of Organization.3. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.

B. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracleprojectimplementation option setting

C. Define the organization with the following:1.Add organization classificationsProject/Task Owning Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy. 3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

D. Define the organization with the following:1. Add the organization classifications Project Expenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy. 3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

E. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.3. Define Organization Labor Costing Rules.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

Note:

*You can set this at the Inventory Organization level in the Project Manufacturing Parameters window, the Costing tabbed region. This allows WIP employee

resources and Project straight time hours to be summarized as Straight Time Expenditure Type Class.

*expenditure type class An additional classification for expenditure types that indicates how Oracle Projects processes the expenditure types. For example, if you run the Distribute Labor Costs process, OracleProjects will calculate the cost of all expenditure items assigned to the Straight Time expenditure type class. Formerly known as system linkage

Question 15:

A customer has two operating units: US and Ireland. A project that is set in the Ireland operating unit requires the services of employees from the US operating unit.

Identify three mandatory steps that must be completed for the employees in the US to enter their time on the project and for costs to be successfully distributed.

A. Set up Internal Billing Implementation options in US and Ireland.

B. Define provider controls in the US and receiver control in Ireland.

C. Set up a new transaction source to receive Intercompany transactions in Ireland.

D. For the project in Ireland, select “Allow Cross Charges to all Operating Units within Legal Entity”.

E. For the project in Ireland, set up transaction controls to allow charges from other operating units.

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:

B: Provider and Receiver Controls Setup

For each provider operating unit or receiver operating unit involved in the cross charge, the Provider/Receiver Controls window Provider Controls and Receiver

Controls tabs specify:

The cross charge method to use to process intercompany cross charges and to override the default cross charge method for inter-operating unit cross charges.

Attributes required for the provider operating unit to process intercompany billing to each receiver operating unit. This includes the Intercompany Billing Project

and Invoice Group.

Attributes required for the receiver operating unit to process intercompany billing from each provider operating unit. This includes the supplier site, expenditure

type and expenditure organization.

*(C)Intercompany Billing Accounting Companies choose the intercompany billing method largely due to legal and statutory requirements. When you use this method, Oracle Projects generates physical invoices and corresponding accounting entries at legal transfer prices between the internal seller(provider) and buyer (receiver) organizations when they cross a legal entity boundary or operating units.

*(D)Overview of Cross Charge When projects share resources within an enterprise, it is common to see those resources shared across organization and country boundaries. Further, project managers may also divide the work into multiple projects for easier execution and management. The legal, statutory, or managerial accounting requirements of such projects often present complex operational control, billing, and accounting challenges.

Oracle Projects enables companies to meet these challenges by providing timely information for effective project management. Project managers can easily view the current total costs of the project, while customers receive bills as costs are incurred, regardless of who performs the work or where it is performed.

At last

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Free 1Z0-822 Exam Materials Exam Questions Online

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Question 1:

A recursive snapshot was taken of the root pool and the snapshot streams are stored on a remote system. The boot disk has failed and has been replaced, and the root pool snapshots have been restored. Which two steps are still required to make the system bootable?

A. Re-create the swap and dump devices.

B. Install the boot blocks on the new disk.

C. Restore the snapshot stream.

D. Set the boots property on the root pool.

E. Perform a ZFS rollback to restore the file systems in the root pool.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 2:

Review the following output from the zpool status command:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 2

Which three are true for pool1?

A. If this mirror is split, the new pool will contain disks c3t5d0 and c3t6d0.

B. If this mirror is split, by default the new pool will contain disks c3t3d0 and c3t5d0.

C. Data is striped across mirror-0 and mirror-1.

D. mirror-1 is a mirrored copy of data that is stored on mirror-0.

E. Disk c3t3d0 is a mirrored copy of disk c3c4d0.

F. If this mirror is split, pool 1 will no longer be mirrored.

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 3:

The zfs holds command displays the following information:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 3

Which two statements are true?

A. Use zfs destroy d pool12/data@nov to destroy the snapshot immediately.

B. Attempts to destroy the snapshot using zfs destroy pool12/data@nov will fail.

C. Attempts to destroy the pool12/data@nov snapshot will not destroy the snapshot immediately.

D. The zfs directory R pool12/data command will destroy the file system immediately.

E. The defer_destroy property is set to on for the pool12/data@nov data set.

F. The user refs property is set to 1 (or higher) for the pool12/data@nov data set.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 4:

Consider the following ZFS configuration:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 4

You have created snapshots of the homo directories which are as follows:

1Z0-822 free dumps sample questions 4-2

You have another storage pool named bpool on the same system. You use the following command to store the snapshots in this pool:

# zfs send rpool/export/[email protected] | zfs recv f [email protected]

What will be created in the pool bpool as a result of this operation?

A. bpool/export/home/ bpool/export/home/curly

B. bpool/export/home/ bpool/export/home/curly bpool/export/[email protected]

C. bpool/export/home/ bpool/export/home/curly [email protected]

D. bpool/curly bpool/[email protected]

E. bpool/curly

F. bpool/curly [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Consider the following commands on a newly installed system:

zfs set compression=on rpool zfs to get H 0 source compression rpool

What is the output of the second command?

A. default

C. local

D. on

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Do you want to create a ZFS file system with the following specifications: lzjb compression enabled? Cannot consume more than 2 GB from the storage pool?? Redundant data at the block level eliminated Mounted as /data?

Which command creates the desired file system?

A. zfs create o mountpoint=/data,compression=on,algorithm=lzjb,deduplication=on,quota=2g /pool1/data

B. zfs create o mountpoint=/data compression=on algorithm=lzjb deduplication=on quota=2g /pool1/data

C. zfs create o mountpoint=/data o compression=on o dedup=on o quota=2g /pool1/data

D. zfs create o mountpoint=/data o compression=on o algorithm=lzjb o deduplication=on o quota=2g / pool1/data

E. zfs create pool/data zfs set mountpoint=/data,quota=2g, dedup=on,compression=on /pool1/data

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which two zpool subcommands will permanently remove a sub mirror from the active storage pool?

A. remove

B. detach

C. destroy

D. offline

E. replace

F. split

G. zpool does not permit this operation on an active storage pool unless the sub mirror faults.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 8:

Your task is to configure storage for an Oracle Solaris 11 system to support multiple web servers. Each web server will be contained in a separate zone. The system has an attached disk array configured as a JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks). The system also has an internal solid-state drive.

The data accessed through the websites will be primarily read-only. The web servers are expected to be very busy, so configure the storage for maximum performance. Because the data is primarily static, redundancy is required to maintain high availability in the event of a hardware failure.

Data does not change often, but it is expected that the same data will be accessed many times throughout the day. Which configuration option best meets the data storage requirements?

A. a raid2 storage pool with a separate log device

B. a mirrored storage pool with a separate cache device

C. a mirrored storage pool with a separate log device

D. a three disk striped storage pool with a separate cache device

E. a raidz1 storage pool with a separate log and cache device

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

The zpool configuration on server A is:

pool 1 c3t2d0 c3t3d0 pool 2 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

The zpool configuration on server B is:

pool1 mirror-0 c3t2d0 c3t3d0 mirror-1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

Which option will modify the configuration on server A to match server B?

A. zpool destroy pool2 zpool attach pool1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

B. zpool destroy pool2 zpool attach pool1 c3t2d0 c3t2d0 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

C. zpool destroy pool2 zpool add pool1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0

D. zpool destroy pool2 zpool mirror pool1 pool2

E. zpool destroy pool2 zpool attach pool1 c3t2d0 attach pool1 c3t3d0 zpool attach pool1 c3t4d0 attach pool1 c3t5d0

F. zpool destroy pool1; zpool destroy pool2; zpool create pool1 mirror c 3t2d0 c3t3d0 mirror c4t4d0 c3t5d0

Correct Answer: F

Question 10:

Which is the result of the following command?

# zfs send i dpool/sales/qrreports@qtrreport dpool/sales/qrreports@mth3qtrreport

A. An error message will be sent to standard error.

B. The dpool/sales/qrreports@qtrreport snapshot is saved to disk.

C. The dpool/sales/qrreports@mth3qtrreport snapshot is saved to disk

D. The difference between the First snapshot and the second snapshot will be written to the disk

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

You have a ZFS pool that contains a hierarchy of data file systems. You create snapshots of the file systems and you created a clone (dpool/export/CID) of the dpool/export/home/CID file systems. The file systems are as follows:

Now you remove a file from the cloned file system: root@sll-server1:~# rm /export/CID/core.bash.8070 How will space usage be changed for dpool/export/CID?

A. The USED value will increase and the REFER value will decrease; the AVAIL value will be unchanged.

B. The USED value will decrease and the REFER value will increase; the AVAIL value will increase.

C. The USED value will decrease, the REFER value will decrease; the AVAIL value will increase.

D. USED, REFER and the AVAIL value will be unchanged.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

To reduce the use of storage space on your server, you want to eliminate duplicate copies of data in your server\’s ZFS file systems. How do you specify that pool1/data should not contain duplicate data blocks on write operations?

A. zfs create o compression=on pool1/data

B. zpool create o deduplication=on pool1 ; zfs create pool1/data

C. zpool create o dedupratio=on pool1 ; zfs create pool1/data

D. zfs create o dedupratio=2 pool1/data

E. zfs create o dedup=on pool1/data

Correct Answer: E

Question 13:

Which option lists default checkpoints for building an image using the Distribution Constructor?

A. manifest-valid and ba-init

B. ba-arch and grub-setup

C. transfer-ips-install and pre-pkg-img-mod

D. pkg-img mod and create-USB

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which two statements describe the capabilities of the Distribution Constructor?

A. ISO images for use with the Automated Installer (AI) can be created.

B. Bootable USB images can be created for SPARC and x86 architectures.

C. A single installation service can be used to create an ISO image, for SPARC and x86 architectures.

D. Checkpoints are used to pause the build, thereby allowing the running of a script to modify the resulting ISO image.

E. A single installation service can be used to create ISO images for Solaris 10 and Solaris 11.0 operating systems.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 15:

Your colleague is administering the company\’s Automated Install server and is using a custom manifest. You now plan to replace the default AI manifest with the custom manifest. Which installed subcommand must you use to replace the default AI manifest?

A. update-service

B. update-manifest

C. set-service

D. create-manifest

E. create-service

F. set-manifest

Correct Answer: B

At last

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Question 1:

Identify the dimensions that are built by using the application profile.

A. Year and period only

B. Value and view only

C. View, Period, and Year

D. Period, Value, and Year

E. Scenario, Period, and Year

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

To which dimension do custom dimensions provide additional detail?

A. Accounts

B. Entity

C. Value

D. ICP

E. Custom dimensions are independent of other dimensions.

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which is the rule function used to notify the following year that a consolidation is needed due to recalculation of the current year?

A. Exp

B. ImpactStatus

C. OpenDataUnit

D. A rule function is not used; an input subroutine is used.

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Identify three valid application settings. (Choose three.)

A. MaxNumDocAttachments

B. UseSecurityForEntities

C. UseSecurityForValue

D. Va1idationAccount

E. SupportSubmissionPhaseforEntity

Correct Answer: ABD

Question 5:

Identify the purpose of using task lists.

A. To upload user “to do” items to FM with due dates and alert dates

B. To organize and group related tasks into a navigational aid for users

C. To create lists of members with VB script

D. To list tasks to be executed by the FM Server

E. To define the review path for consolidation review

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

What are the two effects of deploying an EPMA application? (Choose two.)

A. The EPMA metadata is extracted to a text file.

B. If enabled, it pushes the data to Essbase via Essbase Analytic Link for FM.

C. The EPMA application metadata is used to create an FM application on the FM server.

D. The application is sent out to a star schema for use by Essbase and other products.

E. When you redeploy an application, the application metadata is merged or replaced based on the changes made since the last deployment.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 7:

You need to migrate an FM application in version 11 from development to production. Your environment has two instances of Shared Services, one for development and one for production. Identify the two true statements about using Life Cycle Management to perform the application migration from development to production within this environment. (Choose two.)

A. You can select specific objects to migrate or all objects to migrate.

B. Migrating applications from development to production in disconnected environments, where there are two instances of Shared Services, is not supported.

C. Life Cycle Management will migrate both objects and data.

D. Life Cycle Management will generate an XML file that can be modified and used for importing to target applications.

E. The only role necessary to perform LCM activities is Application Administrator.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 8:

For metadata loads, you can import changes to metadata for which three application elements? (Choose three.)

A. Periods

B. Accounts

C. Entities

D. Currencies

E. Value

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 9:

Identify the three true statements about security classes. (Choose three.)

A. Security classes are grouping mechanisms for assigning security access to sets of related members, documents, or other objects.

B. Access levels for security classes include metadata, read, promote, and none.

C. Security classes are assigned to FDM locations in addition to FM objects.

D. Security classes cannot be created in EPMA by creating a Security Class dimension and associating it.

E. Security classes are created in Classic FM under Load Tasks.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 10:

What is the primary purpose of Extended Analytics in FM?

A. Exports Financial Management metadata and data to an Essbase database

B. Exports Financial Management metadata and data to a relational database

C. Exports Financial Management metadata and data to an Excel pivot table

D. Provides analytic capabilities directly against the Financial Management application

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

The Audit Intersection link in the Data Grid menus takes the user to:

A. The Data Audit listing for the cell

B. The FDM location used to load the data

C. The database log for the data storage table

D. The Task Audit page

E. Line item details

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

How can an administrator get a list of security classes AND assigned users defined in the FM application?

A. Select Document > Reporting > Security > Security report.

B. Select Tasks > Extract Tasks > Extract Security.

C. Select Tasks > Extract Tasks > Extract Metadata.

D. In the EPMA Dimension Library, under the Security Class dimension for the application, right-click the application and select Assign Access Control, then select Security reports, and choose Classes by the user.

E. In Shared Services, right-click the application and select Assign Access control, then select Security reports, and choose Classes by the user.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

The organization by period feature is used for what two purposes? (Choose two.)

A. Segregating rules by month and year

B. Controlling when entities consolidate into specific parents

C. Organizing the period dimension into multiple hierarchies

D. Managing the ownership percentage of one entity by others

E. Maintaining stored data values for changes in the Entity structure over time

Correct Answer: BE

Question 14:

If Sample Company 1230LAP has an intercompany balance with sample company PQR, when is the balance eliminated, assuming that consolidation rules have not been enabled in Application Settings?

A. All eliminations occur within the uppermost member on each of the entity dimension hierarchies.

B. Eliminations occur in the [Elimination] value members of the children of the first common parent entity.

C. Eliminations occur in the [Elimination] value members of the children of the first common parent account.

D. If the consolidation rule in Application Settings is not enabled, the intercompany accounts do not eliminate.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

How many custom dimensions do Financial Management applications allow?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. None. Financial Management supports only fixed dimensions.

Correct Answer: C

At last

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Try our free 1Z0-343 exam material, free 1Z0-343 dumps practice questions below

Question 1:

Your client has situations where sometimes Customer Service Representatives (CSR) need to enter a sales order and then come back to it later to resolve client questions, add more information or lines, and so on.

What is the correct way to handle this request?

A. Add Order Activity Rules and then use Speed Status Update to advance the order.

B. Create an Order Type for this type of order with its own Order Activity Rules. Then create a version of the Pick Slip program to process these orders.

C. Create a Line Type that does not affect inventory levels and then have the CSR change it to an S line after all issues are resolved.

D. Create a hold code that the CSR adds at order entry and then removes when the order is ready to progress.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

When setting up Kit Items in E1, how does the system store those items?

A. Inventory for Kit Parents Items is stored in a dedicated Kit\’s location.

B. The system stores the parent items in the F41021 file and adds text lines for the components during sales order entry.

C. The system does not carry inventory for the parent item; the parent item simply represents all components bundled together as an assembled item and only components are stored in the system.

D. The system creates a Work Order for the Parent item and when the work order is completed, the inventory is updated to a specific location where the sales order can be hard-committed.

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

Your client and their supplier have an agreement that the supplier will not send invoices. Your client will pay the supplier based on what they receive.

How should you set this up to ensure that the system processes this supplier\’s invoices according to the agreement?

A. Set the Supplier Cross-Reference code to process evaluated receipts.

B. Set the processing options in the Voucher Match program to allow Evaluated Receipts Settlement

C. Set the Evaluated Receipts field in the Purchase Order Entry program to Y.

D. Process only EDI-generated invoices.

E. Set the Evaluated Receipts field in Purchasing Instructions to Y.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16582_01/doc.91/e15149/set_up_suppliers.htm#EOASU00136

Question 4:

A client has entered two purchase orders. Based on the total amount, the first purchase order is required to go through the approval process and has not yet been approved. The second purchase order does not require approval. The items on each purchase order are now on the dock ready to be received. The receiving clerk can find only the purchase order that did not go through the approval process.

Identify the reason for this.

A. The processing option of the Enter Receipts by PO program is set to display only orders that have gone through the approval process and are activated.

B. The values in the Incoming Last Status Codes processing options of Enter Receipts by PO program do not include both values for the purchase orders.

C. The values in the Acceptable Incoming Next Status Codes processing options of the Enter Receipts by PO program do not include the value for unapproved purchase orders.

D. The Override Next Status Code Processing option in Purchase Order Entity (P4310) was not set to advance the second purchase order past an approved status.

E. Purchase orders that go through the approval process must have an Other Allowed Value of Record Purchase Receipt on the approvals line of the Order Activity Rules.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which two statements are true for Procurement Management User Defined Codes (UDCs)? (Choose two.)

A. Schedule Name, Landed Cost Components, Order Templates, Item Price Groups, and Commodity Class Codes are required UDCs for Procurement Management

B. UDC 41/9 identifies the G/L offset that the system uses when it searches for the account to which it posts procurement transactions.

C. Procurement System Hold Codes (42/HC) are hardcoded and have special handling code logic.

D. To enable the routing of receipts, only receipts routing UDC is required; operations routing UDC is optional

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16582_01/doc.91/e15131/ set_up_proc_system.htm#EOAPR00548

Question 6:

You want zero quantity tolerance on a specific item during receipt. The item belongs to a group that currently gets a 10% tolerance.

How can you accomplish this?

A. In the Item Branch/Plant, set the tolerance to zero.

B. Set the tolerance for the specific item to zero in Tolerance Rule Setup.

C. Set the tolerance processing option in the Receipts program to zero.

D. Set up an order hold code for zero tolerance.

E. Set the tolerance for the company to zero in Tolerance Rule Setup.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Your client is entering sales orders using base pricing.

What logic does the system use to retrieve the price based on the effective dates?

A. Past Due Date

B. Delivery Date

C. Earliest Expiration Date

D. Closest Start Date

E. Order Date

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E15156_01/e1apps90pbr0/eng/psbooks/1aso/chapter.htm? File=1aso/htm/1aso07.htm

Question 8:

A warehouse user is trying to enter an inventory adjustment for an item but is receiving an Invalid Location error.

Why is this happening?

A. The warehouse is set up with location control and the item has not been set up with a primary location.

B. The inventory adjustment application P4114 is not set up with a default location.

C. The warehouse is set up with location control and the location is not set up in the Location Master.

D. The branch plant does not have a primary location set up for the item.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Your client\’s pricing strategy includes contract prices, trade discounts, base prices, and standard price adjustments.

Which statement describes the hierarchy that defines how the system determines the price of a sales order?

A. Base price with a standard price adjustment, base price with trade discount, contract price, and base price

B. Base price with trade discount, base price with a standard price adjustment, base price, and contract price

C. Base price with trade discount, base price with a standard price adjustment, contract price, and base price

D. Base price with trade discount, contract price, base price with a standard price adjustment, and base price

E. Contract price, base price with a standard price adjustment, base price with a standard price adjustment, and base price

Correct Answer: E

Question 10:

A customer\’s credit limit has been established at $10,000 and the current outstanding A/R is $7,000. The customer has active, unshipped sales orders with request dates that are two months in the future and total $3,000. The customer calls today with a $500 order to be shipped immediately.

What happens to the order?

A. The order goes on hold because credit checking is performed for the total exposure, which includes open orders regardless of their request dates.

B. The order does not go on hold, because credit checking only compares the dollar value for open orders against the credit limit.

C. The order does not go on hold. The system automatically determines that the requested date of the new order comes before the request dates of the existing open orders. The system will allow the $500 order to be processed, and put a credit hold on the order with the requested date furthest in the future.

D. The order goes on hold because the total A/R amount is greater than 5% of the total of A/R and open orders.

E. The order does not go on hold, because the actual outstanding A/R has not exceeded the credit limit, and the $500 order would still cause the total exposure to be less than $10,000.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

A client transfers inventory between warehouses within the same company. Both warehouses carry the inventory at the same cost. In the journal entries for the transfer, the client finds that the batch amount is blank.

Identify the correct reason why this happened.

A. The client should reverse the transfer transaction, create an issue to remove quantity from the old location, and then create an adjustment to add quantity to the new location.

B. The AAIs are set up incorrectly. Correct the AAIs so that the journal entry amount will appear.

C. No correction is necessary. A batch with a blank amount is correct.

D. The cost is incorrect for one of the warehouses. The client should reverse the transfer, verify the cost, and re-enter the transaction.

E. The client should carry the inventory cost at different amounts for each warehouse. This approach ensures that a variance journal entry is created.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Your client wants to set up a process for customers who were accidentally sent the wrong item.

What is the correct way to do this?

A. Create a sales order for the replacement item, create a Credit Order for the incorrectly shipped item, and create a negative purchase order to receive the incorrectly shipped item.

B. Set up the Returned Material Authorization process to create a sales order for the replacement item, create a Credit Order for the incorrectly shipped item, and purchase order for the incorrectly shipped item.

C. Create a no-charge sales order for the replacement item, create a Credit Order for the incorrectly shipped item, and perform an Inventory Adjustment when the incorrectly shipped items arrive.

D. Create a sales order for the replacement item and make journal entries to write off the incorrectly shipped.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Your client is being charged a warehouse storage fee equal to 10% of the brokerage fees that are already included in the landed costs set up.

How should you set up the landed costs to accomplish this?

A. Attach a second landed cost rule to the item.

B. Add another cost level to the Landed Cost table with a percentage of cost equal to 10% and a based-on level pointing to the brokerage fee line.

C. Set up the warehouse storage fee by specific item number.

D. Add another cost level to the landed cost table with a percentage of cost equal to 10%.

E. Increase the cost level line for brokerage fees by 10%.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E59116_01/doc.94/e58762/setup_land_costs.htm#WEAPO738

Question 14:

Your client\’s pricing for a customer order is not calculating correctly.

Which option represents the most detailed price setup?

A. Customer and Item

B. Customer Group and Item Group

C. Customer group and item

D. all customers and Item

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

Which three components do you need to set up shipment tracking? (Choose three.)

A. shipment reference number added to the shipment

B. carrier SCAC code

C. tracking application type in constants/carrier master

D. tracking business function and reference qualifier set up in carrier master

E. carrier URL

Correct Answer: ABC

At last

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[Exam Materials] Free 1Z0-133 exam sample questions online

Question 1:

You are using the Configuration Wizard to create a new domain that will consist of a cluster of three managed servers along with an instance of WebLogic server acting as HIPT proxy to distribute traffic to the cluster. Which three steps should you perform with the Configuration Wizard?

A. Create one Cluster.

B. Install Oracle HTTP Server.

C. Create one Coherence server.

D. Create four managed servers.

E. Assign three servers to a cluster.

F. Specify a proxy port for the administration server.

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 2:

Which session persistence type is invalid?

A. Async_replicated

B. async_jdbc

C. replicated

D. async_memory

E. cookie

F. file

G. replicated_if_clustered

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

An administrate in your organization says you do not need to back up the domain files on a machine that only managed servers run. Select the best explanation for this statement.

A. This Is true because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities.

B. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is if your security realm uses the embedded LDAP system. Which is not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility.

C. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities. The exception is for applications that are deployed to the managed server. Those files are not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility. If you back those up manually, then pack and unpack can be used.

D. This is not true. You need to back up the domain files on a machine on which only managed servers run by using operating system commands (such as tar or zip).

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which statement is true about stopping Node Manager?

A. If you stop Node Manager, the managed servers it started will also stop.

B. You may kill the Node Manager process by using operating system commands.

C. Using the stopNodeManager.sh script so Node Manager stops gradually.

D. Using the administration console, select the appropriate machine and click stop.

E. The administration server goes into ADMIN mode if it can no longer communicate with Node Manager.

F. The managed servers that Nod Manager started to go into ADMIN mode if they can no longer communicate with Node Manager.

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

You configure a data source with a non-XA driver because your (non-Oracle) database does not provide

XA drivers.

The data source will sometimes participate in global transactions with an EJB, so as you configure the

the data source you select “Supports Global Transactions” and One-phase commits.

Why is this configuration wrong?

A. You must choose an XA driver when a data source participates In global transactions.

B. “One\’ Phase Commit” always returns “ready” during phase one of the two-phase commit process\’ so it is possible you will have heuristic errors in the database.

C. “One-Phase Commit” processes this data source last In the global transactions, if the EJB must go last, you cannot use this configuration.

D. “One-Phase Commit” only allows this data source to participate in global transactions, so you cannot have a global transaction that includes an EJB.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

When creating a dynamic cluster, you have multiple options concerning how dynamic servers are distributed across machines in your domain. Identify three supported configurations.

A. Use a single machine.

B. Use all machines in a subnet.

C. Use all machines in the domain.

D. Use all percentages of machines in the domain.

E. Use all machines whose names match an expression.

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 7:

As the technical lead for your project, you have been asked to recommend a new solution to handle

frequently increasing loads on your applications. The Weblogic 12.1.2 domain currently runs with two

clusters of three servers with requests being filtered and passed by a proxy server that uses the round-robin algorithm.

However, the load sometimes exceeds the maximum capacity of all these servers combined but your

domain lacks scalability. What is the best implementation solution?

A. Add a third cluster and spread existing server instances across the clusters.

B. Modify the proxy server load balancing algorithm to weight-based.

C. Configure dynamic clusters and specify the number of server instances you anticipate at needing at peak load.

D. Tune work managers to optimize work.

E. Replace the software load balancer with a hardware load balancer.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

All administrators that deal with the production domain in your organization are extremely experienced. As

the lead administrator, you have been asked to change the administration console preferences for all

administrators so that inline help no longer displays, since no one needs It. Select the true statement about this scenario.

A. There is nothing you can do since inline help cannot be disabled.

B. There is nothing you can do for all users since disabling inline help must be done per user.

C. Log into the administration console and disable Inline help under “help.”

D. Access WLST, connect to the domain\’s admin server and use the command enable inline help (false).

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

You plan to Install WebLogic Server by using the generic JAR installer in silent mode. What are two ways to create the required response file?

A. First install or deinstall graphically. There is an option to save a response file.

B. Use the sample response file in the installation documentation as a template.

C. First run the Repository creation utility. There is an option to save a response file.

D. The response file is not required. You can answer questions interactively at the command line.

E. The genetic JAR installer does not have a silent mode .so you do not need a response file when using this installer.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 10:

Your domain consists of 30 servers. You are using the Administration Console. Which is the quickest way to identify the servers that are in a Failed health state?

A. Use the Filter button from the domain\’s Monitoring >Health tab.

B. Use the Monitoring >Health tab for each server in the domain.

C. Write a custom WLST script to print out failed server.

D. Capture a diagnostic snapshot.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

You use the Java–based Node Manager to start your managed servers. You want Node Manager to:

•Stop servers by using your custom stop script: dystopia. sh

•Restart servers when the hardware cases

•Use SSL communication

•Check server heath once per second

Below are portions of the nodemanager.properties file. Select the one that configures Node manager as described.

A. B.

C. D. E.

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

Which three statements are true about WebLogic clusters?

A. Clusters provide clients with transparent failover.

B. EJB applications can be targeted to the entire cluster.

C. All cluster members must bind to the same port number.

D. Cluster members replicate application data by using heartbeats.

E. Cluster members can be associated with one or more domains.

F. Web applications require a proxy in order to be used in a cluster.

Correct Answer: ABF

Question 13:

You are using WebLogic Server Diagnostic Framework (WLDF) Instrumentation in a system diagnostic module. The Dye Injection monitor is enabled. You know the diagnostic context ID of the request you are interested in that was processed by several. You are looking through the messages in the server log file of several.

Which statement is true?

A. You need to look at the Events Data Archive. Server log files do not contain WL DF context IDs

B. You need to look at the Harvested Data Archive. Server log files do not contain WL DF context IDs.

C. You need to look at the domain log file. Only the domain log file contains WL DF context IDs.

D. You can search the server log file for the context ID. Any message that was written to the log IDs during that request will contain the context ID.

E. You need to translate the context ID Into the corresponding transaction ID, which is the only ID in server log file entries.

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

You are deploying a web application called inventory, war. It has been installed and has the state of “prepared”. It is targeted to the Managed server named managed1. The web application\’ context root is / inventory and the starting page is index .jap.

However, you want to test the application before allowing end users access to it. In the administration console, you select inventory. war, and then select Start and “servicing only administration request.”

If you web browser, you need to enter a host and port followed by /inventory /index.jap.

Which host and port would you use?

A. managed1 host and port

B. Administration Serve host and port

C. managed1 host and Administration port

D. Administration server host and Administration port

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

You are creating and configuring a cluster by using the administration console. Which two statements are true?

A. All servers that will be part of the cluster must be created before the cluster is created.

B. You must pick the cluster messaging mode.

C. Even though you create a nondynamic cluster, you can change it to a dynamic cluster later.

D. Once the cluster is created, you cannot change its messaging mode.

E. The administration console does not provide a way to manually migrate singleton services. It must be set up to be done automatically or by using WLST.

Correct Answer: BC

At last

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[Free 1Z0-134 Dumps] Free 1Z0-134 Real Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1:

I am configuring the security policy for my JMS module. I am specifying some security conditions for the module.

Which two security conditions are valid in this context? (Choose two.)

A. The JMS module can be accessed only between 1 pm and 6 pm.

B. The JMS module should throw a custom security exception on invalid access.

C. The JMS module can process only 50 messages at a time.

D. The JMS module can be accessed only by users belonging to the Operators group.

E. The JMS module can be accessed in a receive-only mode.

Correct Answer: AD

There are two security conditions:

*time-constrained

*By Group or User

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/html/E24401_02/taskhelp/jms_modules/modules/ ConfigureJMSModuleSecurityPolicies.html

Question 2:

Review the digital certificate below.

Free 1Z0-134 exam q2

Based on what the certificate contains, which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It is a self-signed digital certificate with no certification chain.

B. It is an authentic digital certificate with a valid certification chain.

C. It is a digital certificate for a private key with a valid certification chain.

D. It is an authentic root CA certificate with a valid certification chain.

Correct Answer: A

Incorrect Answers:

C: This is 512-bit Public Key, not a private key.

Note: The subject key identifier extension provides a means of identifying certificates that contain a particular public key.

Question 3:

You want to create a WebLogic Server (WLS) Work Manager with a Response Time Request Class of one second. You start to create the following WLST script:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q3

Which two can replace the missing sequence to finish this script? (Choose two.)

A. cmo.addTarget(getMBean(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’)) cd(\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’))

B. managedServer=getMBean(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cmo.addTarget(managed server) cmo.NetworkManager(getMBean(\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorManagers/MyWorkManager\’))

C. cd(\’edit:/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cmo.addTarget(getMBean (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’)) cmo.addTarget (getMBean(\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’))

D. managedServer=getMBean(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cmo.addTarget(managedServer) cd(\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’))

E. cmo.addTarqet(\’/Servers/ManagedServer\’) cd(\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass (\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\’)

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/apirefs.1111/e13952/pagehelp/ J2EEappworkresponsetimerequestclassconfigtitle.html

Question 4:

You are creating and configuring a production WebLogic Server (WLS) domain that is highly available. Which three WebLogic Server features allow you to best accomplish this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Multiple standalone managed servers

B. Load Balancer

C. Cluster

D. DNS caching

E. Whole-server migration

F. Machine Migration

Correct Answer: BCE

B Load balancing is the even distribution of jobs and associated communications across the computing and networking resources in your environment.

C: In a WebLogic Server cluster, application processing can continue when a server instance fails.

E: Migration in WebLogic Server is the process of moving a clustered WebLogic Server instance or a component running on a clustered instance elsewhere if a failure occurs. This is called Whole-server migration.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/core.1111/e10106/aa.htm#ASHIA4083

Question 5:

My JMS file store size has grown very large and is using up a significant chunk of the disk. I need to reduce the file size during the maintenance window without impacting any relevant information.

Which utility enables me to do this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. WebLogic. store.Compacter

B. WebLogic. store.Admin

C. WebLogic. store.Reducer

D. WebLogic. file.FileUtil

Correct Answer: B

To open the persistent store administration utility from a Java command line, type the following: > java WebLogic. store.Admin Here is an example of using the compact command to compact the space occupied by a file stored in the

store’s directory. > store admin->compact -dir c:\mystores -temp dir c:\tmp Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/wls/CNFGD/store.htm#CNFGD275

Question 6:

Your WebLogic Server (WLS) environment consists of multiple domains. Which is a true statement about WLS domains? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Multiple domains can use the same or separate WLS installation while running on the same machine.

B. Domains require a minimum of one managed server.

C. Multiple domains require separate WLS installations while running on the same machine.

D. Multiple domains require individual Node Managers while running on the same machine.

E. Multiple domains can share the same administration server.

Correct Answer: A

You can use a single Oracle WebLogic Server installation to create and run multiple domains, or you can use multiple installations to run a single domain.

Incorrect Answers:

B: Domains include a special WebLogic Server instance called the Administration Server, which is the central point from which you configure and manage all resources in the domain. Usually, you configure a domain to include additional WebLogic Server instances called Managed Servers.

C: A single WLS installation can have multiple domains.

Free 1Z0-134 exam q6

D: By specifying multiple domains in the node manager. domains file, you can configure a single, machine-scoped Node Manager process that manages server instances belonging to multiple WebLogic domains.

E: Each domain requires its own Administration Server for performing management activities.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13716/ understand_domains.htm#DOMCF116

Question 7:

You are asked to configure Node Manager for your production environment. You are considering whether to use the Java version or the script-based version of Node Manager.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between the two versions?

A. If you are installing WebLogic Server on a Windows system, you must use the Java version of Node Manager.

B. The script-based version of Node Manager can be used in conjunction with inetd on supported UNIX systems.

C. The script-based version of Node Manager requires a larger footprint than the Java version.

D. When Node Manager is used for consensus leasing, you may see the faster performance with the script-based version.

Correct Answer: A

Java-based Node Manager runs within a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) process. It is recommended that you run it as a Windows service on Windows platforms and as an operating system service on UNIX platforms. For UNIX and Linux systems, WebLogic Server provides a script-based version of Node Manager.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13740/overview.htm#NODEM113

Question 8:

Your organization is using a Multi data source (MDS) on WebLogic Server to support applications connecting to an Oracle RAC database. You have been tasked with configuring a new callback handler for the MDS.

Which two statements are true concerning related MDS options and behavior? (Choose two.)

A. Callback handlers are optional when using the Failover MDS Algorithm.

B. If the Failover Callback Handler attribute is set on the MDS, the Test Frequency attribute is no longer used.

C. Callback handlers are called for both failover and failback decisions.

D. You can register only one callback handler for each WebLogic server.

Correct Answer: CD

C: A callback handler used to control the failover and failback within a multi-data source must include an implementation of the Weblogic.jdbc.extensions.ConnectionPoolFailoverCallback interface.

D: You can register a callback handler with WebLogic Server that controls when a multi-data source with the Failover algorithm fails over connection requests from one JDBC data source in the multi-data source to the next data source in the list.

Incorrect Answers:

B: The frequency of these tests is controlled by the Test Frequency Seconds attribute of the multi-source. The default value for Test Frequency is 120 seconds, so if you do not specifically set a value for the option, the multi-data source will test disabled data sources every 120 seconds.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/web.1111/e13737/ jdbc_multidatasources.htm#JDBCA223

Question 9:

You are managing and monitoring durable subscribers for your JMS topics to ensure that all the subscribers would receive persistent messages.

However, JMS connections are currently restricted, so only one connection with the same client ID could exist in the scope of your cluster.

On which page of the Administration Console can you set the Client ID Policy to unrestricted in order to lift this restriction? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Topic > Monitoring > Durable Subscribers

B. Connection Factory > Configuration > Client

C. Topic > Configuration > Thresholds and Quotas

D. Topic > Configuration > Overrides

E. Topic > Configuration > Durable Subscribers

F. JMS Server > Configuration > Durable Subscribers

Correct Answer: B

You can find help on Client ID Policy configuration through the following path:

OTN Home > Oracle WebLogic Server 12.1.1.0 Documentation > Administration Console Online Help > JMS Connection Factory: Configuration: Client

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24329_01/apirefs.1211/e24401/pagehelp/ JMSjmsconnectionjmsconnectionfactoryconfigclientparamstitle.html

Question 10:

Examine the domain diagram:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q10

What is the correct path within the configuration hierarchy to the MBean that contains the log rotation parameters for server04? (Choose the best answer.)

A. /Servers/server04/Log/server04

B. /server04/log/rotation

C. /Cluster01/server04/log

D. /Machine02/server04/log

E. /Logs/server04

F. /TestDomain/server04/log

G. /server04/log

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which two automatic migration scenarios require a node manager for all migratable services? (Choose two.)

A. Consensus leasing

B. Database leasing with no pre and post-migration scripts

C. Database leasing with pre and post-migration scripts

D. Synchronous leasing

Correct Answer: AC

When using automatic service migration, the Node Manager is required to get health monitoring information about the member servers involved, as follows:

Consensus leasing? Node Manager must be running on every machine hosting managed servers within the cluster.

Database leasing? Node Manager must be running on every machine hosting managed servers within the cluster only if pre/post-migration scripts are defined. If pre/post-migrations are not defined, then Node manager is not required.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs103/cluster/service_migration.html

Question 12:

Which two statements are true about the role of cluster master in whole server migration? (Choose two.)

A. There is exactly one cluster master in the cluster at a given point in time.

B. The cluster master must host all the pinned services in the cluster.

C. Any managed server in the cluster can serve as the cluster master.

D. A cluster master must always be different from a singleton master.

E. The cluster master must always be started with the node manager.

Correct Answer: AC

One server instance in a cluster that contains migratable servers acts as the cluster master and

orchestrates the process of automatic server migration, in the event of failure.

Any Managed Server in a cluster can serve as the cluster master, whether it hosts pinned services or not.

Note: Any server instance in the cluster can serve as the cluster master. When you start a cluster that

contains migratable servers, the first server to join the cluster becomes the cluster master and starts up the

cluster manager service. If a cluster does not include at least one migratable server, it does not require a

cluster master, and the cluster master service does not start up.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13709/migration.htm#CLUST285

Question 13:

You are trying to set up a JMS Session with a specified acknowledgment mode. You want the application that receives the message to explicitly take care of the acknowledgment.

Which option represents a valid choice for the acknowledgment mechanism that you can use? (Choose the best answer.)

A. AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE

B. CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE

C. DUPS_OK_ACKNOWLEDGE

D. DEFAULT_ACKNOWLEDGE

Correct Answer: B

With CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE the Session object relies on the application to call an acknowledged method on a received message. Once the method is called, the session acknowledges all messages received since the last acknowledgment.

Incorrect Answers:

A: With CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE the Session object acknowledges receipt of a message once the receiving application method has returned from processing it.

C: With DUPS_OK_ACKNOWLEDGE the Session object acknowledges receipt of a message once the receiving application method has returned from processing it; duplicate acknowledges are permitted.

D: There is no acknowledge mode named DEFAULT_ACKNOWLEDGE.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html

Question 14:

You created a script to monitor your WebLogic Server WLS Execute Thread:

Free 1Z0-134 exam q14

Here is a message in your ExecuteThread.log file:

What is the value of xxxx if the thread has been running a request for twenty minutes, assuming a default configuration?

A. SRANDBY

B. ACTIVE

C. STUCK

D. RUNNING

E. WAITING

F. ADMIN

G. FAILED

Correct Answer: C

This thread is considered Stuck by WebLogic because it\’s been running for over the time defined in MaxStuckThreadTime (600 seconds by default). Weblogic Server waits for this time to be reached before marking a thread as stuck if the thread is still working after this time.

Example: [STUCK] ExecuteThread: \’2\’ for queue: \’weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)\’ id=73 idx=0x128 nid=13410 prio=1 alive, in native, daemon

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/WebLogicServer/entry/analyzing_a_stuck_weblogic_execute

Question 15:

You have a multithreaded application that looks up the WebLogic JMS ConnectionFactory object from the JNDI tree.

Which statement is correct in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.)

A. It is not permitted. A multithreaded application cannot access the ConnectionFactory object.

B. The access to the ConnectionFactory object MUST be synchronized.

C. The ConnectionFactory object can be referenced in a multithreaded application without any special considerations.

D. Multiple threads trying to use the ConnectionFactory object simultaneously will throw an exception.

E. In a multithreaded scenario, connection objects cannot be safely created from the ConnectionFactory.

Correct Answer: B

A connection factory supports concurrent use, enabling multiple threads to access the object

simultaneously.

A session and its message producers and consumers can only be accessed by one thread at a time (i.e.

the access must be synchronized). Their behavior is undefined if multiple threads access them

simultaneously.

Incorrect Answers:

A, E: A connection factory supports concurrent use, enabling multiple threads to access the object

simultaneously.

C, D: A session and its message producers and consumers can only be accessed by one thread at a time.

Their behavior is undefined if multiple threads access them simultaneously.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html

At last

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