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Question 1:
When was SQL Developer Web released?
A. 2016
B. 2009
C. 2011
D. 2018
E. 2006
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
Which autonomous database types are available on Oracle Cloud? (Choose three.)
A. Autonomous Relation Database System
B. Autonomous Data Warehouse
C. Autonomous Streams
D. Autonomous Transaction Processing
E. Autonomous JSON Database
Correct Answer: BDE
Question 3:
In order to migrate an active database using RMAN DUPLICATE, what information do you need for the source database? (Choose two.)
A. Location of audit files
B. Listener port
C. Value of the UNDO_RETENTION parameter
D. Database unique name
E. Password for HR schema
Correct Answer: BD
Question 4:
Which entry in a Data Pump parameter file ensures consistent export using Data Pump migration to Autonomous Database?
A. PARALLEL
B. LOGTIME
C. METRIC
D. FLASHBACK_TIME
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
Which knowledge modules are supported by Oracle Data Integrator (ODI)?
A. IDB DB2
B. All of the options
C. Spark
D. Hive
E. ADW
Correct Answer: B
Question 6:
Which file types can be imported using SQL Developer Web?
A. All of the options
B. Excel
C. AVRO
D. CSV Delimited
E. JSPN
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
You have executed the mappings with Change Data Capture ( CDC ) on the source data store and you are now going through the code in the operator log for debugging. Which two tables or views do you need to inspect in the database to see whether the CDC process is writing changed data or not in Oracle Data Integration ( ODI )? (Choose all correct answers)
A. JV$D view
B. J$ table
C. JV$ view
D. JW$ view
Correct Answer: AC
Question 8:
Which port number do all the OCI GoldenGate Microservices environments use for port forwarding through NGINX?
A. 1521
B. 22
C. 1680
D. 443
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
What can you use to quickly load data into a cloud database by dragging and dropping a file in a web browser?
A. Remote cloning a pluggable database (PDB)
B. RMAN Transportable Tablespace
C. Data Pump Transportable Tablespaces
D. DataLoad tab of the SQL worksheet in Database Actions
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
When integrating data from multiple sources into a Data Warehouse schema, you want to check a length constraint that you have imposed on one of the target columns before the rows arrive in the target table. All the rows that do not pass this quality check will have to be isolated in error tables. For this, you have chosen an Integration Knowledge Module (IKM) that supports flow control.
You have also chosen the value range for this parameter to enable this check. At compile time, you see that Oracle Data Integrator (ODI) throws an error and the execution cannot start. What is the reason?
A. Primary key was not defined on the target table.
B. The Check Knowledge Module was not set in the physical design.
C. The integration type was not set in the logical design.
D. There were no rows compliant with imposed constraints.
Correct Answer: B
Question 11:
Which developer tool is web-based, function-rich, and resides in a low-code development environment?
A. APEX
B. RMAN
C. IMPEXPDP
D. DATAPUMP
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
What are the TWObenefits of Extract-Load-Transform (ELT) over traditional Extract-Transform-Load (ETL) architectures? (Choose all correct answers)
A. ELT architecture reduces the amount of network traffic over traditional ETL tools, which use a dedicated server.
B. ELT architecture can easily become a bottleneck by placing excessive loads on the target servers.
C. ELT architecture does not require dedicated hardware and leverages native data management engines, such as Big Data and RDBMS.
D. Traditional ETL tools use a dedicated server, which provides better performance as it can be sized to any workload.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 13:
Which technologies can you use for Zero Downtime physical migration? (Choose two.) (Choose all correct answers)
A. Data Guard
B. OracleGoldenGate
C. Data Pump
D. RMAN
Correct Answer: AD
Question 14:
When migrating an Oracle database, you must be aware of source and target requirements. Which TWO statements are true about using Oracle Zero DowntimeMigration (ZDM)? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Source Oracle Single Instance Databases can be migrated to Oracle RAC Databases with Oracle ZDM-.
B. Oracle ZDM supports cross-edition migration, allowing Standard Edition Databases to be migrated to Enterprise Edition Databases.
C. When migrating with Oracle ZDM and the target database is at a higher patch level than the source database, the data patch utility runs on the target database as a post-migration task.
D. Source Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC) Databases can be migrated to Single Instance Databases with Oracle ZDM.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 15:
Which type of checks is NOT supported by Oracle Data Integrator (ODI)?
A. conditions
B. keys
C. references
D. mandatory attributes
E. business rule
Correct Answer: E
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Question 1:
Which of the following is NOT a good use case for using the functionality available in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events service?
A. Publish all events in a specific compartment to Oracle Streaming service for later analysis.
B. Triggers Function using Oracle Functions when new files are uploaded in an OCI Object Storage bucket.
C. Publish a notification when long lived tasks complete, such as OCI Autonomous Database backup completion.
D. Capture Monitoring Alarms and invoke Autoscaling of compute instances.
E. Trigger a notification when a function completes its execution.
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
An organization has its IT infrastructure in a hybrid setup with an on-premises environment and an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) in the us-phonix-1 region. The on-premise applications communications with compute instances inside the VPN over a hardware VPN connection.
They are looking to implement an Intrusion detected and Prevention (IDS/IPS) system for their OCI environment. This platform should have the ability to scale to thousands of compute of instances running inside the VCN.
How should they architect their solution on OCI to achieve this goal?
A. Setup an OCI Private Load Balance! and configure IDS/IPS related health checks at TCP and/or HTTP level to inspect traffic
B. Configure each host with an agent that collects all network traffic and sends that traffic to the IDS/IPS platform to inspection
C. There Is no need to implement an IPS/IDS system as traffic coming over IPSec VPN tunnels Is already encrypt
D. Configure autoscaling on a compute Instance pool and set vNIC to promiscuous mode to called traffic across the vcn and send it IDS/IPS platform for inspection.
Correct Answer: B
in Transit routing through a private IP in the VCN you set up an instance in the VCN to act as a firewall or intrusion detection system to filter or inspect the traffic between the on- premises network and Oracle Services Network.
The Networking service lets you implement network security functions such as intrusion detection, application-level firewalls In fact, the IDS model can be host-based IDS (HIDS) or network- based IDS (NIDS). HIDS is installed at a host to
periodically monitor specific system logs for patterns of intrusions. In contrast, an NIDS sniffs the traffic to analyze suspicious behaviors. A signature-based NIDS (SNIDS) examines the traffic for patterns of known intrusions. SNIDS can
quickly and reliably diagnose theattacking techniques and security holes without generating an over-whelming number of false alarms because SNIDS relies on known signatures.
However, anomaly-based NIDS (ANIDS) detects unusual behaviors based on statistical methods. ANIDS could detect symptoms of attacks without specific knowledge of details. However, if the training data of the normal traffic are
inadequate, ANIDS may generate a large number of false alarms.
Question 3:
An online Stock trading application is deployed to multiple Availability Domains in the us phoenix-1 region. Considering the high volume of transactions that the trading application handles, the company has hired you to ensure that the data stored by the application available, and disaster resilient.
In the event of failure, the Recovery lime Objective (UK)) must be less than 2 hours to meet regulator requirements. Which Disaster Recovery strategy should be used to achieve the RTO requirement In the event of system failure?
A. Configure hourly block volumes backupsthrough the Storage Gateway service.
B. Configure hourly block volumes backups using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Command Line Interface (CLI)
C. Store hourly block volumes backup to NVMe device under a compute instance and generate a custom Image every 5 minutes.
D. Configure your application to use synchronous master slave data replication between Availability Domains.
Correct Answer: B
You can use theCLI, REST APIs, or the SDKs to automate, script, and manage volume backups and their lifecycle. Planning Your Backup The primary use of backups is to support business continuity, disaster recovery, and long- term archiving requirements.
When determining a backup schedule, your backup plan and goals should consider the following: Frequency:How often you want to back up your data. Recovery time:How long you can wait for a backup to be restored and accessible to the applications that use it.
The time for a backup to complete varies on several factors, but it will generally take a few minutes or longer,depending on the size of the data being backed up and the amount of data that has changed since your last backup.
Number of stored backups:How many backups you need to keep available and the deletion schedule for those you no longer need. You can only create one backup at a time, so if a backup is underway, it will need to complete before you can create another one. For details about the number of backups you can store
Question 4:
You have deployed a multi-tierapplication with multiple compute instances in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. You want to back up these volumes and have decided to use Volume Group\’s feature. The Block volume and Compute instances exist in different compartments within your tenancy.
Periodically. a few child compartments are moved under different parent compartments, and you notice that sometimes volume group backup fails.
What could be the cause?
A. You are exceeding your volume group backup quota configured.
B. You have the same block volume attached to multiple compute instances; if these compute instances are in different compartments then all concerned compartments must be moved at the same time.
C. Compute instance with multiple block volumes attached cannot move when a compartment is moved.
D. The Identity and Access Management policy allowing backup failed to move when the compartment was moved.
Correct Answer: D
You can move a compartment to a different parent compartment within the same tenancy. When you move a compartment, all its contents (subcompartments and resources) are moved with it. Moving a compartment has implications for the
contents. After you move a compartment to a new parent compartment, the access policies of the new parent take effect and the policies of the previous parent no longer apply. Before you move a compartment, ensure that:
You are aware of the policies that govern access to the compartment in its current position. You are aware of the polices in the new parent compartment that will take effect when you move thecompartment.
In some cases, when moving nested compartments with policies that specify the hierarchy, the polices are automatically updated to ensure consistency.
Question 5:
As a part of migration exercise for an existing on premises application to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCT), yon ore required to transfer a 7 TB file to OCI Object Storage. You have decided to upload functionality of Object Storage. Which two statements are true?
A. Active multipart upload can be checked by listing all parts that have been uploaded, however It Is not possible to list information for individual object part in an active multipart upload
B. It is possible to spill this fileInto multiple parts using the APIs provided by Object Storage.
C. It is possible to split this file into multiple parts using rclone tool provided by Object Storage.
D. After initiating a multipart upload by making a CreateMultlPartUpload RESI API Call, the upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort.
E. Contiguous numbers need to be assigned for each part so that Object Storage constructs the object by ordering, part numbers in ascending order
Correct Answer: AD
You can check on anactive multipart upload by listing all parts that have been uploaded. (You cannot list information for an individual object part in an active multipart upload.)
After you finish creating object parts, initiate a multipart upload by making a CreateMultipartUpload REST API call. Provide the object name and any object metadata. Object Storage responds with a unique upload ID that you must include in any requests related to this multipart upload.
Object Storage also marks the upload as active.The upload remains active until you explicitly commit it or abort it.
Question 6:
You have an application running in Microsoft Azure and want to use Oracle Autonomous Data warehouse (ADW) instance for running business analytics.
How can you build a secure solution for such a use-case?
A. Connect the Oracle ADW in your VCN to the Microsoft Azure VNet over the internet.
B. Create a software VPN connection between Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) and Microsoft Azure Virtual Network (VNet) and connect the application with Oracle ADW instance.
C. Setup an interconnect between OCI and Microsoft Azure using FastConnect and ExpressRoute. Use a Service Gateway in OCI Virtual Cloud Network to provide connectivity to the Oracle ADW instance for the application in Microsoft Azure VNet.
D. Create a software Remote Peering Connection between Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) and Microsoft Azure Virtual Network (VNet) and connect the application with Oracle ADW instance.
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Public Load Balancer\’s SSL certificate is expiringsoon. You noticed the Load Balancer is configured with SSL Termination only. When the certificate expires, data traffic can be interrupted and security compromised.
What steps do you need to take to prevent this situation?
A. Add the new SSL certificate to the Load Balancer, update backend servers to work with a new certificate and edit listeners so they can use the new certificate bundle.
B. Add the new SSL certificate to the Load Balancer, update listeners and backend sets so they can use the new certificate bundle.
C. Add the new SSL certificate to the Load Balancer and implement end to end SSL so it can encrypt the traffic from clients all the way to the backend servers.
D. Add the new SSL certificate to the Load Balancer and update backend servers to use the new certificate bundle.
E. Add the new SSL certificate to the Load Balancer and update listeners to use the new certificate bundle.
You are tasked with building a highly available, fault tolerant web application for your current employer. The security team is concerned about an increase in malicious web- based attacks across the internet and asked what you can do to add ahigher level of security to the website.
How should you architect the solution on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to meet all requirements defined by your organization? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Deploy at least 3 web application servers, each in a different fault domain, using a regional private subnet. Place a public load balancer in a regional public subnet and create a backend set for all of the web application servers. Deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) and configure the load balancer publicIP address as the origin.
B. Deploy at least 3 web application servers, each in a different fault domain, using a regional private subnet. Place a public load balancer in a regional public subnet and create a backend set for all of the web application servers. Create a Geolocation steering policy in Traffic Management and add an answer pool that directs to the public IP address of the load balancer. Configure a global catch-all rule to use this answer pool.
C. Deploy at least 3 web application servers, eachin a different fault domain, using a regional public subnet. Ensure that each web application server is assigned a public IP address. Deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) and configure one Origin for each public IP address.
D. Deploy at least 3 webapplication servers, each in a different fault domain, using a regional public subnet. Use the OCI Traffic Management service to create a load balancing policy that will resolve DNS evenly between all web servers.
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
You have designed and deployed your Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW) such that it is accessible from your on-premises data center and servers running on both private and public networks in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI).
As you are testing the connectivity to your ADW database from the different access paths, you notice that the server running on the private network is unable to connect to ADW.
Which two stepsdo you need to take to enable connectivity from the server on the private network to ADW? (Choose two.)
A. Add an entry in the Security List of the ADW allowing ingress traffic for C10R block 10.2.2.0/24
B. Add an entry in the route table (associated withthe private subnet) with destination of 0.0.0.0/: target type of NAT Gateway, add a stateful egress rule to the security list (associated with the private subnet) with destination of 0.0.0.0./0 and for all IP protocols.
C. Add an entry in the access tablelist of ASW for CIDR block 10.2.2.0/24.
D. Add an entry in the route table (associated with the private subnet) with destination of 0.0.0.0./0; target type of internet Gateway, add a stateful egress in the security list (associated with the private subnet) with destination of 0.0.0.0/0 and for all IP protocols.
E. Add an entry in the access control list of ADW for IP address 129.146.160.11
Correct Answer: BE
There are 3 connections to ADW 1- Connecting to (ADW) from Public Internet 2- Connecting to ADW (via NATor Service Gateway) from a server running on a private subnet in OCI (in the same tenancy) 3- Connecting to ADW (via internet Gateway) from a server running on a public subnet in OCI (in the same tenancy
Question 10:
You have multiple IAM users who launch different types of compute Instances and block volumes every day. As a result, your Oracle cloud Infrastructure (OCF) tenancy quickly hit the service limit and you can no longer create any new instances. As you are cleaning up environment, you notice that the majority of the Instances and block volumes are untagged. Therefore, It is difficult to pinpoint the owner of these resources verify if they are safe to terminate.
Because of this, your company has issued a new mandate, which requires adding compute instances.
Which option is the simplest way to implement this new requirement?
A. Create a policy to automatically tag a resource with the user name.
B. Create a policy using IAM requiring users to tag specific resources.This will allow a user to launch compute instances on\y if certain tags were defined.
C. Create tag variables to automatically tag a resource with the user name.
D. Create a default tag for each compartment, which ensure that appropriate tags are applied at resource creation
E. Create tag variables for each compartment to automatically tag a resource with the user name.
Correct Answer: C
Tag Variables You can use a variable to set the value of a defined tag. When you add the tag to a resource, the variable resolves to the data it represents. You can use tag variables in defined tags and default tags. Supported Tag Variables The following tag variables are supported. ${iam.principal.name}The name of the principal that tagged the resource ${iam.principal.type}Thetype of principal that tagged the resource. ${oci.datetime}The date and time that the tag was created.
Consider the following example: Operations.CostCenter=”${iam.principal.name}at${oci.datetime}” Operations is the namespace, CostCenter is the tag key, and the tag value contains two tag variables${iam.principal.name}and${oci.datetime}. When you add this tag to a resource, the variable resolves to your user name (the name of the principal that applied the tag) and a time date stamp for when youadded the tag. user_name at 2019-06-18T18:00:57.604Z
The variable is replaced with data at the time you apply the tag. If you later edit the tag, the variable is gone and only the data remains. You can edit the tag value in all the ways you would edit anyother tag value. To create a tag variable, you must use a specific format. ${}Type a dollar sign followed by open and close curly brackets.
The tag variable goes between the curly brackets. You can use tag variables with other tag variables andwith string values. Tag defaults let you specify tags to be applied automatically to all resources, at the time of creation, in a specificcompartment.This feature allows you to ensure that appropriate tags are applied at resource creation without requiring the user who is creating the resource to have access to the tag namespaces. https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Tagging/Tasks/managingtagdefaults.htm
Question 11:
You want to automate the processing of new Image files to generate thumbnails. the expected rate is 10 new files every hour. Which of the following is the most cost effective option to meet thisrequirement in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)?
A. Upload files to an OCI Object storage bucket. Every time a file is uploaded, an event is emitted. Write a rule to filter these events with an action to trigger a function in Oracle Functions. The function processes the image in the file and stores the thumbnails back in an Object storage bucket.
B. Upload files to an OCI Object storage bucket. Every time a file is uploaded, trigger an event with an action to provision a compute instance with a cloud-init script to access the file, process it and store it back in an Object storage bucket. Terminate the instance using Autoscaling policy after the processing is finished.
C. Build a web application to ingest the files and save them to a NoSQL Database. Configure OCI Events service to trigger a notification using Oracle Notification Service (ONS). ONS invokes a custom application to process the image files to generate thumbnails. Store thumbnails in a NoSQL Database table.
D. Upload all files to an Oracle Streaming Service (OSS) stream. Set up a cron job to invoke a function in Oracle Functions to fetch data from the stream. Invoke another function to process the image files and generate thumbnails. Store thumbnails in another OSS stream.
Correct Answer: A
You can invoke a function that you\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions by triggered by an event in the Events service when update the Object storage to fetch the data then the function can process the File and store back to Object storage
Question 12:
You notice that a majority of your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) resources like compute instances, block volumes, and load balancers are not tagged. You have received a mandate from your CIO to add a predefined set of tags to identify owners for respective OCI resources. E.g.if Chris and Larry each create compute instances in a compartment, the instances that Chris creates include tags that contain his name as the value, while the instances that Larry creates have his name.
Which option is the simplest way to implement this new tagging requirement?
A. Create a default tag for each compartment, which ensure that appropriate tags are applied at the time of resource creation.
B. Create an OCI Identity and Access Management policy requiring users to tag resources with their username.
C. Create an OCI Identity and Access Management policy to automatically tag a resource with the user name.
D. Create tag variables to automatically tag a resource with the user name.
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
You have an Oracle database system in a virtual cloud network (VCN) that needs to be accessible on port 1521 from your on-premises network CIDR 172.17.0.0/24.
You have the following configuration currently.
Virtual cloud network (VCD) is associated with a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), and DRG has an active IPSec connection with your on-premises data center.
Oracle database system is hosted in a private subnet
The private subnet route table has the following configuration
The private subnet route table has following configuration.
However, you are still unable to connect to the Oracle Database system. Which action will resolve this issue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Question 14:
Which threescenarios are suitable for the Oracle Infrastructure (OCI) Autonomous transaction Processing Server less (ATP-S) deployment?
A. well established, online auction marketplace is running an application where there is database usage 24? but also has peaksof activity that the hard to predict when the peaks happen, the total activities may reach 3 times the normal activity level
B. A small startup is deploying a new application fen eCommerce and it requires database to store customers\’ transactions the teamb of what the load will look like since it is a new application.
C. A midsize company is considering migrating its legacy on premises MongoDB database to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). The database has significantly higher workloads on weekends thanweekdays
D. A developer working on an Internal project needs to use a database during work hours but doesn\’t need It during nights or weekends. the project budget requires her to keep costs low.
E. A manufacturing company is running Oracle E-Business Suite application on premises. They are looking to move this application to OCI and they want to use a managed database offering for their database tier.
Correct Answer: ABD
MongoDB is a cross-platform document-oriented database program. Classified as a NoSQL database program, MongoDB uses JSON-like documents with schema, so the best to be migrated to Oracle NoSQL Database. https://blogs.oracle.com/nosql/migrate-mongodb-data-to-oracle-nosql-database Autonomous transaction Processing Serverless (ATP-S) isn\’tsupported yet for EBS database
Question 15:
You are working as a solution architect with a global automotive providerwho is looking to create a multi-cloud solution. They want to run their application tier in Microsoft Azure while utilizing the Oracle DB Systems in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI).
What is the most-fault tolerant and secure solution for this customer? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Deploy the Oracle database system into a public subnet in your VCN and assign a public IP address. Connect your application tier running in Azure to the public IP address of the database system over the internet.
B. Create aFastConnect virtual circuit with Microsoft Azure as the provider to establish a private interconnect between the application tier running in the Azure Virtual Network and the OCI VCN that contains the Oracle Databases.
C. Create an encrypted, Virtual Private Network connection between the Microsoft Azure Virtual Network that contains the application tier and the OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) that contains the Oracle Databases.
D. Use an OCI Virtual Cloud Network remote peering connection to create a remote network connection between the application tier running in Microsoft Azure Virtual Network and Oracle Databases running in the OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN).
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While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0 backup is a bottleneck.
FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.
Which two could improve read performance? (Choose two.)
A. Increase the size of tape I/O buffers.
B. Disable FORCE LOGGING for the database.
C. Increase the size of the database buffer cache.
D. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
E. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.
Correct Answer: DE
In RMAN operation, asynchronous Disk I/O is always better than synchronous I/O as a server process can
begin an I/O and then perform other work while waiting for the I/O to complete.
On operating systems that do not support native asynchronous I/O, the database can simulate it with
special I/O slave processes (DBWR_IO_SLAVES)
Question 3:
For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)
A. to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB.
B. to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB
C. to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB
D. to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB
E. to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB
F. to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed
Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)
A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.
B. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLE BIN parameter be set to ON.
C. FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLE BIN parameter be set to ON.
D. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires undoing to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.
E. FLASHBACK drop requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.
F. FLASHBACK version query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.
Correct Answer: BDF
A is incorrect. Although the statement “FLASHBACK transaction query requires to undo” is true, it is asking to retrieve all versions of a row instead. The correct answer should be F which is a FLASHBACK version query to retrieve versions between two points in time from undo.
A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.
F. FLASHBACK version query requires undoing to retrieve all versions of a row between two points in time.
Which three actions are performed by the Oracle Preinstallation RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxxpreinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where xxxx is the Oracle version and release? (Choose three.)
A. performing checks to ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are met
B. creating the oracle OS user
C. creating the OSDBA (dba) group
D. creating the oraInventory (install) group
E. creating the grid OS user
F. configuring the OS for Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access
Correct Answer: BCD
When installed, the Oracle Preinstallation RPM does the following:
Automatically downloads and installs any additional RPM packages needed for installing Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database, resolves any dependencies Creates an oracle user, and creates the oraInventory (install) and OSDBA (dba) groups for that user As needed, sets system. conf settings, system startup parameters, and driver parameters to values based on
recommendations from the Oracle Preinstallation RPM program Sets hard and soft resource limits Sets other recommended parameters, depending on your kernel version Sets numa=off in the kernel for Linux x86_64 machines.
Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)
A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.
B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.
C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.
D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.
E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.
F. They can be created only in an application root.
Correct Answer: DF
An everyday object is defined in either the CDB root or an application root and can be referenced using
metadata links or object links. A local object is every object that is not a common object.
Database-supplied common objects are defined in CDB$ROOT and cannot be changed. Oracle Database
does not support the creation of common objects in CDB$ROOT.
You can create most schema objects such as tables, views, PL/SQL and Java program units, sequences, and so on—as common objects in an application root. If the object exists in an application root,
then it is called an application common object.
ACCORDING TO THE LECTURE, THE CORRECT ANSWERS ARE: DF
D: they can exist in CDB$ROOT and application root.
F: they can be created only in the application root.
Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.
B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
C. A DBA can run it manually.
D. Results are written to the alert log.
E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.
Correct Answer: BC
Results are written in the alert log. -Incorrect .. stores in AWR not in an alert log file.
Question 8:
Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)
A. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.
B. the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files
C. the list of disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup
D. default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
E. the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation
F. the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance
Correct Answer: ABE
A – ORACLE_BASE, ORACLE_HOME – correct B – TNS_ADMIN, old TWO_TASK, etc – correct C – file parameter ASM_DISKGROUPS, not env variable D – [s]pfile parameter DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST, not env variable E – TMP, TEMP – correct F – [s]pfile parameter DB_FILES, not env variable
Question 9:
Which three are true about patch auto? (Choose three.)
A. It performs a shutdown and then restarts all processes in Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process.
B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges.
C. Patches are applied via patch auto.
D. Users must always input patch plans to patch auto.
E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before invoked.
F. It applies patches in non-rolling mode by default.
G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations.
Correct Answer: ABG
A. It performs a shutdown and then restarts all processes in Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home during the patching process. => True
B. It must be invoked by a user with root user privileges. => true
C. Patches are applied via opatchauto. => not always.
D. Users must always input patch plans to opatchauto. => false, patch plans are optional
E. It requires the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database instances to be shut down before invoked. => false
F. It applies patches in non-rolling mode by default. => false, default is the rolling mode.
G. It is used to apply interim patches to Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database home combinations. => true
Correct: A, B, G Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/doc.121/e39376/opatchauto_commands.htm#OPTCH585 https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/doc.121/e39376/configuration_patching.htm#OPTCH149
Question 10:
Which two are true about the character sets used in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A. Single-byte character sets provide better performance than multibyte character sets.
B. Unicode enables information from any language to be stored using a single character set.
C. Unicode is the only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
D. Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.
E. Multibyte character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single-byte character sets.
F. Single-byte character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.
Correct Answer: AB
A > Single-byte character sets result in better performance than multibyte character sets, and they also are
the most efficient in terms of space requirements.
B> Unicode is a universal encoded character set that enables information from any language to be stored
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4. Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5. Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.
7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Correct Answer: C
Question 13:
Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.
B. The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory group.
C. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.
D. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.
E. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.
F. The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.
Correct Answer: BD
A – false – Members of this group are granted the SYSASM system privilege to administer Oracle ASM.SYSASM system privileges do not grant access privileges on an Oracle Database instance. B- Correct C – false Only if you wish to define role separation but is not a must D – correct E- false OSOPER is optional is not a must F – the same OSDBA could be used but is not a must ( usually SYSDBA and SYSASM are used for separation us duties )
Which three are true about transporting databases across platforms using Recovery Manager (RMAN) image copies? (Choose three.)
A. By default, the transported database will use Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
B. Data files can be converted to the destination system.
C. Data files can be converted to the source system.
D. A new DBID is automatically created for the transported database.
E. Databases can be transported between systems with different endian formats.
F. The password file is automatically converted by RMAN.
Correct Answer: BCE
A is wrong. There is no default, the file can either be OMF or user-managed.
B is correct. Use the RMAN CONVERT DATABASE ON DESTINATION PLATFORM clause.
C is correct. Use the RMAN CONVERT DATABASE ENW DATABASE clause.
D is wrong. Use the DBNEWID Utility (the only way to change a DB\’s DBID) on the new destination to
change the DBID.
E is correct. We use the RMAN CONVERT clause.
F is wrong. The password file is “outside” the database and must be manually re-created on the new
destination if you do not want to use OS authentication. Also, this file does not need conversion.
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Question 1:
Which workload CANNOT be run on Oracle Database 19c?
A. Machine Learning
B. Translytical
C. Gaming
D. Hadoop Clusters
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
What is NOT a workload that can be selected when provisioning an Autonomous Database?
A. Data Warehouse
B. MySQL
C. APEX
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
Multicloud strategy eliminates the reliance on a single cloud provider but also provides which two advantages? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Ability to have private clouds and maintain customer data centers
B. Compliance for use of specific geographies for data sovereignty laws
C. Duplication of data and applications
D. Workload utilization of specific services
Correct Answer: BD
Question 4:
What is a prerequisite for running APEX on an Autonomous Database?
A. A DBA must enable ORDS first.
B. APEX can simply be installed by downloading the executable from OTN.
C. APEX can only be used when selecting APEX as a workload when provisioning an Autonomous Database.
D. An Autonomous Database with the workload type Data Warehouse, Transaction Processing, JSON, or APEX.
E. A DBA must create APEX admin and APEX users first before starting APEX from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console.
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
Which two are the objectives of Oracle\’s Data Management strategy? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Offer multiple integration points for 3rd party databases that work better for mixed and analytic workloads.
B. Automate everything for developers, data analysts, DBAs, and data scientists.
C. Provide the fastest, most scalable converged SQL database.
D. Provide the best platform for warehouse workloads only.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 6:
Which is NOT a resource type for NoSQL Database Cloud Service?
A. Nosql-keys
B. Nosql-indexes
C. Nosql-rows
D. Nosql-tables
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
Which service is used by default by the MySQL Database Service to store user data to make it more resistant to failures?
A. OCI Object Storage
B. OCI File Storage
C. OCI Block Volumes
D. OCI Data Safe
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Which three data file formats can be loaded using Oracle Database Actions? (Choose all correct answers)
A. JASON
B. AVRO
C. CSV
D. VSAM
E. Continue
F. Retake test
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 9:
Which security measure is implemented out-of-the-box, and is included if you are not using BYOL licensing with Exadata Cloud@Customer?
A. Audit Vault and Database Firewall
B. Oracle Native Network Encryption and TDE (Transparent Data Encryption)
C. Oracle Key Vault
D. Database Vault and Data Masking Pack
Correct Answer: B
Question 10:
What are the two main benefits of Oracle APEX? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Rapidly develop, customize, and deliver secure applications
B. Store data in PL/SQL objects
C. Faster development time using hand-coding
D. Less productivity compared to hand coding
E. Develop responsive web apps
Correct Answer: AE
Question 11:
What is the FINAL release supporting the non-CDB architecture?
A. Oracle Database 23c
B. Oracle Database 21c
C. Oracle Database 18c
D. Oracle Database 19c
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
Which two statements about ORDS are true? (Choose all correct answers)
A. ORDS is a low-code development platform to build responsive applications.
B. ORDS stores, manages, and indexes JSON documents
C. ORDS makes REST APIs in the Oracle Database available.
D. ORDS creates servlets for the Data Dictionary
Correct Answer: CD
Question 13:
Which statement can be detected by monitoring access to sensitive data?
A. SELECT SYSDATE from DUAL;
B. CREATE index emp_id_idx on EMPLOYEES(emp_id);
C. UPDATE quarter_reference set Q1=\’012022\’
D. SELECT * from EMPLOYEES;
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
What information is required to connect to the NoSQL Database Cloud Service?
A. API signing key, admin ID, user ID
B. signing key fingerprint, API signing key, tenancy OCID
C. user ID, tenancy ID, component ID
D. tenancy ID, passphrase, handshake key
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
What is NOT a feature of the Oracle Autonomous Database to protect data from external and internal threats?
A. Data is encrypted
B. Admin passwords are disabled after provisioning
C. Security updates are applied online
D. Protects data from admin snooping using Database Vault
Correct Answer: A
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Question 1:
You have been asked to ensure that in-transit communication between an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) compute instance and an on-premises server (192.168.10.10/32) is encrypted. The instances communicate using HTTP. The OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) is connected to the on-premises network by two separate connections: a Dynamic IPsec VPN tunnel and a FastConnect virtual circuit. No static configuration has been added.
What solution should you recommend? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The instances will communicate by default over IPsec VPN, which ensures data is encrypted in transit.
B. Advertise a 192.168.10.10/32 route over the VPN.
C. Advertise a 192.168.10.10/32 router over the FastConnect.
D. The instances will communicate by default over the FastConnect private virtual circuit, which ensures data is encrypted in transit.
You have created a group for several auditors. You assign the following policies to the group:
What actions are the auditors allowed to perform within your tenancy? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The Auditors can view resources in the tenancy.
B. Auditors are able to create new instances in the tenancy.
C. The Auditors are able to delete resources in the tenancy.
D. Auditors are able to view all resources in the compartment.
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
You have a web application running on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) that lets users log in with a username and password. You notice that an attacker has tried to use SQL comment “–” to alter the database query, remove the password check and log in as a user. You decide to prevent any future attacks.
Which of the following OCI services or features would you choose to safeguard your application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Network Security Group
B. Data Safe
C. Web Application Framework (WAF)
D. Vault
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
One of the compute instances that you have deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) is malfunctioning. You have created a console connection to remotely troubleshoot it.
Which two statements about console connections are TRUE? (Choose two.)
A. It is not possible to use VNC console connections to connect to Bare Metal Instances.
B. VNC console connection uses SSH port forwarding to create a secure connection from your local system to the VNC server attached to your instance\’s console.
C. It is not possible to connect the serial console to an instance running Microsoft Windows, however, VNC console connection can be used.
D. For security purposes, the console connection will not let you edit system configuration files.
E. If you do not disconnect from the session, your serial console connection will automatically be terminated after 24 hours.
Correct Answer: BE
Question 5:
You are using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Command Line Interface to launch a Linux virtual machine. You enter the following command (with correct values for all parameters): The command fails.
Which is NOT a valid parameter in this command? (Choose the best answer.)
A. –t
B. – –image-id
C. – –shape “andlt;shape_name>”
D. –c
E. – –subnet-id
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
You have received an email from your manager to provision new resources on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). When researching OCI, you determined that you should use OCI Resource Manager. Since this is a task that will be done multiple times for development, testing, and production. You will need to create a command that can be reused.
Which CLI command can be used in this situation? (Choose the best answer.)
A. once resource-manager stack create ––tenancy–id \ ––config-source prod.zip ––variables file://variables.json \ ––display-name Production stack build \ ––description Creating new Production environment
B. once resource-manager stack update ––compartment–id \ ––config-source prod.zip ––variables file://variables.json \ ––display-name “Production stack build” \ ––description Creating new Production environment
C. once resource-manager stack create ––compartment–id \ ––config-source prod.zip ––variables file://variables.json \ ––display-name Production stack build \ ––description Creating new Production environment
D. once resource-manager stack update ––tenancy–id \ ––config-source prod.zip ––variables file://variables.json \ ––display-name “Production stack build” \ ––description Creating new Production environment
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
You are asked to deploy a new application that has been designed to scale horizontally. The business stakeholders have asked that the application be deployed in us-phoenix-1.
Normal usage requires 2 OCPUs. You expect to have a few spikes during the week, which will require up to 4 OCPUs, and a major usage uptick at the end of each month that will require 8 OCPUs.
What is the most cost-effective approach to implementing a highly available and scalable solution? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Create an instance pool with a VM. Standard 2.2 shape instance configuration. Set up the autoscaling configuration to use 2 availability domains and have a minimum of 2 instances, to handle the weekly spikes and a maximum of 4 instances.
B. Create an instance with 1 OCPU shape. Use the Resize Instance action to scale up to a larger shape when more resources are needed.
C. Create an instance with 1 OCPU shape. Use a CLI script to clone it when more resources are needed.
D. Create an instance pool with a VM. Standard 2.1 shape instance configuration. Set up the autoscaling configuration to use 2 availability domains and have a minimum of 2 instances and a maximum of 8 instances.
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
You have been asked to set up connectivity between a client\’s on-premises network and Oracle Cloud
Infrastructure (OCI). The requirements are:
Low latency: The applications are financial and require low latency connectivity into OCI.
Consistency: The application isn’t tolerant of performance variation.
Performance: The communications link needs to support up to 1.25 Gbps.
Encryption: The communications link needs to encrypt any data in transit between the on-premises
network and OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN).
The client wants to implement the above with as low a cost as possible while meeting all of the
requirements. What should you suggest? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Provision FastConnect with a single private virtual circuit, and run an IPsec VPN tunnel over the top of this virtual circuit.
B. Provision FastConnect with a single public virtual circuit.
C. Provision a site-to-site IPsec VPN between your on-premises network and your virtual cloud network (VCN) using VPN Connect.
D. Provision FastConnect with a single private virtual circuit.
E. Provision FastConnect with a single public virtual circuit and run an IPsec VPN tunnel over the top of this virtual circuit.
Which two statements about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Command Line Interface (CLI) are TRUE? (Choose two.)
A. You can run CLI commands from inside OCI Regions only.
B. You can filter CLI output using the JMESPath query option for JSON.
C. The CLI provides an automatic way to connect with instances provisioned on OCI.
D. The CLI allows you to use the Python language to interact with OCI APIs.
E. The CLI provides the same core functionality as the Console, plus additional commands.
Correct Answer: BE
Question 10:
You have a Linux compute instance located in a public subnet in a VCN which hosts a web application. The security list attached to the subnet containing the compute instance has the following stateful ingress rule.
The Route table attached to the Public subnet is shown below. You can establish an SSH connection into the compute instance from the internet. However, you are not able to connect to the web server using your web browser.
Which step will resolve the issue? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In the routeing table, add a rule for your default traffic to be routed to the NAT gateway.
B. In the security list, add an ingress rule for port 80 (HTTP).
C. In the security list, remove the ssh rule.
D. In the routing table, add a rule for your default traffic to be routed to the service gateway.
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
Your company recently adopted a hybrid cloud architecture which requires them to migrate some of their on-premises web applications to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). You created a Terraform template that automatically provisions OCI resources such as compute instances, load balancers, and database instances. After running the stack using the terraform apply command, it successfully launched the compute instances and the load balancer, but it failed to create a new database instance with the following error:
Service error: NotAuthorizedOrNotFound. shape VM.Standard 2.4 not found. http status code: 404
You discovered that the resource quotas assigned to your compartment prevent you from using VM.Standard 2.4 instance shapes are available in your tenancy. You edit the Terraform script and replace the shape with VM.Standard2.2
Which option would you recommend to re-run the terraform command to have required OCI resources provisioned with the least effort? (Choose the best answer.)
A. terraform plan –target=oci_database_db_system.db_system
B. terraform apply –auto-approve
C. terraform refresh –target=oci_database_db_system.db_system
D. terraform apply –target=oci_database_db_system.db_system
Correct Answer: D
Question 12:
You have been monitoring your company\’s applications running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) and noticed that the application is using OCI Traffic Management service. This service uses a traffic steering policy to distribute the DNS traffic based on subnet addresses in a rule set.
Which steering policy is in use in this particular case? (Choose the best answer.)
Which option contains the essential components of the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Notifications service? (Choose the best answer.)
A. An ALARM with a name unique across the tenancy, a SUBSCRIPTION, and a METRIC with the measurement of interest.
B. A TOPIC with a name unique across the tenancy, a SUBSCRIPTION, and a MESSAGE where content is published.
C. A TOPIC with a name unique across the compartment, a SUBSCRIPTION, and a MESSAGE where content is published.
D. An ALARM with a name unique across the compartment, a SUBSCRIPTION, and a METRIC with the measurement of interest.
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
You run a large global application with 90% of customers based in the US and Canada. You want to be able to test a new feature and allow a small percentage of users to access the new version of your application.
What Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Traffic Management steering policy should you utilize? (Choose the best answer.)
Which two statements are TRUE about Object Storage data security and encryption in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)
A. Client-side encryption is managed by the customer.
B. Data needs to be decrypted on the client side before retrieving it.
C. OCI Vault Management is used by default to provide data security.
D. All traffic to and from the Object Storage service is encrypted using TLS.
E. A VPN connection to OCI is required to ensure secure data transfer to an object storage bucket.
Correct Answer: AD
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Question 1:
How can you restrict access to the OCI console from unknown IP addresses?
A. Create tenancy\’s authentication policy and create WAF rules
B. Create tenancy\’s authentication policy and add a network source
C. Make OCI resources private instead of public
D. Create PAR to restrict access the access
Correct Answer: B
Question 2:
For how long are API calls audited and available?
A. 30days
B. 90 days
C. 365 days
D. 60 days
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
In which two ways can you improve data durability in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage?
A. Setup volumes in a RAID1 configuration
B. Enable server-side encryption
C. Enable Versioning
D. Limit delete permissions
E. Enable client-side encryption
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
When using Management Agent to collect logs continuously, which is the required configuration for OCI Logging Analytics to retrieve data from numerous logs for an instance?
A. Source-Entity Association
B. Entity – Source Association
C. Agent – Entity Association
D. Entity – Agent Association
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Which is NOT a part of Observability and Management Services?
A. Event Services
B. OCI Management Service
C. Logging Analytics
D. Logging
Correct Answer: B
https://www.oracle.com/in/manageability/
Question 6:
Which statement about Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)is NOT valid?
A. Users cannot disable MFA for themselves.
B. A user can register only one device to use for MFA.
C. Users must install a supported authenticator app on the mobile device they intend to register for MFA.
D. An administrator can disable MFA for another user.
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
Which components are a part of the OCI Identity and Access Management service?
A. Policies
B. Regional subnets
C. Compute instances
D. VCN
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
Which WAF service component must be configured to allow, block, or log network requests when they meet specified criteria?
A. Protection rules
B. Bot Management
C. Origin
D. Web ApplicationFirewall policy
Correct Answer: A
Protection rules
Protection rules can be configured to either allow, block, or log network requests when they meet the specified criteria of a protection rule. The WAF will observe traffic to your web application over time and suggest new rules to apply.
When does Cloud Guard re-open an issue and update the history?
A. If it detects an issue again for an Open (unresolved) problem
B. If it detects an issue for a previously resolved/dismissed activity problem
C. If it detects an issue for a previously resolved configuration problem
D. If it detects an issue for a previously dismissed configuration problem
Correct Answer: C
If Cloud Guard detects an issue again for: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/cloud-guard/using/problems-page.htm
Question 10:
Where are logs stored?
A. OCI Object Storage
B. OCI File Storage
C. OCI Block Storage
D. Cloud Agent
Correct Answer: A
You can collect log data continuously from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage. To enable the log collection, create an ObjectCollectionRule resource using REST API or CLI. After the successful creation of this resource and having the required IAM policies, the log collection will be initiated.
As a Security Admin, you want to inspect the metadata and actual data in your Oracle databases to discover sensitive data and provide comprehensive results listing the sensitive columns and related information. Which Data Safe feature will help you to achieve the above requirement?
A. Data Masking
B. Data Discovery
C. Security Assessment
D. User Assessment
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
Which Oracle Cloud Service provides restricted access to target resources?
A. Bastion
B. Internet Gateway
C. Load balancer
D. SSL certificate
Correct Answer: A
Bastion
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Bastion provides restricted and time-limited access to target resources that don\’t have public endpoints.
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Question 1:
An employee logs into the self-service page. The employee enters into one plan and makes an election in the plan available. While making electrons, the employee notices that the option\’s rate amount isn’t displayed in the total summary section on the right side of the page.
Which is the reason for this problem?
A. The rate activity type for payroll information is configured as cost.
B. The rate activity type for payroll information is configured as an employee contribution.
C. The rate is configured as secondary rate and not a primary rate.
D. The rate is inactive.
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
A benefits consultant implemented a plan for life insurance with the following options:
1. Option 1: Employee only
2. Option 2: Employee plus spouse
The company wants the plan to be rolled out to all employees. Therefore, the benefits consultant enabled the Assign on Default button for Option 1. They forgot that some employees may not want to enroll in the plan even though they are eligible.
Where did the benefits consultant go wrong with the implementation?
A. They should have created Option 3: Coverage Declined.
B. They should not have enabled the Assign on Default button for the options.
C. They should have configured an eligibility fast formula
D. They should have enabled a plan restriction fast formula.
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
What rate is used for the flex credit program to adjust the total cost of the program?
A. Standard Primary Rate
B. Standard Rollover Rate
C. Rollover Rate
D. Standard Secondary Rate
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
The benefits administrator runs an open enrollment window on March 1, 2017 for Program:
XX Life Insurance, but cannot find the life event date of March 15, 2017.
What could be the reason for this?
A. The life event date configured for XX Life Program is not 15 March 2017
B. There is no configuration for open enrollment for the Life Program.
C. A cycle has already run for open enrollment, so no life event date is available.
D. The benefits administrator has a login from the previous date to that 15 March 20l7.
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
You are a benefits consultant implementing for a company that offers a life Insurance plan for employees with only one option-Employee Plus Family. The rate for this option is dependent on various factor5 like age/smoking status/gender:
A female employee in the under-40 age group, who is a smoker, wants to purchase $100,000 of life insurance. The plan would be 2.1 (100,000 * 0.21/1000), considering 5100,000 is the coverage she opts for. The calculation is-> {Coverage* [{Rate applied as per gender/smoking status/ aqe)/1000l).
How can you configure a rate for the company\’s plan?
A. Configure an eligibility profile with age-derived factors. Attach it to the plan. Then create a standard fate with the calculation method as Multiple of Coverage.
B. Configure a secondary rate with the calculation method as Multiple of Coverage.
C. Configure a fast formula calling this table. Configure a secondary standard rate with the calculation method as Formula. Then create another standard rate with type and the calculation method aS Multiple of Parent.
D. Configure a primary rate with the calculation method as Multiple of Coverage.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
Which statement about Waive options is true?
A. Waive options are options into which employees ate compulsorily enrolled in case they do not complete the required action items like certification, entering the date of birth, etc.
B. Waive options are used so that employees can explicitly decline enrollment opportunities for which they are otherwise eligible.
C. Waive options are options that do not require any dependent/beneficiary designation.
D. Waive options are used when employees do not get an enrollment opportunity because they do not qualify for the required eligibility criteria.
Correct Answer: B
Question 7:
Given that premiums are calculated on a monthly basis in accordance with the most common business of benefit suppliers.
What can you define so that participants who are covered by a plan for less than a full have no premium obligation?
A. Standard Rate Value
B. Standard Coverage Volume
C. Standard input Value
D. Standard wash Rule formula
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Which statement about configuring Designation Requirements is true?
A. A Designation Requirement can be configured for a plan with no option.
B. A plan must have multiple options for Designation Requirements to be configured.
C. A plan must have the waive option for Designation Requirement to be configured.
D. A Designation Requirement cannot be configured for a plan with no option.
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
Can you define overspending of a budget pool in flex credit shell plans?
A. Yes, you can define it in the spending options.
B. Yes, you can define it in the standard rates.
C. Yes, you can define it as per the flex credit formula.
D. No, you do not have a placeholder.
Correct Answer: A
Question 10:
A benefits administrator processed an enrollment for one employee and manually added the life event “XYZ” as of August 1, 2016. Since there were two more life events in the detected phase as of August 15, 2016, the benefits administrator clicked “Collapse Life Event”. Upon processing the life event tab, the benefits administrator received an error saying two or more life events were in the detected phase.
Why did the collapsing rule fail?
A. The number of proximity days was specified as 20.
B. The number of proximity days was specified as 0.
C. The life event had expired.
D. The number of proximity days was specified as 15.
Correct Answer: D
Question 11:
Can you upload student and disability statuses for multiple persons at one time?
A. Yes, it can be accomplished through a benefits administrator task.
B. Yes, it can be accomplished by creating a benefit group.
C. Yes, it can be accomplished through the spreadsheet loader.
D. No, this option isn\’t available.
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
Can you change the column text of primary and secondary rates on the Benefit self-service page?
A. No, a change option is not available in the Configure Grouping Display task.
B. Yes, a change option is available in the Enrollment Configuration task.
C. Yes, a change option is available in the Configure Grouping Display task.
D. No, a change option is available in the Configure Grouping Display task, but it doesn’t allow a text change.
Correct Answer: C
Question 13:
Which two are program types when you configure Flex Credits?
Your customer does NOT want the system to detect temporal events whenever a marriage life event is detected and processed by the application. How do you accomplish this requirement?
A. On the life event creation page, select “Do not detect past temporal events”as the Temporal Detection Rule.
B. On the life event creation page, select “Never detect this temporal life event” as the Temporal Detection Rule.
C. On the life event creation page, select “Do not detect future temporal events” as the Temporal DetectionRule.
D. On the life event creation page, select “Never detect Past or future temporal events” as the Temporal Detection Rule.
E. On the life event creation page, select “Do not detect past or future temporal events” as the Temporal Detection Rule.
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
Which three are change opportunities an organization can implement during Open Enrollment?
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Which two circumstances are FALSE when you use the Console to recover a DB system database from a backup stored in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage? (Choose all correct answers)
A. The pp system has no access to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage service location where the backup is stored.
B. You want to restore to an existing System Change Number (SCN).
C. Data Guard must be disabled, or you must first remove the Data Guard association by terminating the standby database before you can restore the database.
D. Restore the database from an unmanaged backup in Object Storage created directly by using RMAN.
E. Restore the database from a backup in Object Storage that was created by using the Console or the API.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 2:
What can you use to enable an on-premises Enterprise Manager instance to monitor Exadata Cloud Service in a private OCI subnet?
A. virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
B. Client subnet
C. Virtual Network Interface Card (VNIC)
D. FastConnect
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
Do you enable automatic backups on your Exadata Cloud@Customer.?
A. database archivelog files
B. database control files
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) key store (wallet)
D. server parameter file (SP file)
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
Which two statements are true about changing the shape of a virtual machine (VM) database (DB) system to adapt to changes in performance needs?
(Choose all correct answers)
A. After you provision a VM DB system with a shape that supports Oracle RAC, you can change that shape to another shape that does not support Oracle RAC.
B. After you provision a VM DB system, you cannot change the shape. You have to provision another VM DB system using a full backup.
C. The shape of a VM DB system can be changed at any time, with no impact on the amount of storage available to the DB system.
D. It is possible to change the shape of a VM DB system with a higher number of OCPUs. However, reducing the number of OCPUs is not permitted.
E. If the current shape of the VM DB system supports Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC), then you can only change that shape to another shape that also supports Oracle RAC.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 5:
How many DB systems must you provision before you can enable Oracle Data Guard for a virtual machine DB system database?
A. It depends on how many standby databases you want for your primary database in the Oracle Data Guard configuration in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.
B. Three, first for the primary database, second for the standby database, and a third for the staging database in the Oracle Data Guard configuration.
C. Two for both the primary and standby database, because a DB system with the database that you want to use as the standby must already exist before you enable Oracle Data Guard.
D. One with the primary database, because a new DB system with the standby database is created and associated with the primary database when you enable Oracle Data Guard.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
You are considering whether or not to implement bare metal or virtual machine shapes. Which TWO statements are true about bare metal and virtual machine (VM) database (DB) systems? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Both bare metal and vm DB systems support two-node Real Application Clusters (RAC) systems.
B. The Console, API, and Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI are options for managing bare metal DB systems.
C. Bare metal shapes determine the total raw storage allocated to bare metal DB systems.
D. Bare metal and VM DB can only have a single Database Home, and the single database will be the version of the Database Home.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 7:
The /u02 directory containing Oracle Homes (OH) is 80% utilized and you need to free up space in it. you own two Oracle Homes (OH193_A and OH193_B), each with a test database (193A and 193B respectively). You decide to consolidate both databases into a single Oracle Home (OH193. |_A) to free up space. Which TWO actions must you perform? (Choose all correct answers)
A. use the Move Database option from the console.
B. Schedule a downtime window with the Test teams who use the 193B database.
C. Copy the spinet.ora file from OH193_B to OH193_A.
D. Create a new container under 0H193B and migrate the pluggable databases (PDBs) from 193B to 193A.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 8:
You are asked to measure useful quantitative data about a MySQL Database Service system. You must provide information such as current connection information, statement activity, latency, and host OCPU, memory, and disk I/O utilization. Which THREE Oracle Cloud Infrastructure monitoring methods should you use? (Choose all correct answers)
A. data points
B. metrics
C. notifications
D. alarms
E. queries
Correct Answer: BCD
Question 9:
Which TWO statements are true when deciding which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) region to register an Exadata Cloud@Customer infrastructure in? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Exadata Cloud@Customer is hosted in a customer data center so the Exadata infrastructure is not registered in an OCI region.
B. Consider any business policies or regulations that preclude the use of a particular region.
C. Consider the physical proximity of the region you register the infrastructure into your data center.
D. The Exadata Cloud@Customerregion can be changed after the infrastructure is created.
E. Consider which availability domain (within the region) to create the Exadata Cloud@Customer infrastructure in.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 10:
Which system configuration is offered by the Oracle Database Exadata Cloud Service?
A. Each system configuration starts with a fixed amount of memory and storage resources.
B. Each system configuration starts with a fixed amount of CPU and storage resources.
C. Each system configuration starts with a fixed amount of CPU, memory, storage, and network resources.
D. Each system configuration starts with a fixed amount of CPU, memory, and network resources.
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
Resources are allocated to the DB system based on the shape selected. Which TWO are options for a DB system? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Two-node bare metal servers with 512 GB memory and locally attached drives
B. Two-node virtual machine X7 with Block Storage which can be scaled up
C. One-node bare metal server with up to 52 CPU cores and locally attached drives to the system
D. One-node virtual machine XS with 24 OCPU cores
Correct Answer: BC
Question 12:
You have been brought in to help a company with slow nightly batch processing running on their Exadata Cloud Service. You have determined the workload is CPU-bound during the batch window. Which command line tool can be used to script increase or decrease OCPUs?
A. once cli
B. ocpucli
C. exactly
D. small
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
Which THREE Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) services can be used to connect to- premises networks? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Internet Gateway
B. Fast connect
C. Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)
D. Service Gateway
E. IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: BCE
Question 14:
You want to move an Exadata Cloud@Customer VM cluster to a different OCI compartment for increased isolation from other teams that use Exadata. What happens when you use the console to do this?
A. The VM cluster and associated databases will move to the new compartment. All other resources will remain in the existing compartment.
B. After it is deployed, a VM cluster cannot change compartments.
C. The vm cluster, compute nodes, and associated databases will move compartments. All other resources will remain in the existing compartment.
D. The vM cluster, compute nodes, and underlying Exadata infrastructure will move to the new compartment. All other resources remain the same.
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
Which three statements are true regarding MySQL Database Service HeatWave? (Choose all correct answers)
HeatWave uses periodic long-running ETL batch jobs to refresh the data.
A. Heatwave is an in-memory,query-processing engine designed for the fast execution of analytic queries.
B. Heatwave is Exclusively available in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.
C. Heatwave uses machine learning to automate operations, increasing DBA productivity and reducing costs.
D. HeatWave data which is needed for analytic processing is stored in disk files.
Correct Answer: AC
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Question 1:
A company has developed an eCommerce web application In Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. What should they do to ensure that the application has the highest level of resilience?
A. Deploy the application across multiple Regions and Availability Domains.
B. Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and subnets.
C. Deploy the application across multiple Virtual Cloud Networks.
D. Deploy the application across multiple Availability Domains and Fault Domains.
Correct Answer: A
For the highest level of resilience, you can deploy the application between regions and distribute it on availability domain and fault domains.
You have a mission-critical application that requires it to be globally available at all times. Which deployment strategy should you adopt?
A. Use multiple Fault Domains In each Availability Domain in each Region.
B. Use multiple Availability Domains In one Region.
C. Use multiple Fault Domains In one Region.
D. Use multiple Fault Domains in any Availability Domain in multiple Regions.
Correct Answer: A
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure is hosted in regions and availability domains. A region is a localized geographic area, and an availability domain is one or more data centers located within a region. A region is composed of one or more availability domains. Regions are independent of other regions and can be separated by vast distances–across countries or even continents.
Availability domains are isolated from each other, fault-tolerant, and very unlikely to fail simultaneously. Because availability domains do not share infrastructure such as power or cooling, or the internal availability domain network, a failure at one availability domain within a region is unlikely to impact the availability of the others within the same region.
A fault domain is a grouping of hardware and infrastructure within an availability domain. Each availability domain contains three fault domains. Fault domains provide anti-affinity: they let you distribute your instances so that the instances are not on the same physical hardware within a single availability domain.
A hardware failure or Compute hardware maintenance event that affects one fault domain does not affect instances in other fault domains.
In addition, the physical hardware in a fault domain has independent and redundant power supplies, which prevents a failure in the power supply hardware within one fault domain from affecting other fault domains.
Which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure service allows you to run code without provisioning any underlying infrastructure resources?
A. Compute service
B. Storage Gateway
C. Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes D. Oracle Functions
Correct Answer: D
Oracle Functions is a fully managed, multi-tenant, highly scalable, on-demand, Functions-as-a-Service platform. It is built on enterprise-grade Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and powered by the Fn Project open-source engine. Use Oracle Functions (sometimes abbreviated to just Functions) when you want to focus on writing code to meet business needs.
The serverless and elastic architecture of Oracle Functions means there\’s no infrastructure administration or software administration for you to perform. You don’t provision or maintain compute instances, and operating system software patches and upgrades are applied automatically.
Oracle Functions simply ensures your app is highly-available, scalable, secure, and monitored.
With Oracle Functions, you can write code in Java, Python, Node, Go, and Ruby (and for advanced use cases, bring your own Dockerfile, and Graal VM). You can then deploy your code, call it directly or trigger it in response to events, and get billed only for the resources consumed during the execution.
Which CANNOT be used with My Oracle Support (MOS)?
A. Add or change a tenancy administrator
B. Request a Service Limit Increase
C. Reset the password or unlock the account for the tenancy administrator
D. Troubleshoot your resources in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Free Trial account
Correct Answer: D
Open a support service request with the MOS option available to paid accounts. Customers using only Always Free resources are not eligible for Oracle Support. Limited support is available to Free Tier accounts with Free Trial credits.
After you use all of your credits or after your trial period ends (whichever comes first), you must upgrade to a paid account to access Oracle Support. If you choose not to upgrade and continue to use Always Free Services, you will not be eligible to raise a service request in My Oracle Support.
In addition to supporting technical issues, use My Oracle Support if you need to:
1. Reset the password or unlock the account for the tenancy administrator
Which is a key benefit of using oracle cloud infrastructure autonomous data warehouse?
A. No username and password are required
B. Scale both CPU and Storage without downtime
C. Apply database patches as they become available D. Maintain root-level access to the underlying operating system
Correct Answer: B
Oracle Autonomous Data Warehouse is a cloud data warehouse service that eliminates virtually all the complexities of operating a data warehouse and securing data. It automates provisioning, configuring, securing, tuning, scaling, patching, backing up, and repairing the data warehouse.
Unlike other “fully managed” cloud data warehouse solutions that only patch and update the service, it also features elastic, automated scaling, performance tuning, security, and a broad set of built-in capabilities that enable machine learning analysis, simple data loading, and data visualizations.
Data Warehouse uses continuous query optimization, table indexing, data summaries, and auto-tuning to ensure consistent high performance even as data volume and the number of users grow. Autonomous scaling can temporarily increase compute and I/O by a factor of three to maintain performance.
Unlike other cloud services which require downtime to scale, Autonomous Data Warehouse scales while the service continues to run.
Which three components are part of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) identity and access management service?
A. Regional Subnets
B. Policies
C. Users
D. Compute Instances
E. Dynamic Groups
F. Roles
G. Virtual Cloud Networks
Correct Answer: BCE
Components of IAM IAM uses the components described in this section. To better understand how the components fit together, see Example Scenario. RESOURCE The cloud objects that your company\’s employees create and use when interacting with Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.
For example: compute instances, block storage volumes, virtual cloud networks (VCNs), subnets, route tables, etc. USER An individual employee or system that needs to manage or use your company\’s Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources. Users might need to launch instances, manage remote disks, work with your virtual cloud network, etc.
End users of your application are not typically IAM users. Users have one or more IAM credentials (see User Credentials).
GROUP A collection of users who all need the same type of access to a particular set of resources or compartments. DYNAMIC GROUP A special type of group that contains resources (such as compute instances) that match rules that you define (thus the membership can change dynamically as matching resources are created or deleted).
These instances act as “principal” actors and can make API calls to services according to policies that you write for the dynamic group. NETWORK SOURCE A group of IP addresses that are allowed to access resources in your tenancy. The IP addresses can be public IP addresses or IP addresses from a VCN within your tenancy. After you create the network source, you use policy to restrict access to only requests that originate from the IPs in the network source.
COMPARTMENT A collection of related resources. Compartments are a fundamental component of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure for organizing and isolating your cloud resources. You use them to clearly separate resources for the purposes of measuring usage and billing, access (through the use of policies), and isolation (separating the resources for one project or business unit from another).
A common approach is to create a compartment for each major part of your organization. For more information, see Setting Up Your Tenancy. TENANCY The root compartment that contains all of your organization\’s Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources.
Oracle automatically creates your company\’s tenancy for you. Directly within the tenancy are your IAM entities (users, groups, compartments, and some policies; you can also put policies into compartments inside the tenancy).
You place the other types of cloud resources (e.g., instances, virtual networks, block storage volumes, etc.) inside the compartments that you create. POLICY A document that specifies who can access which resources, and how.
Access is granted at the group and compartment level, which means you can write a policy that gives a group a specific type of access within a specific compartment, or to the tenancy itself. If you give a group access to the tenancy, the group automatically gets the same type of access to all the compartments inside the tenancy.
For more information, see Example Scenario and How Policies Work. The word “policy” is used by people in different ways:
to mean an individual statement written in the policy language; to mean a collection of statements in a single, named “policy” document (which has an Oracle Cloud ID (OCID) assigned to it); and to mean the overall body of policies your organization uses to control access to resources.
HOME REGION The region where your IAM resources reside. All IAM resources are global and available across all regions, but the master set of definitions resides in a single region, the home region.
You must make changes to your IAM resources in your home region. The changes will be automatically propagated to all regions. For more information, see Managing Regions. FEDERATION A relationship that an administrator configures between an identity provider and a service provider.
When you federate Oracle Cloud Infrastructure with an identity provider, you manage users and groups in the identity provider. You manage authorization in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure\’s IAM service. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancies are federated with Oracle Identity Cloud Service by default.
A customer wants to use Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) for storing application backups which can be
stored based on business needs.
Which OCI storage service can be used to meet the requirement?
A. File Storage
B. Block Volume
C. Archive Storage
D. Object Storage (standard)
Correct Answer: D
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure offers two distinct storage class tiers to address the need for both performances, frequently accessed “hot” storage, and less frequently accessed “cold” storage. Storage tiers help you maximize performance where appropriate and minimize costs where possible. 1) Use Object Storage for data to which you need fast, immediate, and frequent access.
Data accessibility and performance justify a higher price to store data in the Object Storage tier. 2) Use Archive Storage for data to which you seldom or rarely access, but that must be retained and preserved for long periods of time. The cost efficiency of the Archive Storage tier offsets the long lead time required to access the data. For more information, see Overview of Archive Storage.
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage service is an internet-scale, high-performance storage platform that offers reliable and cost-efficient data durability. The Object Storage service can store an unlimited amount of unstructured data of any content type, including analytic data and rich content, like images and videos.
With Object Storage, you can safely and securely store or retrieve data directly from the internet or from within the cloud platform.
Object Storage offers multiple management interfaces that let you easily manage storage at scale. The elasticity of the platform lets you start small and scale seamlessly, without experiencing any degradation in performance or service reliability. Object Storage is a regional service and is not tied to any specific computing instance.
You can access data from anywhere inside or outside the context of the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, as long you have internet connectivity and can access one of the Object Storage endpoints.
Authorization and resource limits are discussed later in this topic. Object Storage also supports private access from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources in a VCN through a service gateway. A service gateway allows connectivity to the Object Storage public endpoints from private IP addresses in private subnets.
For example, you can back up DB systems to an Object Storage bucket over the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure backbone instead of over the internet.
You can optionally use IAM policies to control which VCNs or ranges of IP addresses can access Object Storage. See Access to Oracle Services: Service Gateway for details. Object Storage is Always Free and eligible.
For more information about Always Free resources, including additional capabilities and limitations, see Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Free Tier. The following list summarizes some of the ways that you can use Object Storage.
Open a support service request with the MOS option available to paid accounts. Customers using only Always Free resources are not eligible for Oracle Support. Limited support is available to Free Tier accounts with Free Trial credits. After you use all of your credits or after your trial period ends (whichever comes first), you must upgrade to a paid account to access Oracle Support.
Which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) service is best suited for running serverless apps?
A. Oracle Functions
B. Virtual Cloud Network
C. Streaming
D. Audit
Correct Answer: A
Oracle Functions is a fully managed, multi-tenant, highly scalable, on-demand, Functions-as-a-Service platform. It is built on enterprise-grade Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and powered by the Fn Project open-source engine. Use Oracle Functions (sometimes abbreviated to just Functions) when you want to focus on writing code to meet business needs.
The serverless and elastic architecture of Oracle Functions means there\’s no infrastructure administration or software administration for you to perform.
You don’t provision or maintain compute instances, and operating system software patches and upgrades are applied automatically. Oracle Functions simply ensures your app is highly-available, scalable, secure, and monitored. With Oracle Functions, you can write code in Java, Python, Node, Go, and Ruby (and for advanced use cases, bring your own Dockerfile, and Graal VM).
You can then deploy your code, call it directly or trigger it in response to events, and get billed only for the resources consumed during the execution.
Oracle Functions is based on Fn Project. Fn Project is an open source, container-native, serverless platform that can be run anywhere – any cloud or on-premises.
Fn Project is easy to use, extensible, and performant. You can download and install the open-source distribution of Fn Project, develop and test a function locally, and then use the same tooling to deploy that function to Oracle Functions.
You can access Oracle Functions using the Console, a CLI, and a REST API. You can invoke the functions you deploy to Oracle Functions using the CLI or by making signed HTTP requests.
What does compute instance horizontal scaling mean?
A. stopping/starting the instance
B. backing up data to object storage
C. adding additional compute instances
D. changing compute instance size
Correct Answer: C
Cloud Horizontal Scaling refers to provisioning additional servers to meet your needs, often splitting workloads between servers to limit the number of requests any individual server is getting. In a cloud-based environment, this would mean adding additional instances instead of moving to a larger instance size.
Cloud Vertical Scaling refers to adding more CPU or memory to an existing server or replacing one server with a more powerful server.
Reference: https://cloudcheckr.com/cloud-cost-management/cloud-vs-data-center-what-is-scalability-in-cloudcomputing/ Horizontal scaling means that you scale by adding more machines into your pool of resources whereas Vertical scaling means that you scale by adding more power (CPU, RAM) to an existing machine.
An easy way to remember this is to think of a machine on a server rack, we add more machines across the horizontal direction and add more resources to a machine in the vertical direction.
With horizontal scaling it is often easier to scale dynamically by adding more machines into the existing pool — Vertical scaling is often limited to the capacity of a single machine, scaling beyond that capacity often involves downtime and comes with an upper limit.
In OCI a budget can be used to set soft limits on your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure spending. You can set alerts on your budget to let you know when you might exceed your budget, and you can view all of your budgets and spending from one single place in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure console. Budgets are set on
Which OCI Identity and access management capability helps you to organize multiple users into teams?
A. Policies
B. Groups
C. Dynamic Groups
D. Users
Correct Answer: B
IAM Group is A collection of users who all need the same type of access to a particular set of resources or compartments. IAM DYNAMIC GROUP is A special type of group that contains resources (such as compute instances) that match rules that you define (thus the membership can change dynamically as matching resources are created or deleted).
These instances act as “principal” actors and can make API calls to services according to policies that you write for the dynamic group.
What is the frequency of OCI usage report generation?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Annually
D. Daily
Correct Answer: D
A usage report is a comma-separated value (CSV) file that can be used to get a detailed breakdown of resources in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure for audit or invoice reconciliation. The usage report is automatically generated daily and is stored in an Oracle-owned Object Storage bucket.
It contains one row per each Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resource (such as instance, Object Storage bucket, VNIC) per hour along with consumption information, metadata, and tags.
Usage reports generally contain 24 hours of usage data, although occasionally a usage report may contain late-arriving data that is older than 24 hours. Usage reports are retained for one year.
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Question 1:
Which two statements are true regarding OIC-OFSC integration?
A. The OIC platform can only use SOAP-based adapters for OFSC integration; REST-based adapters will not function for the product combination.
B. Each external system will still require custom code to integrate with OFSC, but OIC will provide a structural framework for the OFSC Inbound and Outbound APIs.
C. Field mapping and process flow between OFSC and external systems can be accomplished through OIC\’s GUI.
D. The OIC platform can only use REST-based adapters for OFSC integration; SOAP-based adapters will not function for the product combination.
E. Using OIC to integrate OFSC with a customer\’s systems removes the need to develop custom middleware to integrate each system.
Correct Answer: CE
Question 2:
Which two statements are true regarding managing inventory in OFSC?
A. Resources can share inventory when using OFSC Collaboration.
B. The only inventory pools are “customer”, “resource”, and “installed”.
C. Inventory can be added to a bucket on the Resource Tree and shared among all child resources.
D. Resources can share inventory when they are working as a team.
Your customer wants their technicians to see the same activity data in their Service within their Activity List
in OFSC Mobility.
Which configuration supports this requirement?
A. Add the “Activity” property to the Request Grid context in Mobility.
B. Add the appropriate activity properties to the Request Grid context in Mobility.
C. Add the “Activity” property to the “Identify service request by” identifier context.
D. Add the appropriate activity properties to the “Identify service request by” identifier context.
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
A company needs its mobile workers to be able to see which unassigned activities are located within a specific radius of their own location so that they can potentially assign and perform those jobs if they happen to have time along their routes.
Which option addresses that configuration requirement?
A. Add the \’Nearby Activities1 action to the Activity List context for the mobile workers\’ User Type and set the specific radius via the \’Nearby Radius\’ parameter on the Business Rules screen.
B. Add the \’Nearby Activities\’ action to the Activity List context for the mobile workers\’ User Type and set the specific radius via the \’Nearby Radius\’ parameter on the Display screen.
C. Enable the \’Nearby Activities\’ screen within the Main Menu context for the mobile workers\’ User Type and set the specific radius via the \’Nearby Radius\’ parameter on the Business Rules screen.
D. Enable the \’Nearby Activities\’ screen within the Main Menu context for the mobile workers\’ User Type and set the specific radius via the \’Nearby Radius\’ parameter on the Display screen.
Correct Answer: D
Question 5:
Your customer wants their field technicians to identify potential upsell opportunities for a premium service they offer by asking their customer whether they would be interested in receiving a free three-month trial.
The technician needs to capture and validate customer details to complete this three-month trial. Which three configurations meet this requirement?
A. Create a File property with a Signature element for customers to complete if they are interested in receiving the trial.
B. Create a String property with an Email element and use Formatting to ensure that only a valid email address can be entered if the customer would like to receive additional information.
C. Create a String property with a Phone element and use a Regular Expression to ensure only. properly formatted phone number can be entered if the customer would like to receive additional information
D. Create an Enumeration property with two radio buttons, one for “Yes” and another for “No”.
E. Create an Integer property with two checkboxes, one for “Yes” and another for “No”.
Correct Answer: ABD
Question 6:
A customer plans to use the Core REST API \’JulkUpdate\’ command for loading activities into Oracle Field Service Cloud (OFSC).
Which two statements are correct regarding how OFSC processes these requests?
A. The request is processed as multiple transactions, meaning one could fail while others process successfully.
B. If no activity is found matching the key field value in the request, then a new activity will be created.
C. If no activity is found matching the key field value in the request, then the transaction fails and returns an error.
D. The request is processed as a single transaction, meaning if one activity fails to process, then the entire transaction fails.
Correct Answer: B
Question 7:
Which two statements are true regarding the correlation between launch conditions and message scenarios within OFSC?
A. A given launch condition can be assigned to multiple message scenarios simultaneously.
B. A given launch condition can only be assigned to one message scenario at a time.
C. A given message scenario can only include one launch condition at a time.
D. A given message scenario can include multiple launch conditions simultaneously.
Your company has three different levels of \’VIP\’ customers – Gold, Silver, and Bronze.
There is a read-only \’VIP Levef property where one of these options will appear on the \’Edit/View Activity\’ form of every applicable activity.
Any Gold VIP customers should be offered a free three-month streaming VoD service trial as a token of appreciation.
If they accept, a record of that must be maintained. A \’ VoD Service Trial\’ Integer check box property has been created.
What must you do in order to ensure that the checkbox is visible on the Edit/View Activity form only for Gold VIP members?
A. Create a filter to only show the \’VoD Service Trial\’ property if \’Gold\’ appears on the Edit/View Activity form.
B. Use a regular expression to limit valid entries for the \’VoD Service Trial\’ property to \’Gold\’ only.
C. Add the VoD Service Trial\’ property with a default value of \’Gold\’ to the Edit/View Activity form.
D. Add the \’VoD Service Trial1 property with conditional visibility to the Edit/View Activity form.
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
What functionality does \’Automatic Ordering\’ enable when checked within the routing plan\’sAssignment Parameters?
A. When the routing plan runs, all of the activities assigned by routing will be ordered by their priority.
B. When the routing plan runs, ordered activities will be considered for the assignment, and not- ordered activities will remain in the bucket.
C. When the routing plan runs, it will assign an order of not-ordered activities from the bucket and order not-ordered activities previously assigned to resources.
D. When the routing plan runs, it will assign non-scheduled activities among other activities scheduled for that day.
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
Your customer has received some complaints about certain resources, and that information has been recorded within their CRM system.
They want to pass this information along when activities are booked and sent to OFSC so that it can be used as a routing constraint for any of their customer-facing Activity Types.
Which standard Activity Type features must be enabled to support this requirement?
A. “Allow creation in buckets” and “Allow move between resources”
B. “Allow creating from incoming interface” and “Support of preferred resources”
C. “Allow to create from incoming interface” and “Allow move between resources”
D. “Allow Mass Activities” and “Support of preferred resources”
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Which two statements are correct regarding activity assignment via Collaboration?
A. An activity dragged and dropped into a Collaboration chat with a resource must be accepted by that resource in Oer for it to be assigned.
B. An activity broadcasted via Collaboration as part of an Immediate routing plan schedule gets assigned to the first technician to accept it.
C. An activity broadcasted via Collaboration as part of any type of routing plan schedule gets assigned to the first technician to accept it.
D. An activity dragged and dropped into a Collaboration chat with a resource can be automatically assigned without the resource having to accept It.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 12:
Your customer requires the option for supervisors to “supervise” Junior engineers as they are performing certain activities.
For this functionality, you have created a new “Supervision” internal activity to manually link these activities so they start at the same time by different resources.
Which option is a valid way to configure this?
A. Create a new (related) Link Template with a “Different Resources” Assignment Constraint.
B. Create a new (simultaneous) Link Template with default values.
C. Create a new (simultaneous) Link Template with a “Different Resources” Assignment Constraint.
D. Create a new (related) Link Template with default values.
Your customer wants to configure an inner step message (“B”) to send an email if a previous message (“A ) has Failed.
Which statement explains how this can be supported?
A. In the Message Scenario screen\’s Blocking Conditions tab of message B, add a condition that blocks the message when the message A\’s status is NOT IN failed.
B. In the Message Scenario screen\’s Next Steps tab of message A, add message B as the Next Message Step with the final status “Failed”.
C. In the Message Scenario screen\’s Next Stepstab of message B, add message A as the Next Message Step with the final status Failed”.
D. In the Message Scenario screen\’s Blocking Conditions tab of message B, add a condition that blocks the message when the message A\’s status is NOT IN sent.
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
The “Activity has not been started X minutes after ETA” display warning is set to 10 minutes. An activity\’s ETA is 9:00, the current time is 9:20 and the activity has not yet been started. Which warning will take place as a result of that configuration setting?
A. The activity turns red and a Resource Tree warning appears.
B. The activity turns red, a Resource Tree warning appears, and a message scenario is launched (if configured).
C. The activity turns red, a Resource Tree warning appears and a message scenario is launched (if configured).
Correct Answer: C
Question 15:
Which two statements are correct about Daily Extract and BI Cloud Service (BICS) outbound integration channels?
A. It is possible to name the entity tables and corresponding fields for reporting when configuring Daily Extract and BICS outbound integration channels.
B. While Daily Extracts include data from the previous day, data can be sent through the BICS channel once per day or in real time.
C. Daily Extract and BICS channel configurations for a specific data set must contain the same fields.
D. A given data set can only have one associated Daily Extract channel configuration and one associated BICS channel configuration.
E. It is possible to clone the Daily Extract channel configuration for use with the BICS channel and vice versa.
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