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Free Share 1Z0-808 Dumps Latest Questions And Answers

Question 1:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 1

What is the result?

A. 10: 10

B. 5: 5

C. 5: 10

D. Compilation fails

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Given:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 2

What is the result?

A. box B. no

C. bo

D. nb

E. An exception is thrown at runtime

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which three are the advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function

B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors

C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions

D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred

E. Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 4:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 4

What is the result?

A. Jesse 25 Walter 52

B. Compilation fails only at line n1

C. Compilation fails only at line n2

D. Compilation fails at both line n1 and line n2

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Given:

class Mid {

public int finding(int n1, int n2) {

return (n1 + n2) / 2;

}

}

public class Calc extends Mid {

public static void main(String[] args) {

int n1 = 22, n2 = 2;

// insert code here

System.out.print(n3);

}

}

Which two code fragments, when inserted at // insert code here, enable the code to compile and print 12?

A. Calc c = new Calc(); int n3 = c.findMid(n1,n2);

B. int n3 = super.findMid(n1,n3);

C. Calc c = new Mid(); int n3 = c.findMid(n1, n2);

D. Mid m1 = new Calc(); int n3 = m1.findMid(n1, n2);

E. int n3 = Calc.findMid(n1, n2);

Correct Answer: AD

Incorrect: Not B: circular definition of n3. Not C: Compilation error. line Calc c = new Mid(); required: Calc found: Mid Not E: Compilation error. line int n3 = Calc.findMid(n1, n2); non-static method findMid(int,int) cannot be referenced from a static context


Question 6:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 6

Assume that the system date is June 20, 2014. What is the result?

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 6-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 7

What is the result?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 29

D. Compilation fails

E. AnArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 8

What is the result?

A. May 04, 2014T00:00:00.000

B. 2014-05-04T00:00: 00. 000

C. 5/4/14T00:00:00.000

D. An exception is thrown at runtime.

Correct Answer: D

java.time.temporal.UnsupportedTemporalTypeException: Unsupported field: HourOfDay


Question 9:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 9

And given the requirements:

If the value of the qty variable is greater than or equal to 90, discount = 0.5 If the value of the qty variable is between 80 and 90, discount = 0.2 Which two code fragments can be independently placed at line n1 to meet the requirements?

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 9-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

Given:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 10

The class is poorly encapsulated. You need to change the circle class to compute and return the area instead.

Which two modifications are necessary to ensure that the class is properly encapsulated?

A. Remove the area field.

B. Change the getArea( ) method as follows: public double getArea ( ) { return Match.PI * radius * radius; }

C. Add the following method: public double getArea ( ) {area = Match.PI * radius * radius; }

D. Change the access modifier of the SerRadius ( ) method to be protected.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 11

What is the result?

A. 10 8 6 4 2 0

B. 10 8 6 4 2

C. AnArithmeticException is thrown at runtime

D. The program goes into an infinite loop outputting: 10 8 6 4 2 0. . .

E. Compilation fails

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Given:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 12

Which code fragment should you use at line n1 to instantiate the dvd object successfully?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Given the for loop construct:

for ( expr1 ; expr2 ; expr3 ) {

statement;

}

Which two statements are true?

A. This is not the only valid for loop construct; there exists another form of for loop constructor.

B. The expression expr1 is optional. it initializes the loop and is evaluated once, as the loop begins.

C. When expr2 evaluates to false, the loop terminates. It is evaluated only after each iteration through the loop.

D. The expression expr3 must be present. It is evaluated after each iteration through the loop.

Correct Answer: BC

The statement has these forms:

for (init-state; condition; next-stmt) {

body

}

There are three clauses in the for statement.

The init-stmt statement is done before the loop is started, usually to initialize an iteration variable.

The condition expression is tested each time the loop is done. The loop isn’t executed if the boolean

expression is false (the same as the while loop). The next-stmt statement is done after the body is

executed. It typically increments an iteration variable.


Question 14:

Which three statements are true about the structure of a Java class?

A. A class can have only one private constructor.

B. A method can have the same name as a field.

C. A class can have overloaded static methods.

D. A public class must have a main method.

E. The methods are mandatory components of a class.

F. The fields need not be initialized before use.

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation:

A: Private constructors prevent a class from being explicitly instantiated by its callers.

If the programmer does not provide a constructor for a class, then the system will always provide a default,

public no-argument constructor. To disable this default constructor, simply add a private no-argument

constructor to the class. This private constructor may be empty.

B: The following works fine:

int cake() {

int cake=0;

return (1);

}

C: We can overload static methods in Java. In terms of method overloading static methods are just like

normal methods and in order to overload the static method you need to provide another static method with

same name but a different method signature.

Incorrect:

Not D: Only a public class in an application need to have a main method.

Not E:

Example:

class A

{

public string something;

public int a;

}

Q: What do you call classes without methods? Most of the time: An anti-pattern.

Why? Because it facilitates procedural programming with “Operator” classes and data structures. You separate data and behavior which isn’t exactly good OOP.

Often times: A DTO (Data Transfer Object)

Read-only data structures meant to exchange data, derived from a business/domain object.

Sometimes: Just data structure.

Well sometimes, you just gotta have those structures to hold data that is just plain and simple and has no

operations on it.

Not F: Fields need to be initialized. If not the code will not compile.

Example:

Uncompilable source code – variable x might not have been initialized


Question 15:

View the exhibit.

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 15

Given the code fragment:

 1Z0-808 Free Exam Questions 15-2

Which change enables the code to print the following?

James age: 20 Williams age: 32

A. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws MissingInfoException, AgeOutofRangeException {

B. Replacing line 5 with public static void main (String [] args) throws. Exception {

C. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding: catch(Exception e1) { //code goes here} catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}

D. Enclosing line 6 and line 7 within a try block and adding: catch (missingInfoException e2) { //code goes here} catch (AgeOutofRangeException e3) {//code goes here}

Correct Answer: C


 

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Questions and answers from 1Z0-447 free dumps are 100% free and guaranteed. 

Question 1:

What is the purpose of a VAM parameter?

A. It specifies that a Vendor Access Module is being used to perform data transformation functions.

B. It specifies that a Vendor Access Module is being used to perform data capture functions.

C. It specifies that a Virtual Access Module is being used to perform data capture functions.

D. It specifies that Virtual Application Memory is being used to perform data replication functions.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/1212/gg-winux/GWURF/ gg_parameters189.htm#GWURF737


Question 2:

You are migrating from a legacy database server to Exadata, which requires you to use different versions of GoldenGate. What do you need to configure to ensure that backward replication works?

A. The Replicat with the FORMAT RELEASEparameter.

B. The Extract with the FORMAT RELEASE parameter.

C. The Extract to write directly to the remote trail.

D. The collector with the FORMAT RELEASE parameter.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

You are experiencing an issue with the downstream database server for the Integrated Capture Downstream Model. Which step should you take to resolve the issue?

A. Ensure that the Oracle database version on the downstream database server is the same version as the source Oracle version.

B. Ensure that the platform type of the downstream database server is the same platform as the source database server.

C. Ensure that the GoldenGate version used on the downstream database server is the same version used on the source database server.

D. Ensure that the GoldenGate version used on the downstream database server is the same version used on the target database server.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/1212/gg-winux/GIORA/ic_deploy.htm#GIORA472


Question 4:

Which syntax would you use in an OBEY script to stop a process without waiting for user input?

A. stop * no input

B. stop immediate *

C. stop *!

D. stop force *

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is the SOCKSPROXY subparameter of the RMTHOST parameter typically used for?

A. replicating information using a SOCKS5 proxy server, thereby creating a tunnel for TCP communication between a source Extract and a target process

B. connecting to a source database via secure communication

C. remote capturing

D. configuring remote database access

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.dba86.com/docs/oracle/ogg/E66315_01/gg-winux/GWURF/ rmthost.htm#GWURF631


Question 6:

You edit the GLOBALS file, save the changes, and restart GGSCI to have the change take effect. However, when you try to start the Manager, it fails. Which action should solve the problem?

A. Use the CLEANUPREPLICAT command.

B. Use a text editor to check the GLOBALS file for syntax errors and correct them.

C. Verify that Oracle environment variables are set correctly.

D. Add the Oracle GoldenGate Installation directory to the system PATH.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which three are the responsibility of the MGR process? (Select three.)

A. Process management

B. Trail File management

C. Data movement

D. Receive or route requests from the UI E. Trigger execution

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 8:

You want to issue GoldenGate commands from a script. What sequence of steps should you follow to accomplish this?

A. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Run GGSCI ./ input_file, where the file name is the script file.

B. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Enter eggs < input_file from the command line of the operating system, where the input_file is an OBAY text file.

C. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Run GGSCI < input_file, where the file name is an OBEY file.

D. Create a text file that contains the commands that you want to issue, in the order they are to be issued. Enter eggs./ input_file from the command line of the operating system, where the file name is the script file.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/c1221/gg-winux/GWUAD/getting-started-oraclegoldengate-process-interfaces.htm#GWUAD1096


Question 9:

Which command provides statistics about GoldenGate processes and memory resource utilization?

A. SEND…CACHEMGR

B. SEND…LOGSTATS

C. SEND…GETTCPSTATS

D. INFO…SHOWCH

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You want to monitor replication not only to check that the processes are running, but to specifically verify that the data continuously replicates. How should you accomplish this?

A. Implement GoldenGate Monitor.

B. Have the customer continuously update the application data.

C. Monitor the GoldenGate lag and last checkpoint time statistics.

D. Implement heartbeat tables for replication.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/havawala-goldengate-091741.html


Question 11:

You must return column-level detail for out-of-sync rows. How can you accomplish this?

A. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Agent executes database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

B. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Manager executes auto-memory database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

C. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Agent source database executes database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

D. The Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Manager executes database-related requests on behalf of the Oracle GoldenGate Veridata Server.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/v1221/gg-veridata/GVDAD/ about_ogg_veridata.htm#GVDAD114


Question 12:

You must replicate to JMS Queues. Which product in the Oracle GoldenGate portfolio should be used?

A. Oracle Goldengate for Big Data

B. Oracle Goldengate Application Adapters

C. Oracle Goldengate Veridata

D. Oracle Data Integrator Adapters

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/fmw/goldengate/11g/ GGS_Sect_Config_from_WinUX_ORA_to_AMQ_JMS.pdf


Question 13:

You want to use multiple concurrent Extract process groups. What is the key factor in determining how many can be running at the same time?

A. the number of concurrent users

B. disk space

C. system memory

D. the number of compound keys on the source tables

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/goldengate/1212/gg-winux/GWUAD/ wu_performance.htm#GWUAD1131


Question 14:

Your Replicat performance seems slow. Which Replicat parameter can be used to improve performance?

A. DEFERAPPLYINTERVAL

B. BATCHSQL

C. ASSUMETARGETDEFS

D. SPECIAL RUN

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/goldengate-cloud/gwuad/tuning-replicattransactions.html


Question 15:

When is a Pump not required to connect to a source database?

A. when transformations, filtering, and mapping are required

B. when lookups are needed against the source database

C. when a PASSTHRU parameter is used

D. when a NOPASSTHRUparameter is used

Correct Answer: B


 

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Question 1:

Identify two implementation strategies of changed data capture provided through ODI Knowledge Modules. (Choose two.)

A. extracting source data to flat files

B. triggers

C. Oracle GoldenGate

D. before-and-after database image comparison

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

How does the data flow when moving records between two servers by using Database Links and an Agent installed on a middle-tier server? (Choose the best answer.)

A. from the source database into flat files that are then loaded into the target database

B. directly from the source database to the target database

C. from the source database onto the server running the Agent and then into the target database

D. from the source database into the machine running ODI Studio and then into the target database

Correct Answer: B

(https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1213/odi/ODIUN.pdfpage 2-3)


Question 3:

You are a project developer using ODI and want to consolidate your own local metadata repositories.

Identify the true statement. (Choose the best answer.)

A. You must consolidate your own local metadata repositories. The local metadata must be transmitted via ftp and synchronized with a dedicated proprietary engine, creating a common metadata model for all the developers.

B. You must consolidate your own local metadata repositories. You have to invoke a dedicated web service to synchronize the metadata by using Oracle Service Bus.

C. You need not consolidate your own local metadata repositories, because the ODI proprietary metadata server allows all developers to share the common metadata of a specific project.

D. You need not consolidate your own local metadata repositories because ODI uses a centralized relational metadata repository that all the developers share.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

How should you define the Work Schema of a Physical Schema? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Use a dedicated schema such asODI_STAGING.

B. UseTEMP.

C. Use the same schema as the Data Schema.

D. Use SYSTEM.

Correct Answer: A

(http://www.rittmanmead.com/2014/12/data-integration-tips-one-data-server/)


Question 5:

You have been tasked with designing a Mapping that must perform an initial load and incremental updates using the same transformation logic.

How should you proceed? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Create a single Mapping with two Physical Designs: one for the initial load and one for the incremental updates.

B. Create a single Mapping with a single Physical Design and modify it appropriately when an initial load is required or when an incremental update is required.

C. Create two Mappings: one for the initial load and one for the incremental updates. Duplicate the transformation logic.

D. Create a single Mapping and use variables in the Logical Design to do an initial load when required or an incremental update otherwise.

Correct Answer: D

(https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/odi/ODIDG/mappings.htm#ODIDG1614)


Question 6:

How are the ODI repositories upgraded? (Choose the best answer.)

A. by using Opatch

B. by using ODI Studio

C. by using the import/export utilities

D. by using Upgrade Assistant

Correct Answer: A

(http://odibeginnertutorials.blogspot.in/2013/12/odi-12c-installation-and-odi-12c.html)


Question 7:

You must run the same mapping concurrently while avoiding clashes of ODI temporary objects.

How must you implement this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Create a custom KM to handle this by using ODI variables defined at the Topology level to create unique temporary object names.

B. Use variables in the Logical Design of the Mapping to create unique temporary object names.

C. Create a custom Knowledge Module (KM) to handle this by using ODI variables to create unique temporary object names.

D. Select the Use Unique Temporary Object Names check box at the Physical Design level.

Correct Answer: D

(https://blogs.oracle.com/dataintegration/entry/odi_12c_parallel_target_table)


Question 8:

Which tables created by ODI contain error records? (Choose the best answer.)

A. ERR$

B. ERROR$

C. ODI_ERR$

D. E$

Correct Answer: D

(https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/odi/ODIKD/ckm.htm#ODIKD925)


Question 9:

Your customer wants a project in ODI, which contains a user function, to translate commands with different syntax for different technologies but with the same functionality.

How can you achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The project must be explicitly mapped within an ODI mapping.

B. A customized knowledge module is needed.

C. An ODI procedure must be associated with it.

D. It can be defined for every technology listed in the topology.

Correct Answer: D

(http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/integrate.1111/e12643/procedures.htm#ODIDG464)


Question 10:

If multiple changes occur on the source system but have not yet been processed by ODI, the J$ table contains entries for each change for the records sharing the same PK.

What happens at run time when a Mapping gets executed? (Choose the best answer.)

A. All distinct entries are processed.

B. Only the latest entry is processed based on the JRN_DATEfield.

C. Only the first entry is processed based on the JRN_DATEfield.

D. A PK violation occurs due to the duplicated entries and the entries are inserted in the E$ table.

Correct Answer: B

(http://www.ateam-oracle.com/understanding-the-odi-jkms-and-how-they-work-with- oracle-goldengate/)


Question 11:

You want to ensure that the Physical Mapping Design cannot be modified even if the Logical Design of the Mapping is changed.

What sequence of steps must you follow to achieve this? (Choose the best answer)

A. Go to the Physical tab, and select the fixed design check box of the Physical Mapping Design.

B. Go to the Physical tab, and select the Is Frozen check box of the Physical Mapping Design.

C. Go to the Physical tab, and select the Read-only check box of the Physical Mapping Design.

D. Go to the Physical tab, and deselect the Modify check box of the Physical Mapping Design.

Correct Answer: C

(https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/odi/ODIDG/mappings.htm#ODIDG1560)


Question 12:

Which two statements are true about the Oracle Data Integrator Software Development Kit (ODI SDK)? (Choose two.)

A. It enables developers to execute most ODI operations through a Java program.

B. It can be used to embed ODI processes into another product.

C. It is used to load data between Teradata and Oracle.

D. It must be used by ETL developers to develop ODI processes.

Correct Answer: AD

(https://foursconsultancy.wordpress.com/odi/oracle-data-integrator-12c- components/)


Question 13:

How do you reuse a configuration of OdiSendMail across multiple packages? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add a sub-model to a package, set the Sub-model step to Journalizing Sub-model, and select the Extend Window and Lock Subscriber check boxes.

B. Add anOdiSendMailstep to a knowledge module.

C. Duplicate the theOdiSendMail step into multiple packages.

D. Create a procedure with a step that usesOdiSendMailand add this procedure into multiple packages.

Correct Answer: D

(https://blogs.perficient.com/oracle/2014/08/26/how-to-create-an-oracle-data- integrator-odi-package/)


Question 14:

When Oracle Data Integrator (ODI) and Oracle GoldenGate are used together, which option represents the phases of an ELT process that Oracle GoldenGate performs? (Choose the best answer.)

A. transform only

B. load and transform

C. extract and load

D. extract and transform

Correct Answer: A

(http://www.oracle.com/us/products/middleware/data-integration/oracle-goldengate- realtime-access2031152.pdf)


Question 15:

You create two mappings that both use the same changed data and run at different times. One runs every 15 minutes and the other runs once every day.

What must you do to ensure that the Mapping that gets executed more often does not consume the changed data required by the other Mapping? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Use Consistent CDC, do not perform a purge of the journal data when the first Mapping gets executed, and manually change the JRN_SUBSCRIBERcolumn in the corresponding J$table to keep the changed data present for the second Mapping.

B. Create a third mapping to copy the changed data to a staging table, which is used as the source of the second Mapping.

C. Duplicate the source data store for each Mapping.

D. Create two distinct subscribers for each Mapping.

Correct Answer: A

(http://odiexperts.com/changed-data-capture-cdc/)


 

At last

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Question 1:

Which Oracle Event Processing (OEP) data cartridge should you use to track the GPS location of buses and generate alerts when a bus arrives at its predetermined bus stop position?

A. JDBC Data

B. Oracle Spatial

C. Hadoop Big Data

D. NoSQLDB Big Data

E. Java Data

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which two statements are true about the defined Oracle JMS Adapter outbound connection?

A. It supports connections to JMS distributed queues.

B. It uses default credentials when connecting to the remote JMS provider.

C. It supports zero message loss via distributed transactions.

D. It requires the JMS consumer to explicitly commit transactions.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about working with tasks in Business Process Workspace?

A. A user can create personal to-do tasks that are unassociated with a process instance.

B. Delegating a task means transferring the task to another user or group.

C. You can see how long each completed step has taken to finish.

D. You can display the process model and view the path a process instance has taken.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 4:

For each enrollment request message, a health insurance carrier\’s web service always returns a response message acknowledging the receipt of the enrollment request. If there are problems fulfilling the requested enrollment, the web service may respond at a later time with an additional response message detailing why the enrollment could not be fulfilled.

Which Oracle SOA Suite service component should be used to implement this integration pattern?

A. BPEL Process

B. Mediator

C. Business Rule

D. Human Workflow

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Consider the current values of BPEL variables InputVariable andOutputVariable:

Free sample questions of 1Z0-434 q5

Then consider the following BPEL activity Assign1: <assign name=”Assign1”and;

<from variable =”InputVariable” part = “query_Input” query=”/ns2: query_Input/ns2:Row_Id”/>

<to variable =”OutputVariable” part = “query_Output” query=”/ns2: query_Outnput/ns2:RowId”/>

Which two changes allow Assign1 to work with the current values of InputVariableandOutputVariable?

A. adding the attribute bpelx :insertMissingToData=” yes”to line 2

B. adding the attribute bpelx :insertMissingFromData=”yes” to line 2

C. correcting the namespace prefixes in line 5

D. correcting the namespace prefixes in line 8

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

You have modeled a composite with an inbound adapter service wired to a BPEL process component.

Which method do you use to model a rejection handler for the inbound adapter service?

A. Define the rejection-handler logic in rejection-handlers.xmlin the $MW_HOME/soa/connectors directory.

B. Define the rejection-handler logic inline as a child element of the section of the inbound adapter in composite.xml.

C. Define the rejection-handler logic in a top-level catch block in the BPEL process where the QName of the fault should be bpws: rejected messages.

D. Define the rejection-handler logic in fault policies. for the composite, and then associate the fault policies. with the composite.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

To support the deployment of a new provisioning system, a company wants to install and configure a production domain with Oracle SOA Suite and Oracle Service Bus.

Which statement is true about the required effort?

A. Separate domains must be configured for Oracle SOA Suite and Oracle Service Bus.

B. The Oracle Repository Creation Utility (RCU) must be run twice to create the required schemas.

C. The installation of Oracle SOA Suite includes the installation of Oracle Service Bus.

D. A supported version of WebLogic Server must be installed before installing Oracle SOA Suite.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which two statements are correct about the Oracle Enterprise Scheduler Service (ESS) facility?

A. It is a Java EE application that is deployed to a WebLogic Server to provide distributed job request processing across a single WebLogic Server or a collection of WebLogic Servers.

B. It is shipped as a separate product and you can install it after you have completed the SOA Suite installation.

C. It is used extensively by Fusion Applications so it is well-tested.

D. It is administered via the WebLogic Server Administration Console.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 9:

What two architectural factors most heavily influence the interoperability of the Oracle Adapters with Oracle Service Bus (OSB) and Oracle SOA Suite?

A. Oracle Adapters are based on the Java EE Connector Architecture (JCA) 1.5 specification.

B. Oracle Adapters use native APIs to connect to the supported back-end applications.

C. Oracle Adapters are deployed to the same Oracle WebLogic Servers as Oracle Fusion Middleware.

D. Use of Oracle Adapters Extended Architecture (XA) features is completely optional.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

Oracle SOA Suite is being used to virtualize service calls to a third-party human resources provider. The planned service payloads will require minimum transformation. Routing is simple because service calls will be mapped one-for-one to existing third-party services. Which two components should be used to handle this service virtualization?

A. BPEL Process

B. Proxy Service

C. Mediator

D. Business Service

Correct Answer: AD


Question 11:

Which two are available as conditions for an alert rule in BAM 12c?

A. between two times

B. when rows are deleted from a data object

C. a particular day of the week

D. when a web service is invoked

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Oracle Adapters are deployed to the Oracle SOA Suite server. Which three SOA Suite components can use Oracle Adapters?

A. BPEL Process

B. Mediator

C. Proxy Service

D. Human Workflow

E. Business Rule

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 13:

You have modeled a Composite X for which the following fault policy action has been configured for

remote faults:

2

2

At runtime, when a remote fault occurs at outbound invoke, this ora-retry action is triggered. After

the two configured retries are exhausted, which one occurs?

A. The transaction of Composite X rolls back.

B. The instance is marked “open. faulted” and is available for auto-recovery.

C. The instance is marked “closed. faulted” and is available for error recovery from Enterprise Manager where the user can choose actions on the instance such as replay, rethrow, and abort.

D. The default retryFailureAction is initiated and it rethrows the error back to the caller service.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which tool would you use to enable more detailed logging of SOA components?

A. WebLogic Console

B. Enterprise Manager

C. BPM Workspace

D. WebLogic Diagnostics Framework (WLDF)

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which expiration and escalation setting can be used to route a task a specified number of levels up a management chain if the assignee does not respond in a given time period?

A. Never expire

B. Expire after

C. Route to manager

D. Renew after

E. Escalate after

F. Management chain

Correct Answer: A


 

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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about the role of Oracle Business Rules in Adaptive Case Management (ACM)?

A. Defining business rules is mandatory to be able to build, deploy, and run an ACM project.

B. Business rules are used to handle case events and take specific actions on the case.

C. Business rules are used to activate conditional case activities.

D. Oracle Business Rules is an optional component of ACM.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 2:

Which two features are provided on the Tasks page of the Business Process Workspace?

A. Display Status for Adaptive Case Management (ACM) cases.

B. View human tasks based on the user\’s permissions and assigned groups and roles.

C. Create personal to-do tasks that are unassociated with a process instance.

D. View who is currently assigned to a task that the current user has completed.

Correct Answer: BC

Explanation: The Tasks page displays tasks for the user based on the user\’s permissions and assigned groups and roles.

Perform authorized actions on tasks in the worklist, acquire and check out shared tasks, define personal to-do tasks, and define subtasks.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1213/bpm/bpm- user/bpmug_ws_gt_strt.htm#BPMUG121


Question 3:

Which statement is true about a case activity that is defined as “Automatic” and “Conditional”?

A. The activity is run automatically as soon as the case starts.

B. The activity is run by the system only after it is initiated by the user.

C. The activity is automatically run by the system as soon as it is activated by a case rule.

D. Only a BPMN case activity can be defined as “Automatic” and “Conditional”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You have a requirement to dynamically assign tasks at run time based on the employee\’s title. Which three could be used to accomplish this assignment? (Choose three.)

A. Use parametric roles to map the individual parametric role assignments and then map individual users to specific titles in the workspace using extended user properties.

B. Use parametric roles to map the individual parametric role assignments and then map LDAP groups to specific titles in the workspace using extended user properties.

C. In LDAP, ensure that individual users have been given titles and, in the workspace, associate the LDAP title attribute to a parametric role.

D. Use a business rule in the human task to dynamically assign work items to specific users or an LDAP group based on employee title.

E. In the process, edit the properties of the swimlane and assign a “title” string data object in the process payload to define a parametric role.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which human workflow service is used to get the list of outcomes defined for a task?

A. IRuntimeConfigService

B. ITaskQueryService

C. ITaskService

D. ITaskMetadataService

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Query the list of tasks using ITaskQueryService.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E15586_01/integration.1111/e10224/bp_worklistcust.htm


Question 6:

When automatically generating an ADF form from a human task, the difference between using the “Auto-Generate Task Form” and the “Launch Task Form Wizard” is that the _____.

A. “Launch Task Form Wizard” option launches a six-step “BPM Custom Form Wizard” and the “Auto-Generate” option creates the ADF project, task flow, and ADF form with one key click

B. “Launch Task Form Wizard” option does not create a new ADF project every time it is run

C. “Auto-Generate” option gives you the choice to use an existing ADF page template as the form is being created.

D. “Launch Task Form Wizard” option automatically creates an ADF page template and task flow template

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which two statements are correct on the use of business objects in a BPM project? (Choose two.)

A. A business object is defined by a complex data time.

B. Business objects are often defined in WSDL documents.

C. A business object can inherit data and behavior from a parent business object.

D. You can create a business object at either the project level or the process level.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

The initial performer of a task is determined by the role associated with the swim lane in which the task is modeled except when you use a(n) _______.

A. complex task

B. user task

C. FYI task

D. group task

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A complex user task uses a complex routing flow that is defined within the human task.BPM Studio offers a number of human task patterns out of the box, to make it easy to implement the most common types of human tasks. For example, the Simple pattern just assigns individual users or groups. The Management pattern is used for a sequential list of approvers up the management chain.

The initiator is the person who kicks off the process. For most of these, swimlane roles are used to determine assignments. For the Complex task, however, the swimlanes are irrelevant, and routing and assignments are typically more complicated.

Note: Swimlanes are the horizontal lines that run across the process editor. All flow objects must be placed within a swimlane. Swimlanes can also be used to group flow objects based on the roles defined within your process. Swimlanes that contain user tasks must have roles assigned to them. Swimlanes visually display the role responsible for performing each flow object within your process.

Additionally, you can have multiple swimlanes that are assigned to the same role. Swimlanes can make your process more readable when you must use the same role in different parts of the same process.


Question 9:

You are analyzing the different methods available to manage the life cycle of the OWSM policies in your SOA/BPM environment. Identify two statements that correctly describe OWSM policy attachments. (Choose two.)

A. Although you can boss attach and detach security policies in JDeveloper, you can detach them only in Enterprise Manager.

B. An application developer typically uses JDeveloper to create new security policies rather than select them from a prebuilt list.

C. When you use JDeveloper to associate a security policy with a web service, the policy is not really attached until application development.

D. OWSM policies can be attached and detached with WLST.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Which statement is true about using a data-first approach in Web Form Designer?

A. The process must already have an object-based process variable created.

B. The human task must already have an object-based data element defined.

C. A corresponding process data object is automatically created and mapped into and out of the human task.

D. As widgets are dragged onto the form from the palette, the firm \’s underlying XSD is automatically updated.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which three actions are available when using business rules for a case? (Choose three.)

A. Activate activities.

B. Set an activity\’s relevance.

C. Change a milestone deadline.

D. Change a required activity to an optional activity.

E. Modify case data.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 12:

Which two product features might a process analyst use the most in contrast to a process developer? (Choose two.)

A. Process simulation.

B. Business rules.

C. Mediator services.

D. WebForms.

E. BPM Studio.

F. ADF forms.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

Human workflow is implemented as a _________.

A. component within the BPEL service engine

B. separate Java server running on WebLogic Server

C. service engine within the SOA infrastructure

D. component within the BPMN service engine

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which two statements are accurate in describing features of the Business Process Workspace? (Choose two.)

A. To see tasks containing a particular word in the task title, you need to create a custom view.

B. The definition and data for a new view can be shared with a colleague.

C. A custom view needs to be created to enable the delegation of a task to another user.

D. In a task view, the task list can be sorted based on any visible column heading.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 15:

A task is considered overdue when _______.

A. there are no more renewals

B. the current date is beyond the due date

C. the current date is beyond the expiration date

D. the current date is beyond both the expiration date and the due date

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: A task is considered overdue after it is past the specified due date. This data is in addition to the expiration policy. A due date can be specified irrespective of whether an expiration policy has been specified. The due date enables Oracle BPM Worklist to display a due date, list overdue tasks, highlight overdue tasks in the inbox, and so on.

Reference: https://lomonzhang.wordpress.com/2010/07/28/the-difference-of-%E2%80%98due- date%E2% 80%99-and-%E2%80%98expiration-date%E2%80%99in-oracle-human-tasks/


 

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Question 1:

What is the purpose of the use of “command” In the CLI?

A. Use a specified server pool as the default for all commands requiring a server pool argument.

B. Use a specified virtual machine name as the default for all commands requiring a virtual machine argument.

C. Use a specified user name as the default for all commands requiring a user name argument.

D. Use a specified server name as the default for all commands requiring a server argument.

E. Use a specified group name as the default for all commands requiring a group argument.

 

Correct Answer: A

 


Question 2:

 

What component of Oracle VM Product is specifically responsible for the automatic failover process?

A. OCFS2

B. Server Pool Master

C. Oracle Clusterware

D. utility server

E. virtual machine server

 

Correct Answer: B

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11081_01/doc/doc.21/e10898/ha.htm To enable HA, you must first make sure all Virtual Machine Servers in the server pool:

Use the same shared storage.

Are they in the same OCFS2 or NFS cluster?

Are Oracle VM Server Release 2.1.2 or above?

Have the same cluster root, which is a specially designated shared storage used for heat beating in the cluster. For example, the cluster root might be example.com:/OVS for an NFS cluster, or /dev/sdd6 for an OCFS2 cluster. The heartbeat file would be located at example.com:/OVS/.server_pool_hb for an NFS cluster. There is no heartbeat file for an OCFS2 cluster as one is in-built into the file system.

Has the cluster root been mounted at /OVS? All other storage may be mounted at the standard location of / OVS/uuid.

Have moved any /OVS mount points (set in fstab for Releases 2.1 or 2.1.1) to the /etc/ovs/repositories file. All storage, even that mounted at /OVS, must be maintained in the /etc/ovs/repositories file. You can move the mount points to the /etc/ovs/repositories file with the following command:

# /usr/lib/ovs/ovs-cluster-check –alter-fstab

Have a shared cluster root at /OVS, and not local, using clustered OCFS2 on SAN, or ISCSI storage, or NFS on NAS. The default local storage is OCFS2 and is not supported with HA.


Question 3:

 

A low-priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the two valid

network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?

A. [max_rate=lMb/s]

B. [rate=lMb/s@20ms]

C. [rate=250Kb/s]

D. [max_rate=unlimited]

E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]

 

Correct Answer: BC

 


Question 4:

 

What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?

A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.

B. Enable firewalling in dom0.

C. Install virus-checking software in dom0.

D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.

E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 


Question 5:

 

Networking is not working for several guests on a particular host. Which two commands can help troubleshoot the networking?

A. xm list -1 will show all of the network interfaces for all of the virtual machines, which can be used to see which bridge is having problems.

B. config_network.py -l will show which network interfaces are in use, and which are having problems.

C. brctl show will show the status of each bridge, and which VIFs are connected to it. This can then be used to determine which bridge is having problems.

D. System-config-network will list the virtual interfaces, which can be inspected to see which are having problems.

E. ifconfig -a will show a list of all network interfaces and their current status, which will help determine which bridge is having problems.

 

Correct Answer: CE

 


Question 6:

 

What is the effect of running a server pool restore?

A. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the Oracle VM Manager database Isdeleted, and the data in the server pool master and virtual machine servers are used to restock the database.

B. When you restore a server pool, all servers are removed from the pool, and the data in the database is removed, restoring the server pool to its initial state.

C. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the server pool master will be deleted and will be synchronized with the latest information from the Oracle VM Manager database. The server pool master is responsible for updating the individual Oracle VM servers\’ agent databases.

D. When you restore a server pool, a signal is sent out to each server in the pool, which response with the current state of all of the virtual machines it hosts. This data is used to restore the data in the Oracle VM database.

 

Correct Answer: C

 


Question 7:

 

Which three are part of the JeOS toolkit?

A. Linux command to customize the JeOS images and create the template

B. JeOS license file

C. Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System. img

D. Microsoft Windows JeOS images to use for the System. img

E. Template reconfiguration scripts

F. Red Hat Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img

 

Correct Answer: ABE

Linux command is available to customize the JeOS images and for creating the template you will get a script that will allow creating the template so that template reconfiguration scripts will be the right answer and a license file should be there. So the correct 3 options I specified there.


Question 8:

 

Which statement best describes the pricing metric for Oracle VM configurations?

A. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no charge.

B. Oracle VM Server license and support contract are purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no charge.

C. Oracle VM Server license and support contract are purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager license and support contract are purchased for each server.

D. Oracle VM Server license and support contract are purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager license and support contract are purchased for one server.

E. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager support is purchased for one server.

 

Correct Answer: B

 


Question 9:

 

A virtual machine is copied onto portable media and transferred to another machine In a different server pool. The virtual machine is then run on the new host, but it falls to boot. What are two potential problems?

A. The virtual machine was not exported properly using the Oracle VM Manager.

B. The virtual machine configuration file needs to be changed to update the new paths to its virtual disk.

C. The virtual machine configuration file lists bridges that do not exist on the new host.

D. The virtual machine has not been registered with Oracle VM yet.

 

Correct Answer: AD

 


Question 10:

 

Which disk protocol is the default disk type for disks in a para-virtualized guest?

A. HD (IDE)

B. SD (SCSI)

C. XVD

D. RAW

 

Correct Answer: A

 


Question 11:

 

When an Oracle VM server starts, by default how does it map physical NICs to Xen bridges?

A. Each physical NIC is mapped to one or more virtual networks, each of which is assigned a Xen bridge.

B. One Xen bridge will be created for each physical NIC.

C. All physical NICs are mapped to a single Xen bridge.

D. No mapping of physical NICs to Xen bridges is done by default.

E. The first physical NIC is assigned to dom0\’s management; a Xen bridge is then created for each of the remaining cards.

 

Correct Answer: B

 


Question 12:

 

In a hardware virtualized environment, which answers best describe the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?

A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.

B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.

C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blackback driver is used in the guest

D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.

E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.

 

Correct Answer: A

 


Question 13:

 

What two steps are required to create a root repository in an Oracle VM server pool?

A. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with either a device path or an NFS path.

B. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.

C. Use the repos.py command with the–new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository and a device path.

D. Use the repos.py command with the path. –root option, along with either a device path or an NFS path.

E. Use the repos.py command with the–root option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.

 

Correct Answer: AE

 


Question 14:

 

When converting the hardware virtualized machine to full PV, the guest falls to boot. What line in VM? cfq is likely leftover from the HVM configuration?

A. listen = \’0.0.0.0\’

B. pae =1

C. builder=\’hvm\’

D. serial=\’pty\’

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

My suggestion is to use builder=\’hvm\’ because it works fine for once I failed to boot the server but when I made it builder=\’hvm\’ it booted fine. Another thing is if you use Linux os as a mother os then you can leftover this builder=\’hvm\’ but if you use windows2003 then you have to use builder=\’hvm\’.


Question 15:

 

In a hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?

A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.

B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.

C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.

D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.

E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest

 

Correct Answer: C

 


 

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