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Question 1:

You are setting up Oracle Cloud Sourcing. You would like participants to provide Insurance and Freight cost for the quotation/RFQ (Request For Quotation) lines. Identify the configuration that will fulfill this requirement.

A. Add Cost Factors for Freight and Insurance

B. Personalize the negotiation UI (User Interface) to add the Freight and Insurance attributes.

C. Add negotiation lines separately to capture Freight and Insurance.

D. Define a negotiation style and enable DFF (Descriptive FlexField) for Freight and Insurance

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

 

Your customer requires that a consignment order should automatically get created whenever a self-service requester creates a purchase requisition. Identify the setup required to fulfill this requirement.

A. Select the “Source from consignment” check box and set “Urgent” to “Yes” during requisition creation through self-service.

B. Assign all the requisition lines to the consignment buyer.

C. Enable all the requisition line items to be sourced from the consignment source.

D. Create a consignment agreement with touchless buying options enabled in the Controls tab to automatically generate orders.

 

Correct Answer: A

How can I create a purchase order for consignment inventory items? You begin by creating a purchase order with a document style for a consignment order. Choose your consignment supplier and add the consignment items to this order.

Verify that the items were sourced by consignment agreement and that Consignment Line is checked on the line.

Submit the order for approval.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/procurementcs_gs/OAPRC/OAPRC1007479.htm


Question 3:

 

A customer wants to be able to see the recoverable and nonrecoverable components of inclusive taxes in addition to existing exclusive taxes on purchase orders. In the Manage Configuration Owner Tax task, which option can achieve this?

A. Enable the Supplier Inclusive Tax for Calculated Tax option, for purchase orders.

B. Enable the Allow Supplier Tax Variance Calculated Tax option for purchase orders.

C. Enable the Inclusive Treatment for Calculated Tax option for purchase orders.

D. Enable the Enforce Calculated Tax from Reference Document option for purchase orders.

E. Enable the Exclusive Treatment for Calculated Tax option for purchase orders.

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

 

Identify three profile options that are used to configure Self Service Procurement. (Choose three.)

A. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

B. POR_DISPLAY_CATEGORY_ITEM_COUNT

C. PO_PRC_AGENT_CATEGORY_ASSIGNMENT

D. POR_SEARCH_RESULTS_SKIN

E. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

 

Correct Answer: ACE

Embedded Analytics is dependent on the availability of Oracle Business Intelligence and Analytics Applications. In addition, the profile POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS needs to have been set to Yes before the metrics are visible to

end users.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E48434_01/doc.1118/e49610/F1007477AN13B51.htm


Question 5:

 

During an Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, you have been asked to provide View access to all purchasing documents to all buyers in Procurement Business Unit

A. What will you do to configure this change?

B. Define all buyers as employees in procurement Business Unit A.

C. Configure a new document style and assign it to each buyer in “Manage Procurement Agent.”

D. Modify “Configure Procurement Business Function” for procurement Business Unit A and provide access to all buyers.

E. Update each buyer\’s access using “Manage Procurement Agent” for procurement Business Unit A.

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

 

Identify two activities that a Buying Organization will be able to perform after it provides the Supplier Portal access to Suppliers. (Choose two.)

A. Create Negotiation flow internally on behalf of prospective suppliers.

B. Import supplier data and related entities.

C. Consolidate suppliers and supplier sites to clean up duplicate suppliers or support supplier acquisitions.

D. Evaluate prospective suppliers by routing their registrations through a collaborative review process by using a flexible rules engine.

E. Collect information about prospective suppliers through a self-guided registration flow.

 

Correct Answer: DE

E: The buying organization can collect information about the products and services categories supplied by the company on the registration flow by enabling Products and Services using the Configure Supplier Registration flow.

D: The Supplier Registration process is used by companies to submit their registration request in order to become a supplier of the buying organization. The buying organization then reviews the registration request using a collaborative review

process and determines if it wants to consider this company as a new source of supply.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E56614_01/procurementop_gs/OAPRC/F1007476AN1079E.htm


Question 7:

 

While creating a Contract Purchase Agreement, a buyer tries to add a Contract Template to it, but the List of Values (VOL) is empty. Identify three applicable reasons for this issue.

A. The Contract Template is in `Approved\’ status.

B. The document type associated with the Contract Template is `Purchase Order\’.

C. The document type associated with the Contract Template is `Contract Purchase Agreement\’.

D. The Contract Template is not `Approved\’.

E. The document type associated with the Contract Template is `Blanket Purchase Agreement\’.

 

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37017_01/doc.1115/e22658/F424214AN124DD.htm


Question 8:

 

In Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI), which subject area should you use to report on spend for purchase orders and their associated requisitions?

A. Procurement

Correct Answer: B

 


Question 9:

 

You are creating a Purchase Order based on the style `Cloud Purchasing Style\’. While entering a Purchase Order line, you find that the line type named GOODS is available but the line type named LINE does not appear. Identify a reason for this behavior.

A. The line type LINE is not among the selected line types for the document style `Cloud Purchasing Style\’.

B. The Goods check box is not checked for the Purchase Bases field of the Commodities option in the `Create Document Style\’ task.

C. The status of the `Cloud Purchasing Style\’ is not Active.

D. Display Name for the Purchase Order is not set in the `Create Document Style\’ task.

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

 

While configuring offerings, you deselected the “Supply Chain Financial Orchestration of Procurement Flows” check box and locked the feature. However, because of changes in the business requirements, you are required to enable the feature. Identify the prerequisite step to perform this change.

A. Navigate to the “Select Feature Choices” page of the Procurement Offering and unlock the feature.

B. Set the implementation status to “In Progress” of the Procurement Offering.

C. Change the Provisioned to “No” of the Procurement Offering.

D. Deselect the “Enable for Implementation” check box of the Procurement Offering.

 

Correct Answer: D

If you used Inventory Management intercompany functionality prior to Release 9, then after your upgrade to Release 9, you must do the following to enable inter-company supply chain flows using Supply Chain Financial Orchestration: References:

Oracle Procurement Cloud Release 9 Whats New (5 May 2015), page 24


Question 11:

 

Which seeded role needs to be associated with the supplier user account so that a supplier can respond to the invited negotiations?

A. Supplier Bidder

B. Supplier Customer service representative

C. Supplier Contract Manager

D. Supplier Self-Service Administrator

E. Supplier Sales Representative

 

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

 

During Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, one of the requirements of the customer is to capture the revision history of Purchase Orders when `notes to receiver\’ is entered or updated as part of a Change Order. Identify the setup that needs to be performed in order to capture change history when a user updates `notes to receiver\’ as part of the Change Order.

A. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in Configure Requisitioning Business Function\’ for the requisitioning Business Unit.

B. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in Common Payables and Procurement Options\’ for the procurement Business Unit.

C. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in the Change Order template for the Purchase Order.

D. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in the supplier site assignment for the supplier site.

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

 

Your organization has multiple procurement business units. A Qualification manager wants to launch an initiative for the assessment of suppliers. However, the manager is unable to select the qualification model that he or she defined earlier. Identify the cause for this behavior.

A. The qualification model is not yet approved.

B. The Qualification manager is not defined as a procurement agent.

C. The Qualification manager does not have the “Manage Suppliers” action enabled in the procurement agent definition.

D. The Qualification manager has not selected the correct procurement BU.

 

Correct Answer: C

Supplier Managers are derived from the users defined in procurement agents. All procurement agents with Manage Suppliers function for the BU that the registration was created will receive the approval notification. References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/procurementcs_gs/OAPRC/OAPRC1007476.htm


Question 14:

 

Identify two correct statements about Local area and Contextual areas in the common UI Shell. (Choose two.)

A. Local area includes components that directly affect the Contextual area.

B. Local area can drive the contents of the regional area and the contextual area.

C. Local area is the main work area and typically contains the transaction form.

D. Contextual area provides quick access to tools that support the business processes.

E. Contextual area can drive the contents of the local area.

 

Correct Answer: AC

Local Area: The local area is in the center of the UI Shell where users do their work. It is the main work area and typically contains the transaction form with the menus and controls that enable users to be productive. Controls in, and the

content or state of, the local area generally affects the contents of the contextual area.

Main Area: This term designates the combination of the Local Area and the Contextual Area. Contextual Area: The contextual area is in the right-hand pane of the UI Shell, with controls and contents that generally are affected by controls in,

or the content or state of, the local area; although in specific cases the contextual area can also affect the contents of the local area (causing a local area to reload).

References:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E36909_01/fusionapps.1111/e15524/ui_impl_uishell.htm


Question 15:

 

While creating a Purchase Order, you observe that the system is defaulting Net 30 as the payment term instead of the intended payment term Net 15. Identify two ways to achieve the desired default. (Choose two.)

A. Set Net 15 for the supplier site.

B. Set Net 30 for the supplier site and leave the payment term blank in procurement options.

C. Update Net 15 in procurement options and leave the payment term blank for this supplier at all levels.

D. Update Net 15 in procurement options and Net 30 for the supplier site.

 

Correct Answer: AB


 

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Question 1:

Your company is looking for a simplified method for managing a group of reports. Identify the type of report used in WMS Cloud that compiles multiple existing reports into a single document while executing each report in a single order.

A. CrossTab Report

B. Express Report

C. Linked Report

D. Chained Report

E. Standard Report

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

 

Your customer wants to receive an IB shipment and capture pallet weight at the time of receiving. Which parameter must be set in the Receiving RF screen to meet this requirement?

A. Set Capture-catch-weight as “Prompt for catch wt”.

B. Set Mode as Blind-ASN Receiving.

C. Set rch-sku-not-on-shmnt to “Prompt for catch wt”.

D. Set Single-Sku-management as Assume Single SKU.

E. Set Blind-License Plate Number-receive-mode as by SKU scan.

 

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/owm70/owmcs_gs-cloud/OWMRN/OWMRN.pdf


Question 3:

 

Your customer wants to store the inventory in Active and Reserve locations after receiving it. Inventory is

received in cases pack quantity and assigned to an IBLPN. Inventory is categorized into Bin Shelves and

Bulk flow items and the item’s dimensions are available in WMS Cloud.

Which three putaway configurations are required to meet this? (Choose three.)

A. Locations Size type and Item Putaway item should be configured prior to Putaway

B. Putaway rule overrides Putaway priority and selects the location based on the item dimension

C. Putaway rule will act according to the Priority defined.

D. This is not supported in WMS Cloud.

E. Selection Criteria will evaluate and apply the Putaway priority.

F. Putaway priority will drive the location selection.

 

Correct Answer: AEF

 


Question 4:

 

You have hired a new employee to do picking in the warehouse. The employee complains that he/she cannot work because the RF Picking transactions are not displayed as one of the RF options. Which two scenarios will cause the transaction to be missing as an RF option in the user\’s menu? (Choose two.)

A. The RF Picking transaction is not associated with her/his group\’s assigned RF Menu.

B. The employee\’s Group has a blank RF Menu.

C. The employee is assigned to the “Supervisor” group.

D. The employee\’s email is not set up in his/her user profile.

E. The employee has forgotten his/her password.

 

Correct Answer: AB


Question 5:

 

You are creating a standard report for a client to display LPN Numbers (for multi-SKU LPNs) and their associated items. The two data fields you have in your report are LPN Number and Item Code. Identify what controls need to be set to create a sub-total for the number of items for each LPN.

A. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for LPN.

B. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Total” and check the Group By box for LPN.

C. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for Item.

D. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Total” and check the Group By box for the item.

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

 

Which five combinations of lot and expiry date are valid scenarios in WMS Cloud? (Choose five.)

A. Two IB LPNs of the same item have different lots and the same expiry dates.

B. Two IB LPNs of the same item have the same lot and the same expiry date.

C. The IB LPNs have an item with the same lot and different expiry dates.

D. An item is lot-tracked but not expiry-date-tracked.

E. An item is expiry-date-tracked but not lot-tracked.

F. Two IB LPNs of the same item have different lots and different expiry dates.

 

Correct Answer: BCDEF

 


Question 7:

 

In which two ways can you execute the detail cycle count of LPN Detail by SKU scan? (Choose two.)

A. using “Cycle Cnt” screen with screen parameter content-count set to “SKU -scan”

B. using “Cycle count for LPN deferred/immediate updates” with screen parameter SKU scan mode set to “By Sku Scan”

C. using the “Resv Nbr Cnt” screen and with screen parameter content-count set to “SKU -scan”

D. using “Cycle Cnt” screen with screen parameter content-count set to “Null”

 

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

 

Your customer is a Third Party Logistics operator (3PL) and ships multiple customer\’s orders from two centralized facilities, one on each coast of the country. How do you set up the Facility, Company, and User hierarchy in the system (in sequential order)?

A. Because of the distance between Facilities, you recommend two WMS Cloud instances for your customer.

B. Create the 3PL\’s customer\’s Companies first, then the Users, next assign customers and Users to the Facilities, and finally create an Admin account for the 3PL in each facility.

C. Create the Parent 3PL Company, then the Facilities, next the Companies, and next re-create each User in each facility he or she is eligible for work.

D. Create the Parent 3PL Company, then nested Locations Zones to represent the facilities and the customer Companies and finally add the Users.

E. Create the Parent Company as the 3PL, then the two facilities, next the Users in the facilities, and the Companies that represent the customers, and the users to the companies.

 

Correct Answer: E

 


Question 9:

 

The following configuration is set for the Advance Shipment Notification type: 10% Under Receipt Warning, 10% Over Receipt Warning, and 20% Over Receipt error. Which two statements match the condition set if the ASN Qty is 100? (Choose two.)

A. When the Operator receives 125 units, the RF screen displays an Over Receipt warning message.

B. When the Operator receives 101, the RF screen displays an Over receipt warning message.

C. When the Operator receives 110, the RF screen displays an Over Receipt warning message.

D. When the Operator receives 89, the RF screen displays an Under Receipt warning message.

E. When the Operator receives 130 units, the RF screen displays an Over Receipt error message.

 

Correct Answer: CE


Question 10:

 

You are performing the Split IB LPNs RF transaction and seeing an error message: Shipment Verification

status mismatch.

Which three are valid? (Choose three.)

A. The from-IBLPN and the to-IBLPN might be received against two different ASNs respectively.

B. This error message will disappear if the RF screen parameter required-validations is set up as No Validation.

C. This error message will disappear if the RF screen parameter split-uom is left bank.

D. If the to-IBLPN is received via the Recv Shipment RF transaction, the from-IBLPN might be from the Create RF transaction.

E. The from-IBLPN and the to-IBLPN might be received against the same ASN.

 

Correct Answer: BCE

 


Question 11:

 

Identify the export type that is not supported in an Express Report.

A. CSV

B. RTF

C. PowerPoint

D. Excel

E. PDF

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

 

You are using the WMS Cloud at the Stores as well as the DC. Your workflow at that Store requires that you quickly pick up orders for the customer when they arrive. Which configuration allows you to achieve this workflow requirement?

A. Create an Order Type with the flag “Allocate during Pick” enabled so that you can pick chargesat the store without waving.

B. Set the Order Type to “Pick Without Wave”. This allows the RF options to automatically pick up those orders and display them to pickers.

C. Create a Flow-Through process and configure each customer\’s address as a “Designation Location”

D. Change the Order Type to “Rush” and wave it because the customer is waiting.

E. Create a wave template with Wave Template Type “Store”, then the wave will allocate orders in a FiFO sequence.

 

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/owm70/owmcs_gs-cloud/OWMRN/OWMRN.pdf


Question 13:

 

As an Inventory Super User, you are configuring LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet fields at Item Details

screen.

Which statement is true about LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet?

A. LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet are used to define a number of Ob LPN per tier during shipping.

B. LPNs per tier and Tiers per Pallet are used to define a number of IB LPN per tier during receiving.

C. LPNs per tier and Tier per Pallet are used to define the standard number of LPNs acceptable per pallet during receiving.

D. LPNs per tier and Tiers per pallet are used to define the standard number of case and pack for an Item during receiving.

 

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://learn.oracle.com/ords/launchpad/learn?page=item-masterandcontext=0:44189:44200


Question 14:

 

Which three configurations are required to sort the SKU A and B while receiving? (Choose three.)

A. An IB Shipment Type should be created to receive Purchase Order with sort SKUs.

B. Use Custom Field in Vendor UI to map the item that needs to be sorted.

C. Break Rule with Criteria needs to be set for the Sorting Rule.

D. Receive Station Location for Sorting should be created and mapped with the Sorting Rule.

E. Putaway Type should be configured for the SKU.

F. The Locations Size type should be defined for each Receive Station Location.

 

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 15:

 

You are configuring the WMS Cloud to have multiple facilities and, as an added measure of control, you

want to easily identify the facility by looking at the barcode printed on the outbound carton.

Identify two valid configurations that are available in the Sequence Counter UI that you can use for the

OBLPN. (Choose two.)

A. You can set up the count increment in Facility 1 to increase by 1, the count increment in Facility 2 to increment by 2, and so on.

B. You can set up the sequence counter OBLPN to “Append Facility Code to Prefix”.

C. You can specify different counts for the different facilitates within the Sequence Counter.

D. You can configure the sequence length for this facility to be different from the other facilities.

E. You can specify the “Color Code” in the Sequence Counter.

 

Correct Answer: BC

 


 

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Question 1:

You are implementing the entire suite of Supply Chain Management Cloud for an auto component manufacturing and distribution company. This company has a manufacturing facility where different auto electrical components are produced to fulfill the demand that originates from various customers. One of the components that the company sells to its customers requires specialized operations; therefore, the company outsources it to an external manufacturer instead of producing it in its own facility.

Which two steps are required to fulfill the demand for this component through outsourced manufacturing? (Choose two.)

A. Define this component as an Item with the “Contraanufacturing” field enabled and the “Make or Buy” attribute set to “Buy.”

B. Define this component as an Item with the “Contract Manufacturing” field enabled and the “Make or Buy” attribute set to “Make.”

C. Select the Customer Sales Order Fulfillment check box under the Procurement offering.

D. Create a sourcing rule of the Buy type for this component in the selling inventory organization.

E. Model the manufacturer to which the component production is outsourced as a Supplier in the enterprise.

F. Create a sourcing rule of the Make type for this component in the selling inventory organization.

 

Correct Answer: BE

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17c/scmcs_gs/FAIMS/FAIMS1823005.htm#FAIMS1922710


Question 2:

 

Identify the task that the seeded Warehouse Operator role can perform.

A. monitor and release sales orders for picking in the warehouse

B. search for a pick slip and confirm it

C. process and confirm outbound shipments

D. generate outbound shipping documentation

E. generate pick slips for picking material for outbound material movement

 

Correct Answer: B

The warehouse operator does the following work:

Pick loads, including monitoring and performing the picking activity, and create pick slips for outbound shipments, replenishment, and requisition.

Search for a pick slip and confirm the pick slip in a single action.


Question 3:

 

How does Order Management interact with multiple fulfillment systems to fulfill sales order lines?

A. It has a web service broker that routes requests from the Fulfillment Task Layer.

B. It has a web service broker that routes requests from the External Interface Layer.

C. The Fulfillment system routing is defined in the orchestration.

D. The sales order lines are converted to Fulfillment Lines and fed to the Fulfillment systems.

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

 

You are in the process of setting up a constraint that prohibits update to an extensible flexfield in a fulfillment line if Ship From Warehouse is X and the fulfillment line is booked. You are able to see the extensible flexfield on the “Manage Constraint Entities” page but not on the “Manage Processing Constraints” page.

What could be the reason?

A. The “generate packages” program was not submitted.

B. The “Publish extensible flex field” process was not run.

C. The extensible flexfield is not enabled.

D. A “Record Set” needs to be created for the extensible flexfield to be visible on the “Manage Processing Constraints” page.

 

Correct Answer: D

A record set is a group of records that are bound by common attribute values for the purpose of constraint evaluation. You can define conditions and specify a record set to be validated for a given condition as defined by the validation template.


Question 5:

 

Your company wants to default the preferred fulfillment warehouse and scheduled ship date as the order requested date during order import and skip the scheduling task for a particular order type.

What are the two business rules that must be configured to achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Define a branching condition rule.

B. Define a lead time expression rule.

C. Define a line selection criteria rule for the scheduling task.

D. Define a compensation pattern rule.

E. Define a pre-transformation defaulting rule.

 

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

 

Identify the Order Management configuration setup that must be performed by a system administrator in order to define an external source system connector.

A. The source system needs to be called by using the web service from Cloud Order Management.

B. The source systems link needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

C. The connector service needs to be registered by using Manage Web Service.

D. The source system needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

 

Correct Answer: C

 


Question 7:

 

You are using the Check Availability feature to explore alternative ways of promising a batch of five fulfillment lines in simulation mode.

Which three attributes can you change to explore other promising options? (Choose three.)

A. Requested Quantity

B. Requested Ship-from warehouse

C. Requested shipping method

D. Allow substitute items

E. Requested ship date

F. Scheduled ship date

 

Correct Answer: BCD

The values for the attributes that begin with requested, such as the Requested Item attribute and the Requested Ship-from Warehouse attribute, are initially determined by what the values are when you select the line in the Order Orchestration work area. You cannot change the values for many of the requested attributes, such as the Requested Item attribute, the Requested Quantity attribute, and the Requested Ship Date attribute.

You can change or clear the values for the Requested Ship-from Warehouse attribute and the Requested Shipping Method attribute. There are also some additional attributes you can change, such as whether substitutions are allowed, to influence the results when you explore other promising options.


Question 8:

 

Your company has a cost-of-change policy that changes a customer when the order is allocated, with no changes allowed after the goods are staged.

Which fulfillment status will trigger compensation and impose charges on the customer when the sales order quantity is changed?

A. Backordered

B. Ready to Release

C. Released to Warehouse

D. Staged

 

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E51367_01/scmop_gs/FAOFO/F1433056AN132D9.htm


Question 9:

 

Identify two tasks that are used to set up statuses in the orchestration process configuration in the Functional Setup Manager. (Choose two.)

A. Manage Orchestration Status Values

B. Manage Task Status Condition

C. Manage Status Values

D. Manage Orchestration Status

 

Correct Answer: BD

 


Question 10:

 

Which change mode takes a snapshot at the stages mentioned below:

When the orchestration process starts When a change order is received at an orchestration process step

A. Incremental

B. Simple

C. None

D. Advanced

 

Correct Answer: D

http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/fusion-apps/orderorchestrationguide-e22707-01-1514572.pdf


Question 11:

 

In which fulfillment process does a specific sales order demand trigger a supply creation, and a firm link is established between the sales order and the supply?

A. Consignment order

B. Internal Transfer

C. Configure to order

D. Back-to-back

E. Drop Ship

 

Correct Answer: D

The back-to-back fulfillment process is one in which specific sales order demand triggers supply creation, and a link is established between the sales order and the supply.


Question 12:

 

Your company is in the business of selling kitchen appliances.

Which three entities can you include while defining pricing rules that control how Oracle Pricing Cloud calculates the price each time? (Choose three.)

A. Shipping change lists

B. Discount List

C. Pricing Profile

D. Pricing Strategy

E. Cost List

 

Correct Answer: ABE

 


Question 13:

 

Your company wants to notify the external system when there is a high possibility that an order is going to be delayed.

Which four steps are required to invoke the external system connector to notify that an order is going to be delayed? (Choose four.)

A. Set up the Jeopardy threshold for the orchestration process task.

B. Set up the lead time for the orchestration steps in the orchestration process definition.

C. Register the web service connector.

D. Create a routing rule for the orchestration process task.

E. Enable a business event trigger point for Jeopardy and associate the connector.

F. Set up the Use Defined Lead time in the Available To Promise Rule.

 

Correct Answer: ABDE

 


Question 14:

 

Your company wants to define different status conditions for fulfillment lines that have different categories assigned to a single orchestration process in Order Management Cloud. Which two configurations would you perform to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Define a fulfillment line status rule set for each category.

B. Create a unique step for each category and assign different “next expected task statuses.”

C. Define orchestration process status values for each category.

D. Assign the status catalog to the orchestration process.

 

Correct Answer: CD

An orchestration process is a predefined business process that coordinates the orchestration of physical goods and activities within a single order and automates order orchestration across fulfillment systems.


Question 15:

 

Which two statements are true about the functional capabilities of Oracle Cloud Configurator? (Choose two.)

A. For users who do not have access to Oracle Fusion Product Hub, Oracle provides an alternative option to create models directly in the workspace area.

B. Only the optional structure and attributes of a Product Item are imported from Product Hub to Configurator and not the mandatory elements because they cannot be configured by an end user.

C. Multiple drafts of the same model can be modified at the same time, but they must be in different workspaces.

D. The user interface pages are tightly connected to the model. You cannot add, delete, or reorder pages without affecting the model structure.

 

Correct Answer: BC

“Configurator models are imported from items maintained in Oracle Fusion Product Hub (which is accessed by the Product Information Management work area) that have a Structure Type of Model. Only the optional structure and attributes of the product item are imported because the required elements of the product item cannot be configured by an end user. The option classes and optional standard items for each model item are also imported.” “Configurator models are versioned objects.

A model can go through multiple drafts before being released in a series of versions. There can be multiple drafts of the same model being modified at the same time, but they must be in different workspaces. A message notifies you if you add a model to a workspace when another draft exists in another workspace. There can only be a single released version of a model with the same effective start date.”


 

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Question 1:

Which two tasks must be defined to set up the Facilities Schedule?

A. Manage Facility Time Cards

B. Manage Facility Operations

C. Manage Facility Workday Patterns

D. Manage Facility Shifts

E. Manage Facility Holidays

 

Correct Answer: CD


Question 2:

 

Your client has decided that Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage, so any new supply from current manufacturing will be added to the current inventory by the Open Transactions Interface. The immediate requirement is to go live with Inventory and Order Management.

Which two seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control?

A. Average Cost Update

B. Miscellaneous Issues and Receipts

C. All Transaction Types Related to Work in Process

D. All Internal Transactions

E. Backflush Subinventory Transfer

 

Correct Answer: CE


Question 3:

 

Which attribute value allows the usage of common inventory for project-specific demand?

A. Allow use of common supplies: No andHard Pegging Level: Project Group

B. Allow use of common supplies: Null and Hard Pegging Level: Project Group

C. Allow use of common supplies: No and Hard Pegging Level: Project and Task

D. Allow use of common supplies: Null and Hard Pegging Level: None

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

 

Which three values are applicable for the profile option ?; Transaction Processing Mod”; for subinventory transfer and inter-organization transfer? (Choose three.)

A. Background Processing

B. Blind Processing

C. Online Processing

D. Offline Processing

E. Sequential Processing

F. Concurrent Processing

 

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 5:

 

Your client wants the purchasers to be able to run the min-max plan for items under their control and then manage the POs created out of these. Which parameters can they use to be able to do this?

A. From Planner to Planner

B. From Buyer to Buyer

C. From Item to Item

D. Sort by

E. Planning Level

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

 

Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.

A. Changes to a reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain Orchestration work area.

B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand inventory.

C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.

D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.

E. One reservation is created for demand and supply.

 

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 7:

 

You have a high-value item that you want to audit on an unscheduled basis to deter pilfering. Which two methods could you use to do this? (Choose two.)

A. Based on Item Category

B. Manual Cycle Count

C. Blind Inventory Count

D. ABC Count

E. Automated Cycle Count

 

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

 

You defined an Inventory Organization that is meant to track the contract manufacturing process outsourced to a supplier.

Where do you mention that this Inventory Organization is meant for one particular supplier?

A. Manage Inventory Organizations

B. Manage Contract Manufacturing Relationships

C. Manage Item Organizations

D. Manage Subinventories

E. Manage Inventory Organization Locations

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

 

Which two statements are true in regard to using the EnterpriseStructures Configurator?

A. The guided interview-based process helps you set up the enterprise with best practices.

B. It recommends job and position structures.

C. It creates a chart of accounts.

D. It allows you to create your Enterprise, Business Units, and Warehouses in a single step.

E. You cannot modify the recommendation from the tool. You must do it after you perform the initial configuration.

 

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

 

Your client wants certain inventory items of high importance to be counted periodically to improve the average level of inventory accuracy.

What type of counting would you recommend?

A. Serialized Count

B. ManualCount

C. Cycle Count

D. Zero Quantity Count

E. Blind Count

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

 

As part of implementing Oracle Cloud for your customer, you defined multiple Business Units. The customer wants you to define an Inventory Organization that is associated with all the business units and not just one particular business unit.

How do you achieve this?

A. It is not possible to define an Inventory Organization that is associated with more than one business unit.

B. Define the Inventory Organization without associating it with any location.

C. Leave the Management Business Unit field blank in the Inventory Organization definition.

D. Leave the Profit Center Business Unit field blank in the Inventory Organization definition.

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

 

Your organization has lot-controlled and non-lot-controlled material and stores all defective material in a subinventory called “Defect.” The organization does not want defective material to be available for reservations or for subsequent shipping to customers.

Which option satisfies this requirement?

A. Put a hold on the lot.

B. Disallow all inventory transactions for the subinventory “Defect.”

C. Assign the subinventory a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.

D. Tag the lot as a defective product.

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

 

Your company is an automobile spare manufacturing organization, which follows a discrete process. It has its own manufacturing and distribution centers located globally. It has these business units: US – USA business unit CAN – Canadian business unit UK – UK business unit MX – Mexican business unit IND – India business unit SPA – Spain business unit FRA – France business unit NL – Netherlands business unit GER – Germany business unit These are the inventory organizations that exist in each business unit: Inventory Org – business unit

GM (Master Org) – US US1 (Child Org) – US US2 (Child Org) – US CA1 (Child Org) – CAN MX1 (Child Org) – MX IN1 (Child Org) – IND SP1 (Child Org) – SPA FR1 (Child Org) – FRA NL1 (Child Org) – NL DE1 (Child Org) – GER Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Items defined in the GM organization can be assigned to US1, US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.

B. You can define an item in the IN1 inventory organization and assign it to the DE1 inventory organization.

C. Item organizations are also supported to serve as inventory organizations.

D. Operational Attributes can be controlled only at the Master Level.

E. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same business unit to assign items.

F. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across business units.

 

Correct Answer: AE


Question 14:

 

For an Item to be enabled for the back-to-back order process, which attribute do you need to set?

A. Organization attribute: Allow Back to Back Processing

B. Item attribute: Allow purchase orders off of sales orders

C. Item attribute: Reservations Enabled

D. Item attribute: Back-To-Back Enabled

E. Organization attribute: Allow Reservations

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

 

Which three statements are true regarding PAR Location Management?

A. If the stock level falls below the target on-hand quantity for the locator, inventory generates the appropriate replenishment document based on the item sourcing for the subinventory.

B. PAR location management replenishment is calculated at the organization level or subinventory level.

C. A receipt is required on inter-organization expense destination transfer orders between the from and to organizations

D. Periodic Automated Replenishment (PAR) enabled facilities that do not store perpetual inventory (such as hospitals) to perform locator-level replenishment.

E. Organizations can perform locator-level stock counting for both quantity and non- quantity tracked sub-inventories.

 

Correct Answer: CDE


 

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Question 1:

Which two are use cases for Management Reporting?

A. Creating drill-through analyses using rich visualizations

B. Creating statutory reports withXBRL Support

C. Creating reports with narrative reporting

D. Creating a book of static reports.

E. Creating static reports against an on-premise Hyperion Planning data source

F. Creating static reports against a Planning and Budgeting Cloud (PBCS) data source

 

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

 

During the author phase, what are the two ways to reset the workflow on a doclet?

A. Restart the docket.

B. Delete the doclet from the Report Package.

C. Once a document is submitted, you cannot change the status.

D. Reject the document.

 

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/eprcs_common/MRPRO/managing_the_author_phase _144971.htm#MRPRO-GUID-1FC20A0D-7A84-41E3-B9DF-27577755A558


Question 3:

 

Which two items are true about creating Custom Applications in Enterprise Performance Reporting Cloud Service?

A. Dimensions and their members are assigned to a model to the group and manage them for data entry and reporting.

B. Up to three Custom Applications can be created per environment.

C. Up to five models can be utilized within an application.

D. In order to load data to a Custom Application, the models and Dimensions must first be deployed and the application validated.

E. Only Service Administrators and/or Application Administrators can create a Custom Application.

 

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

 

Which statement about the setup of Disclosure Management security is NOT true?

A. It grants access to master documents and dockets using Explorer in the Disclosure Management Smart View extension.

B. Permissions available for Disclosure Management include View and Administrator

C. It grants access to master documents and dockets by using Access Control Lists (ACLs).

D. It defines permissions for Disclosure Management artifacts from the EPRCS web client.

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

 

If you want to add a logo to your Doclets, where would you make this update?

A. Author Phase

B. Report Package

C. Style Sample

D. Design Phase

E. Format Grid

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

 

What operations can you NOT perform within the Validation mode of Disclosure Management?

A. check and validate the XBRL mappings against the metadata in the taxonomy

B. provide error messages from the mapping tool

C. show details of mappings in the document

D. use XBRL taxonomy schema rules and calculations to validate data accuracy and compliance

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

 

Which two file formats are supported by Management Reporting?

A. .des

B. HTML

C. Excel

D. PDF

E. .epr

 

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/eprcs_common/ADEPR/ADEPR.pdf


Question 8:

 

You need to add the number 10 to column A in a management report. Which two are acceptable formula syntaxes for doing this?

A. SUM([A],10)

B. SUM(A, 10)

C. =SUM([A],10)

D. =SUM(A, 10)

E. [A]+10

F. A+10

 

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

 

Which is FALSE about managing the Sign Off Phase?

A. You cancel the Sign Off and reopen the Report Package for more editing.

B. If you determine that no changes are necessary as a result of a Signer\’s Rejection, you can resend the Sign Off request without unlocking (the report package.

C. When the Sign Off Request action takes place on a Report Package the report package status is Changed to “Sign Off In Progress.”

D. After a Sign Off Instance is created, no edits can be made to the Report Package content.

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

 

Which of the following is a snapshot of the Report Package when you create this, the system renders

all of the checked-in versions of the Doclets into a draft version of the report?

A. Reference Doclet

B. Review Instance

C. Review Phase

D. Review Cycle

 

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/eprcs_common/MRPRO/managing_the_review_phase _106336.htm#MRPRO-GUID-0CF6217E-D109-4E34-953A-952339F416FE


Question 11:

 

You have created a package and want to include data that can be only downloaded and viewed. What type of document would you use?

A. Approved

B. Doclet

C. Reference

D. Supplemental

E. Finalized

 

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

 

Which are valid steps when creating a Package?

A. Create Report, Add Users, Apply Security, Distribute

B. Report Center, Create Doclet, Apply Phases, Approval. Finalize

C. Create Package, Assign Phases, Add Doclet, Organize Sections, Add Author

D. Design, Author, Review, and Approve

E. Create Doclet, Add Package, Apply Users/Groups, Add Author

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

 

Which two statements are TRUE about Alias Tables utilized within a Custom Application?

A. Additional Alias Tables cannot be deleted after they have been created.

B. Additional alias tables for dimension members can be viewed in the Detailed View of the web user interface.

C. Additional alias tables for dimension members can be viewed when querying data in Smart View.

D. The initial Alias Table is named “Default” but can be renamed as needed.

E. Additional alias tables for dimension members can be viewed in the Table View of the web user interface.

 

Correct Answer: DE


Question 14:

 

Which two methods can be used to delete an existing management report grid?

A. Press the X button in the top right-hand corner.

B. Right-click the grid and choose Delete.

C. within Report Actions, select Delete.

D. Drag and drop the grid off of the report.

 

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

 

Which three steps are required for the validation process performed during Instance Document generation?

A. Confirm the report language used.

B. Validate the taxonomy.

C. Generate the instance document.

D. Create the Instance document.

 

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation: Validation is a three-step process. First, you validate the taxonomy. The next step is the generation of the instance document, which creates an XML file associated with the instance document. XBRL is an XML-based framework and relies on XML syntax to declare semantic meaning such as XLink and XML Schema. The last step is the creation of the instance document, which can be exchanged with other business entities or filed with a regulatory agency.

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/eprcs_common/UDEPR/generating_instance_docu ments_182x8e51bd9f.htm


 

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Question 1:

From which two dates defined in the period can you schedule reconciliations? (Choose two.)

A. end date

B. prior period end date

C. close date

D. start date

 

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/GUID-52A3F1EF-7D35-41F5-A284-861268631470.pdf


Question 2:

 

Which statement is always true of data loads from Data Management?

A. You must select either Actual or Budget as the scenario for the data.

B. You cannot load data into reconciliations with a status of Closed.

C. Only users with the administrator role can run data loads.

D. If there is no change in the balance, the reconciliation is not updated.

 

Correct Answer: A

 


Question 3:

 

Which keyword in a Teams import file identifies the section with the team members?

A. #team_children

B. #team

C. #team_items

D. #dependents

 

Correct Answer: A

#team_children identifies a list of team members Chapter 19-9 https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/adarc/GUID-3B2518AE-A5E5-44CD-A032-5CB119F087FE.pdf


Question 4:

 

Which two Bank File formats does Account Reconciliation support using pre-built adapters in Data Management? (Choose two.)

A. SWIFT MT940

B. BAI

C. EDI

D. XML

 

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/erpia/considerations_for_arcs_102x30053848.html


Question 5:

 

Which statement about loading pre-mapped balances is FALSE?

A. You can drill back into the ERP from the reconciliation screen.

B. You must select a currency bucket for the import.

C. You must select a period to which to load the balances.

D. You can import from either tab-separated or comma-separated files.

 

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/admin_import_premapped_balances_102xfdf77b0f.html


Question 6:

 

You want to load balances for both the Entered currency bucket and the Functional currency bucket in a single data load. Which tool should you use?

A. `Import pre-mapped balances\’ option on the Periods page

B. Data Management data load rule

C. Smart View

D. Supplemental Data Management form

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

 

Which is required for a valid profile?

A. at least one level of review

B. at least one question

C. at least one rule

D. at least one currency bucket

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

 

In a reconciliation profile, the Account Payable Reviewers team is assigned as the reviewer, and you want to require that ALL team members approve the reconciliation. Which action should you perform?

A. In the Instructions tab of the profile, add instructions for all team members to review the reconciliation.

B. On the Workflow tab of the Profile, select All Reviewers in the Require Action By field.

C. Add a rule of the type Require Team Review to the Rules tab.

D. Do not select a Primary User for the Account Payable Reviewers team.

 

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/GUID-52A3F1EF-7D35-41F5-A284-861268631470.pdf (105)


Question 9:

 

When a user requests that responsibility for reconciliation be reassigned to John, who is another regular user, John should be able to approve the request. How can this be configured?

A. In his User Preferences, John should select the Approve Reassignments option.

B. Add John to the Reassignment Approvers security group.

C. On the Reassignment Requests tab in System Settings, in the Allow Reassignment Request Approval By option, select Users.

D. On the Manage Users tab of the Access Control page, assign John the Reassignment Approvers role.

 

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/admin_reassignment_requests_latest.108xe8804cd8.html


Question 10:

 

In which row does an unmatched transaction with an accounting date of April 30th display in the period-end reconciliation for May 31?

A. It is excluded from the report

B. Unmatched Supported

C. Matched In Transit

D. Unmatched

 

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/GUID-66348188-2CE7-4B0E-B239-0EBB40EC1C5F.pdf


Question 11:

 

Where can a service administrator navigate to view, by the user, how many reconciliations were completed on time, how many are late, and how many were rejected?

A. Reconciliations List

B. Overview Dashboard

C. Compliance Dashboard

D. Worklist

 

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/raarc/GUID-66348188-2CE7-4B0E-B239-0EBB40EC1C5F.pdf (2-14)


Question 12:

 

Which statement regarding user-defined attributes is FALSE?

A. You can assign access by user role.

B. They can include calculated values.

C. They can be assigned default values.

D. You can no longer add/edit attributes after reconciliations are created.

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

 

Which is NOT an attribute type for reconciliation compliance attributes?

A. Yes/No

B. True/False

C. Number

D. Location

 

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_attributes_define_100xd4952d5d.html


Question 14:

 

Which two statements are correct about deleting reconciliations? (Choose two.)

A. The reconciliation status must be Pending.

B. Only the preparer of the reconciliation can delete the reconciliation.

C. The balances loaded for a period are not deleted when the reconciliation is deleted.

D. Only a Service Administrator or a Power User can delete a reconciliation.

 

Correct Answer: CD

Only the admin or power user can delete the recon


Question 15:

 

Which ability does NOT belong to users with the Power User role?

A. edit formats to which they are assigned access

B. prepare reconciliations

C. review reconciliations

D. edit profiles to which they are assigned access

 

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/cgsad/4_managing_epm_cloud_users_roles_arcs.html


 
 

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Question 1:

Your client needs to associate a product item with a product group but cannot make the association. What should you check to identify the cause?

A. Validate that the product item is active and published.

B. Verify that Eligible for Service is selected on the product item.

C. Verify that Root Catalog is selected on the product groups.

D. Validate that AllowDuplicate is selected on the product item.

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

 

Which four actions does the REST API for Service Requests (SRs) allow?

A. Update SR milestone

B. Create SR

C. Update SR assignee

D. Delete SR by SR number

E. Delete SR by SR title

 

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 3:

 

You need to extract all Service Request (SR) data from your Engagement Cloud site from the last 12 months.

Identify two valid approaches to get this large volume of data.

A. You can schedule a single export as an ESS job (also known as a “scheduled process”) for all 12 months of SR data.

B. You can download large volumes of SR data from the Analytics interface.

C. You must retrieve large volumes of data through a REST API endpoint.

D. You can schedule incremental exports as ESS jobs (also known as a “scheduled process”) on a periodic basis, such as weekly or monthly.

 

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

 

What four actions do the as-delivered Service Request components included in a Digital Customer Service (DCS) application enable a DCS user to do?

A. Chat with an Agent about a service request.

B. View and edit attachments to a Service Request.

C. Create a Service Request.

D. Delete a Service Request.

E. Add a message to a Service Request.

 

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 5:

 

When creating localized Digital Customer Service applications, in which order would you perform the following steps?

1. Update the English message as needed for your DCS application.

2. Export the English language message bundle.

3. Translate the English message bundle to all desired languages.

4. Import translated message bundles.

A. 1,3,2,4

B. 3,2,4,1

C. 2,4,3,1

D. 1,2,3,4

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

 

Which two are required to publish a completed Digital Customer Service (DCS) application?

A. a single “publish” action to complete the task

B. nothing (DCS applications are always available to all users.)

C. moving the application to Stage and subsequently to Production status

D. system administrator approval

 

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

 

Your client has already established a product catalog of sales products and now wants to include service products to categorize service requests. You suggest the creation of a new catalog.

What are the two advantages of creating a new service catalog instead of using an existing one?

A. requires less work and effort

B. allows the use of a simpler hierarchy

C. allows the display of a product hierarchy specifically for service purposes

D. allows you to use the same product hierarchy as the sales

 

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

 

You created two assignment rules for service requests using the Use Score option. For some service requests, both rules return a result with the same total points.

What will be the expected result in the assignment of a queue for these service requests?

A. An error will occur; no queue is assigned to the service request.

B. The queue defined in the first evaluated rule is always assigned to the service request.

C. The queue defined by default is the one assigned to the service request.

D. The service request assignment will be unpredictable.

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

 

Select three correct limits and restrictions when importing data from a file.

A. Both create and update operations are available for imported records.

B. By default, the import starts immediately after it is activated.

C. Groovy Scripts and object workflows that have been configured for the object being imported are always executed.

D. The maximum number of records in each CSV file should not exceed the maximum limit of 10,000,000 records.

E. If the values in the imported CSV file contain a new line character, then they must be enclosed within quotation marks.

 

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

 

Your customer sells a wide variety of Mobile phones. To classify service requests efficiently you plan to create a new primary category called Mobile Phones.

Which four steps are required to define this new category?

A. Select Create Category > Create Top-Level Category.

B. Check the Active flag.

C. Select the task Manage Service Request Categories.

D. Select Status = “Active”.

E. Select Service Catalog in Functional Areas.

F. Select Create Category > Create Child Category.

G. Complete Category Name.

 

Correct Answer: ACDF


Question 11:

 

Identify the sequence of steps you must follow to disable the Service Communication channels.

A. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Click the pencil icon in the Features column for Service > Deselect all the options.

B. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Select the “Disable” column in “Service entitlements”

C. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Click the pencil icon in the Features column for Communication Channels > Deselect the “Communication” option.

D. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Click the pencil icon in the Features column for Service > Deselect the “Communication Channels” option.

E. Navigate to Setup and maintenance > Select the Service offering > Select setup at the Administration section > Click Change configuration > Deselect the “Enable” column in “Communication Channels”.

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

 

Which three statements are true about building Digital Customer Service (DCS)applications?

A. Many DCS applications can be active in production at the same time.

B. DCS includes a “reference implementation template” that illustrates recommended implementation practices.

C. Only one version of a DCS application can be active in production at any time.

D. DCS application can be embedded in other sites.

 

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 13:

 

If you want to disable the ability to delete activities for all users, what action should you perform?

A. Remove the “delete activities” button from all pages used by the users who have this access.

B. Remove the “delete activities” role from all the users who have this role.

C. Remove the “delete activities” privilege from all the roles for users who have this access.

D. Remove the users of the roles who have the “delete activities” access.

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

 

Your customer has noticed that emails are being retrieved every day only at 3:00 PM. This behavior began three days ago and no configuration changes were made during that time.

What is the cause of this new behavior?

A. a configured job to process inbound emails

B. an inbound message filter per time schedule

C. a configured profile option to schedule the retrieval of emails

D. an inbound message filter per sender

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

 

Your customer has informed you about a possible error in the screen pop-up when receiving a call. The problem is that the edit contact screen pop is shown whenever a call is received but most of the time the calls are regarding open Service Requests. As a result, agents have to navigate to that page, losing time and being ineffective.

What is causing the problem?

A. Rules do not follow an order. When a call is received, the “edit contact” screen pop appears because it is the default rule that has been selected, regardless of the service request number or other tokens received.

B. Rules follow a priority order. When the system finds a contact token it automatically opens the “edit contact” page, because that rule has been configured before the Service request rule, regardless if a service Request token is also available.

C. A configuration in the pages tab of the screen pop is missing, the URL to the page to be displayed has not been provisioned. The URL is empty so the system shows the contact edit page.

D. Screen pops are not configurable. When a call arrives, the system automatically opens the page of the object in question, these cases being the contact page.

 

Correct Answer: C


 

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Question 1:

Which three security design principles can help reduce overall security maintenance and troubleshooting, while still balancing security control? (Choose three.)

A. Creating groups over assigning individual access permissions to users

B. Configuring single sign-on (SSO)

C. Assigning a higher level role than necessary, then scaling back access permissions

D. Using inherited permissions

E. Assigning global read access to each cube, then fine-tuning none and write access within dimensional security

 

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

 

In Projects, which three types of revenue and expense assumptions drive data calculations? (Choose three.)

A. Project rates

B. Standard rates

C. Discount rates

D. Program mappings

E. Plan start year

F. Working days and hours

 

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 3:

 

In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have to import members? Choose the best answer.

A. Pay Type

B. Property

C. Component

D. Account

 

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/ wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html


Question 4:

 

Which three are predefined Workforce business rules? (Choose three.)

A. Transfer

B. Plan Departure

C. Promote Employee

D. Change Job

E. Remove Existing Employee

 

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

 

Which statement describes info lets? Choose the best answer.

A. Infolets help you personalize focused data slices that you frequently use for analysis.

B. Infolets help you quickly analyze data and understand key business questions by presenting a visual overview of high-level, aggregated information.

C. Infolets are predefined dashboards that give you insight into overall project financials and expense and revenue metrics.

D. Infolets help you organize, track, and prioritize your workload.

 

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/pfusu/EPM-INFORMATIONDEVELOPMENT-TEAM-E94218-6693400D.pdf (page: 8-1)


Question 6:

 

Which describes Strategic Modeling? Choose the best answer.

A. Used to evaluate financial scenarios and perform financial impact analysis.

B. Used to evaluate how assets and resources related to corporate initiatives are allocated

C. Used primarily for balance sheet planning

D. Used to develop plans and forecasts and generate core financial statements

 

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/ about_strategic_modeling_104x7f015aa0.html


Question 7:

 

Which card allows you to enable modules? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Valid Intersections

B. Data Maps

C. Overview

D. Settings

E. Configure

 

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/ proj_enabling_project_features__100xd3780265.html


Question 8:

 

What three time period management tasks can you perform in Strategic Modeling? (Choose three.)

A. Combine periods of years, halves, quarters, months, and weeks for historical forecast data.

B. Configure time periods to reflect the detail required by financial models, such as different levels of granularity for different years.

C. Enable the input option for upper-level time periods when you add time detail.

D. Create period-to-date, trailing periods, deal periods, and sub-periods to record transactions.

E. Select and combine periods of years, halves, quarters, months, and weeks for the beginning balance year.

 

Correct Answer: ACE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbug/GUID-AECB402159B2-4C88-AFEE-92FB04D92C21.pdf (7-30, 7-31)


Question 9:

 

Which two statements are true regarding the creation and management of business rules in module-based Planning? (Choose two.)

A. Pre-defined business rules for modules may be modified but may be ignored after an application upgrade.

B. Custom business rules for modules can only be created using the graphical designer.

C. Custom business rules can be created for each module.

D. Modules cannot use regular business rules. Instead, they must be scripted using Groovy.

 

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

 

You want to share detailed benefits data from Workforce with Financials.

Which statement describes the steps you must take? Choose the best answer.

A. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. When enabling Workforce, create a custom Benefits dimension to map the data to. Then for the Financial Statement Integration data map, synchronize and push the data.

B. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. Then in the Workforce Benefits and Taxes wizard, select a financial account to map the benefit too. For Compensation Data, synchronize and run the data map.

C. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. When enabling Financials, create a custom Benefits dimension to map the data to. On the Financials Integration Summary form, run Calculate Compensation to update the Workforce data.

D. Enable and configure Financials and Workforce. Then to capture Workforce expenses for employees, enable Standard Rates from Workforce. For the Compensation Data for Reporting data map, synchronize and then push the data.

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

 

Which two client requirements align with using an ASO plan type alongside the module-based plan types? (Choose two.)

A. The client would like to plan revenue by Product and Service dimensions.

B. The client would like to report the results of the allocation process by Entity.

C. The client would like to store 10 years of actual history for reporting purposes but only requires prior-year history for planning purposes.

D. Due to sparse dimensionality, aggregation times are slow in the application.

E. The client has 10 dimensions in the application and needs to report at each intersection.

 

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/hyp/CreateASOReportingCube1112/CreateASOReportingCube-1112.htm


Question 12:

 

What two form validation rule options are supported in Planning? (Choose two.)

A. When enabled, execute validations associated with the form for all users regardless of access rights when validating the Approval unit.

B. When enabled, all validations are run as the administrator and applied to the form members.

C. When enabled, the user variable for the approval dimension on the form will be replaced by the approval unit member before the validations are run.

D. When enabled, the system figures out which page combinations have potential data blocks and runs the validations regardless of those page combinations.

E. When enabled, the form will be validated multiple times by replacing the user variable from the approval unit dimension with every possible value.

 

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financial-consolidation-cloud/agfcc/ including_data_validation_rules_in_forms.html


Question 13:

 

Which two are supported funding methods in Strategic Modeling? (Choose two.)

A. Target Capital Structure funding method

B. Standard funding method

C. Proposed Projects funding method

D. Employee-based funding method

 

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/cssmu/ using_funding_methods_236x8f4329e8.html


Question 14:

 

Which three are use cases for data maps? (Choose three.)

A. To allow users to drill back to the data in a different cube.

B. To integrate data between custom plan types and Planning modules

C. To integrate data between Planning modules

D. To push data from a planning cube to a reporting cube

E. To create a replicated partition between cubes

 

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 15:

 

Which two are displayed on the user point of view bar within a financial report? Choose two.

A. Dimensions that are tagged as type Time

B. Dimensions that are tagged as type Account

C. Dimensions not defined in a row, column, or page

D. Dimensions in a row, column, or page that are flagged for the current point of view

 

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/HFWCG/about_the_user_point_of_view.htm#HFWCGdesigning_a_report_35


 

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Question 1:

Which three fields must be defined when registering a file-based source system in Data Management? (Choose three.)

A. Source Type

B. Drill URL

C. Cloud Type

D. Description

E. Name

 

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 2:

 

You are required to define a form that displays all form data for only specific View dimension members and

not allow users to change this.

Where on the form do you define the View dimension and select the correct member?

A. a column

B. Other Options section

C. the Page Axis

D. the Point of View

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

 

Which dimension includes the FCCS_Global Assumption member that is used to store currency information?

A. Account

B. From Currency

C. Entity

D. Currency

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

 

What is the primary function of enabling the Track Intercompany Elimination option during the application creation?

A. enables the Elimination of member in the Consolidation dimension

B. process will separate total elimination values by Data Source.

C. enables the application to include Intercompany data.

D. enables the application to perform Intercompany eliminations

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

 

Which is NOT a member of the Data Source Dimension created by Financial Consolidation and Close (FCCS)?

A. FCCS_No Data Source

B. FCCS_Data Input

C. FCCS_SystemTypes

D. FCCS_Proportion

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

 

What will Financial Consolidation and Close (FCCS) do when adding a new member that is an expense-type account under a parent that is set as an income-type account?

A. this setting will not affect additions or subtractions to the next parent

B. subtract amounts consolidated to the parent

C. add amounts consolidated to the parent

D. you can\’t load data to this account

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

 

Financial Consolidation Close Cloud maintains the status calculation for which combination of dimensions?

A. Scenario, Account, Base Entity, and Parent Entity

B. Year, Scenario, Base Entity, and Account

C. Scenario, View, Parent Entity, and Account

D. Period, Scenario, Base Entity, and Parent Entity

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

 

A company would like to capture Fixed Asset additions and disposals within the Movement dimension. Which three tasks are necessary to achieve this goal? (Choose three.)

A. Build a custom Movement member for Fixed Assets with dependent custom members for Additions and Disposals

B. Add custom members for Additions and Disposals as dependents of FCCS_Mvmts_CapitalExpenditures.

C. Load detailed Fixed Asset data to Movement members.

D. Add custom Movement members to the FCCS_CashFlow hierarchy.

E. Create a Roll Forward in the account dimension.

 

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

 

How can the Intercompany Dimension be enabled and made visible within your application?

A. after application creation by selecting any Account as IC_Acc_Yes for the Intercompany Account attribute

B. during application creation and selecting the Intercompany Data feature option

C. after application creation by selecting any Account as IC_Acc_Yes for the Intercompany Entity attribute

D. during application creation and selecting the Multi-source Data Input of Other Data

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

 

Which is the true behavior of default FCCS_ members within an application?

A. You can change the default FCCS_ member prefix at application creation.

B. You can change the Alias of these default FCCS_ members at any time.

C. You can change the Name of these default FCCS_ members at any time.

D. You cannot change the Alias of these default FCCS_ members.

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

 

By default, security access is set to “None” for which three dimensions? (Choose three.)

A. Movement

B. Data Source

C. Account

D. Entity

E. Year

 

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 12:

 

Which item describes the use for the Currency dimension property Triangulation Currency?

A. The ability to force translations

B. The ability to report in multiple currencies

C. The ability to calculate foreign exchange rates

D. The ability to calculate CTA (Cumulative Translation Adjustment)

E. The ability to input foreign exchange rates

 

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

 

A new Sheet tab in Excel is copied from an existing tab that contains a Smart View query, but clicking Refresh does not refresh the data, and the Smart View (Point of View) POV bar does not display. Which additional step is required to pull data in the new tab and change the POV?

A. Disconnect from the Smart View connection, and relog in.

B. Activate the Connection.

C. Close out of Excel, and relog into Smart View.

D. Change one of the Row or Column dimension members and click Refresh.

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

 

Which three scenarios result in foreign currency translation during the default consolidation process? (Choose three.)

A. A base entity currency has a parent entity with a matching default currency.

B. A base entity currency has a parent entity with a different default currency.

C. A parent entity has the same default currency as its parent.

D. A parent entity has a different currency from its parent.

E. A shared entity has a parent with a different currency.

 

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

 

Which four sample ratios can be created during the application creation process? (Choose four.)

A. Inventory Ratios

B. Contribution Margin

C. Debt Ratio

D. Earnings per Share

E. Days Sales in Receivables

F. Gross Margin

 

Correct Answer: ACEF


 

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Question 1:

When was SQL Developer Web released?

A. 2016

B. 2009

C. 2011

D. 2018

E. 2006

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

 

Which autonomous database types are available on Oracle Cloud? (Choose three.)

A. Autonomous Relation Database System

B. Autonomous Data Warehouse

C. Autonomous Streams

D. Autonomous Transaction Processing

E. Autonomous JSON Database

 

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 3:

 

In order to migrate an active database using RMAN DUPLICATE, what information do you need for the source database? (Choose two.)

A. Location of audit files

B. Listener port

C. Value of the UNDO_RETENTION parameter

D. Database unique name

E. Password for HR schema

 

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

 

Which entry in a Data Pump parameter file ensures consistent export using Data Pump migration to Autonomous Database?

A. PARALLEL

B. LOGTIME

C. METRIC

D. FLASHBACK_TIME

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

 

Which knowledge modules are supported by Oracle Data Integrator (ODI)?

A. IDB DB2

B. All of the options

C. Spark

D. Hive

E. ADW

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

 

Which file types can be imported using SQL Developer Web?

A. All of the options

B. Excel

C. AVRO

D. CSV Delimited

E. JSPN

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

 

You have executed the mappings with Change Data Capture ( CDC ) on the source data store and you are now going through the code in the operator log for debugging. Which two tables or views do you need to inspect in the database to see whether the CDC process is writing changed data or not in Oracle Data Integration ( ODI )? (Choose all correct answers)

A. JV$D view

B. J$ table

C. JV$ view

D. JW$ view

 

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

 

Which port number do all the OCI GoldenGate Microservices environments use for port forwarding through NGINX?

A. 1521

B. 22

C. 1680

D. 443

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

 

What can you use to quickly load data into a cloud database by dragging and dropping a file in a web browser?

A. Remote cloning a pluggable database (PDB)

B. RMAN Transportable Tablespace

C. Data Pump Transportable Tablespaces

D. DataLoad tab of the SQL worksheet in Database Actions

 

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

 

When integrating data from multiple sources into a Data Warehouse schema, you want to check a length constraint that you have imposed on one of the target columns before the rows arrive in the target table. All the rows that do not pass this quality check will have to be isolated in error tables. For this, you have chosen an Integration Knowledge Module (IKM) that supports flow control.

You have also chosen the value range for this parameter to enable this check. At compile time, you see that Oracle Data Integrator (ODI) throws an error and the execution cannot start. What is the reason?

A. Primary key was not defined on the target table.

B. The Check Knowledge Module was not set in the physical design.

C. The integration type was not set in the logical design.

D. There were no rows compliant with imposed constraints.

 

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

 

Which developer tool is web-based, function-rich, and resides in a low-code development environment?

A. APEX

B. RMAN

C. IMPEXPDP

D. DATAPUMP

 

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

 

What are the TWObenefits of Extract-Load-Transform (ELT) over traditional Extract-Transform-Load (ETL) architectures? (Choose all correct answers)

A. ELT architecture reduces the amount of network traffic over traditional ETL tools, which use a dedicated server.

B. ELT architecture can easily become a bottleneck by placing excessive loads on the target servers.

C. ELT architecture does not require dedicated hardware and leverages native data management engines, such as Big Data and RDBMS.

D. Traditional ETL tools use a dedicated server, which provides better performance as it can be sized to any workload.

 

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

 

Which technologies can you use for Zero Downtime physical migration? (Choose two.) (Choose all correct answers)

A. Data Guard

B. OracleGoldenGate

C. Data Pump

D. RMAN

 

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

 

When migrating an Oracle database, you must be aware of source and target requirements. Which TWO statements are true about using Oracle Zero DowntimeMigration (ZDM)? (Choose all correct answers)

A. Source Oracle Single Instance Databases can be migrated to Oracle RAC Databases with Oracle ZDM-.

B. Oracle ZDM supports cross-edition migration, allowing Standard Edition Databases to be migrated to Enterprise Edition Databases.

C. When migrating with Oracle ZDM and the target database is at a higher patch level than the source database, the data patch utility runs on the target database as a post-migration task.

D. Source Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC) Databases can be migrated to Single Instance Databases with Oracle ZDM.

 

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

 

Which type of checks is NOT supported by Oracle Data Integrator (ODI)?

A. conditions

B. keys

C. references

D. mandatory attributes

E. business rule

 

Correct Answer: E


 

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