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Question 1:
Where are passwords and licensing information stored?
A. Non-Volatile Random Access Memory (NVRAM)
B. Content Addressable Memory (CAM)
C. RAMmemory
D. Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDRAM)
E. Boot Flash
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
View the Exhibit.
Which statement is true about this output of the show health command?
A. The two nodes have different health scores.
B. The training1 peer is the standby node.
C. The switchover bird force command was executed to do a manual failover.
D. The training6 peer is the active node.
E. The training6 peer will wait 1050 ms before considering the training1 peer out of service.
Correct Answer: E
Question 3:
CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true about the Host In Path (HIP) feature In the Session Border Controller?
A.
Correct Answer: A
Answer: By default, the session Border Controller\’s FTP, ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services cannot be accessed via the management interfaces. Answer: To enable these services (FTP ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services), the enable host-in-path command must be executed from the superuser mode. Answer: To enable these services, the Session Border Controller includes a software license that enables administrative traffic over the media interfaces.
Answer: By default, the Session Border Controller\’s FTP, ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services cannot be accessed via media interfaces. Answer: These four fields (FTP, ICMP, SNMP, and Telnet services) are collectively known as the Host Interface Priority.
You are adding peers to a Policy-Based Realm Bridging (PBRB) configuration.
Which two configuration steps, among others, are required? (Choose two.)
A. Navigate to the media-manager configuration branch and configure the realm-config configuration element.
B. Navigate to the session-router configuration branch and configure the sip-address configuration element.
C. Navigate to the session-router configuration branch and configure the local-policy configuration element.
D. Navigate to the session-router configuration branch and configure the sip-nat configuration element.
E. Navigate to the media-manager configuration branch and configure the access-control configuration element.
Correct Answer: AE
Question 5:
Which two statements describe the functions of Session Border Controllers? (Choose two.)
A. they replace typical edge routers and firewalls in order to provide a unified network border for signaling and media control
B. they are session-aware devices that enable control of end-to-end interactive communications across IP network borders
C. they are based on the Windows operating system
D. they provide routing functions for IP, TCP, and SMTPusing application parameters
E. they provide signaling proxy functions for SIP, H.323, and MGCP, which include access control, signaling constraints, and topology hiding
Correct Answer: AE
Question 6:
Which three options are valid ways to apply Header Manipulation Rules (HMRs) to your existing configuration?
A. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and configure the in- manipulation parameter.
B. Navigate to the session-agent configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.
C. Navigate to the sip-interface configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.
D. Navigate to the session-agent configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.
E. Navigate to the session-group configuration element and configure the in-manipulation parameter.
Correct Answer: ABC
Question 7:
You used the no command to delete a configuration element.
Which statement is true?
A. The deletion is lost on immediate reboot.
B. The deletion is reflected when viewing the running configuration.
C. The deletion takes effect immediately in the saved configuration.
D. The deletion always requires a reboot to take effect.
E. The deletion requires auto-save enabled.
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
Examine the output below from the show sipd invite command:
How many 600 Busy Everywhere messages sent by the Session Border Controller in the last 140 seconds did not originate from a downstream device?
A. 157
B. 13
C. 4
D. 161
E. 0
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
Which three statements are true about the bootloader? (Choose three.)
A. It decompresses the image file and loads it into the main RAM
B. It reads the imagefile
C. It is based on Linux
D. It looks at the boot parameters
E. It is a Windriver\’s VxWork product
Correct Answer: ABD
Question 10:
To ensure the proper operation of a Session Border Controller HighAvailability (HA) pair, it is critical that both of the devices can originate legitimate traffic on media interfaces independent of the network interface IP address.
How is this type of traffic accommodated?
A. by setting the pri-utility-addr, sec-utility-addr, and sec-gateway values to addresses in the same subnet as the IP address configured on the management interfaces
B. by setting the pri-utility-addr, sec-utility-addr, and sec-gateway values to addresses in the same subnet as the IP address configured on the media interfaces
C. by setting the utility address and sec-gateway values to addresses in different subnets as the IP address configured on the Wacom interfaces
D. by setting a unique address on the welcome and wancom2 interfaces via the utility address command
E. via the utility address parameters on the welcome and wancom2 interfaces
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
You are configuring a network interface to enable the Session Border Controller to use the interface for signaling and media.
Identify two valid configuration steps for supporting VLAN 12 (Choose two.)
A. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and set the sub-port-id parameter to 12.
B. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and set the sub-port-id parameter to 0.
C. Navigate to the phy-interface configuration element and configure the hip-id parameter.
D. Navigate to the phy-interface configuration element and configure the pri-utility-address parameter.
E. Navigate to the network-interface configuration element and configure the name parameter.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 12:
What is the first thing you must do when setting up the boot parameters of the Session Border Controller?
A. reset the system clock
B. know the superuser mode password and access the configuration mode
C. disable FTP access to the wancom0 management interface
D. obtain the boot param license
E. verify the configuration by executing the verify-config command
Correct Answer: D
Question 13:
How does the Session Border Controller ensure that a pinhole is kept open for persistent communication to a SIP endpoint behind a NAT device?
A. by changing the expires= parameter to a defined value in 200 OK responses to REGISTERs
B. by changing the expires= parameter to a defined value in 200 OK responses to INVITEs
C. by issuing PINGs to the endpoint\’s NAT address
D. by sending Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests at a defined frequency
E. by sending messages at a defined frequency
Correct Answer: D
Question 14:
Upon issuing the done command, you get an Error 409.
Which two options explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. You are trying to create an element with a unique identifier that already exists.
B. The configuration element you are creating is corrupted.
C. The element you are trying to save does not exist.
D. There is an internal server error.
E. You are trying to create a second instance of a single-instance configuration element.
Correct Answer: AE
Question 15:
Which two statements are true about dynamic realm bridging? (Choose two.)
A. Egressrealm can be any, depending on time-of-day, called number, and so on.
B. Dynamic realm bridging is the routing of a signaling message coming from a given ingress realm to the next hop in an egress realm.
C. Dynamic realm bridging is a one-to-one association accomplished by using SIP-NAT.
D. Ingress and egress realms are unconditionally paired.
E. Dynamic realm bridging decisions are based solely on layer 3 (IP) information.
Correct Answer: AB
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Which three statements are true about performing Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations on a view In an Oracle Database?
A. Insert statements can always be done on a table through a view.
B. The WITH CHECK clause has no effect when deleting rows from the underlying table through the view.
C. Views cannot be used to query rows from an underlying table if the table has a PRIMARY KEY and the PRIMARY KEY columns are not referenced in the defining query of the view.
D. Views cannot be used to add or modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains the DISTINCT keyword.
E. Views cannot be used to add on modify rows in an underlying table if the defining query of the view contains aggregating functions.
F. Views cannot be used to add rows to an underlying table if the table has columns with NOT NULL constraints lacking default values That are not referenced in the defining query of the view.
Correct Answer: DEF
Question 2:
Which four statements are true about constraints on Oracle tables?
A. A Column can have only one CHECK Constraint.
B. A NOT NULL Constraint can be defined at the table level.
C. A UNIQUE constraint permits NULLS.
D. A PRIMARY KEY Constraint can be added after a table has been created and populated.
E. A CHECK Constraint can refer to values in other rows.
F. A UNIQUE Constraint can use a pre-existing index on the constrained column or columns.
G. A FOREIGN KEY Column can contain NULLS.
Correct Answer: CDFG
Question 3:
Which two queries execute successfully?
A. SELECT NULLIF(100, 100) FROM DUAL
B. SELECT COALESCE(100, NULL, 200) FROM DUAL
C. SELECT NULLIF(100, \’A\’) FROM DUAL
D. SELECT NULLIF(NULL, 100) FROM DUAL
E. SELECT COALESCE(100, \’A\’ ) FROM DUAL
Correct Answer: AB
Question 4:
Which three are true about multiple INSERT statements?
A. They can be performed only by using a subquery.
B. They can be performed on relational tables.
C. They can be performed on views.
D. They can be performed on remote tables.
E. They can be performed on external tables using SQL*Loader.
F. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.
Correct Answer: ABF
Question 5:
Which three are true about granting object privileges on tables, views, and sequences?
A. UPDATE can be granted only on tables and views.
B. DELETE can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.
C. REFERENCES can be granted only on tables and views.
D. INSERT can be granted on tables, views, and sequences.
E. SELECT can be granted only on tables and views.
F. ALTER can be granted only on tables and sequences.
Correct Answer: ACF
Question 6:
Examine the description of the PRODUCTS table Which contains data: Which two are true?
A. The PROD ID column can be renamed.
B. The PROD_ ID column data type can be changed to VARCHAR2 (2).
C. The EXPIRY DATE column data type can be changed to TIME STAMP.
D. The EXPIRY DATE column cannot be dropped.
E. The PROD NAME column cannot have a DEFAULT clause added to it.
Correct Answer: AC
Question 7:
Which two are true about the WITH GRANT OPTION clause?
A. The grantee can grant the object privilege to any user in the database, with of without including this option.
B. The grantee must have the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE system privilege to use this option.
C. It can be used when granting privileges to roles.
D. It can be used for system and object privileges.
E. It cannot be used to pass on privileges to PUBLIC by the grantee.
F. It can be used to pass on privileges to other users by the grantee.
Correct Answer: AF
Question 8:
Which two statements are true about INTERVAL data types
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a range of years.
B. The value in an INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND column can be copied into an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column.
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns only support monthly intervals within a single year.
D. The YEAR field in an INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH column must be a positive value.
E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND columns support fractions of seconds.
F. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH columns support yearly intervals.
Correct Answer: EF
Question 9:
Which two statements are true about Oracle synonyms?
A. A synonym can have a synonym.
B. A synonym has an object number.
C. Any user can create a public synonym.
D. All private synonym names must be unique in the database.
E. A synonym can be created on an object in a package.
Correct Answer: AB
Question 10:
Which two queries execute successfully?
A. SELECT INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY – SYSDATE FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT SYSTIMESTAMP + INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY – INTERVAL \’1\’ MINUTE FROM DUAL;
D. select INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY +INTERVAL \’1\’ MONTH FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT SYSDATE “INTERVAL \’1\’ DAY FROM DUAL;
Correct Answer: BC
Question 11:
Which statement is true about aggregate functions?
A. The AVG function implicitly converts NULLS to zero
B. The MAX and MIN functions can be used on columns with character data types
C. Aggregate functions can be used in any clause of a SELECT statement
D. Aggregate functions can be nested into any number of levels
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
Which two statements are true about the COUNT function?
A. It can only be used for NUMBER data types.
B. COUNT (DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULLs in the INV_AMT column
C. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table including duplicate rows and rows containing NULLs in any column.
D. A SELECT statement using the COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause.
E. COUNT(inv_amt) returns the number of rows in a table including rows with NULL in the INV_AMT column.
Correct Answer: BC
Question 13:
Which three statements are true about defining relations between tables in a relational database?
A. Foreign key columns allow null values.
B. Unique key columns allow null values
C. Primary key columns allow null values.
D. Every primary or unique key value must refer to a matching foreign key value.
E. Every foreign key value must refer to a matching primary or unique key value.
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 14:
In Which three situations does a new transaction always start?
A. When issuing a SELECT FOR UPDATE statement after a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement was issued in the same session
B. When issuing a CREATE INDEX statement after a CREATE TABLE statement completed unsuccessfully in the same session
C. When issuing a TRUNCATE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session
D. When issuing a CREATE TABLE statement after a SELECT statement was issued in the same session
E. When issuing the first Data Manipulation Language (OML) statement after a COMMIT or ROLLBACK statement was issued in the same session
F. When issuing a DML statement after a DML statement is filed in the same session.
Correct Answer: ABE
Question 15:
You execute these commands:
CREATE TABLE customers (customer id INTEGER, customer name VARCHAR2 (20));
INSERT INTO customers VALUES (1`Custmoer1 `);
SAVEPOINT post insert;
INSERT INTO customers VALUES (2, \’Customer2 `);
SELECTCOUNT (*) FROM customers;
Which two, used independently, can replace so the query retums 1?
A. ROLLBACK;
B. COMMIT;
C. ROLIBACK TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;
D. CONOIT TO SAVEPOINT post_ insert;
E. ROLLEBACK TO post_ insert;
Correct Answer: CE
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Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.
B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.
C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.
D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.
E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.
Correct Answer: BD
In general, all scheduler objects created by the user can be exported/imported into the PDB using a data pump. Predefined scheduler objects will not get exported and that means that any changes made to these objects by the user will have to be made once again after the database has been imported into the pluggable database.
However, this is how to import/export works currently. A job defined in a PDB will run only if a PDB is open.
Question 2:
A complete database backup to media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure a large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by the media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BCD
Tuning RMAN Backup Performance: Procedure Many factors can affect backup performance. Often, finding the solution to a slow backup is a process of trial and error. To get the best performance for a backup, follow the suggested steps in this section:
Step 1: Remove RATE Parameters from Configured and Allocated Channels
Step 2: If You Use Synchronous Disk I/O, Set DBWR_IO_SLAVES
Step 3: If You Fail to Allocate Shared Memory, Set LARGE_POOL_SIZE Step 4: Tune RMAN Tape Streaming Performance Bottlenecks Step 5: Query V$ Views to Identify Bottlenecks
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation: About the LIST Command: The primary purpose of the LIST command is to list backups and copies. For example, you can list: -Backups and proxy copies of a database, tablespace, datafile, archived redo log, or control file – Backups that have expired -Backups restricted by time, path name, device type, tag, or recoverability -Archived redo log files and disk copies
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE
Chains are the means by which you can implement dependency-based scheduling, in which jobs are started depending on the outcomes of one or more previous jobs. DBMS_SCHEDULER.DEFINE_CHAIN_STEP DBMS_SCHEDULER.DEFINE_CHAIN_EVENT_STEP
Because of logical corruption of data in a table, you want to recover the table from an RMAN backup to a
specified point in time.
Examine the steps to recover this table from an RMAN backup:
1. Determine which backup contains the table that needs to be recovered.
2. Issue the recover table RMAN command with an auxiliary destination defined and the point in time
specified.
3. Import the Data Pump export dump file into the auxiliary instance.
4. Create a Data Pump export dump file that contains the recovered table on a target database.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: D
Because according to oracle PDFs if you run the restore table … auxiliary impede and rename can be included. So there is no reason to make the import manually if it can be already included in step 2.
Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have an unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF
There are a number of restrictions for flashback archives: The tablespaces used for a flashback archive must use local extent management and automatic segment space management. The database must use automatic undo management. Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_11g_new_enabling_fdba.htm
Question 8:
The environmental variable oracle_Base is set to /u01/app/oracle and oracle_home is set to /u01/app/ oracle/product/12.1.0/db1.
You want to check the diagnostic files created as part of the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Examine the initialization parameters set in your database.
A. It is set to/u01/app/oracle/product:/12.1.0/db_1/log.
B. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/admin/en12.1.0/dump.
C. It is set to /u01/app/oracle.
D. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area.
Correct Answer: C
The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) is a directory structure that is stored outside of the database.
It is therefore available for problem diagnosis when the database is down.
The ADR root directory is known as the ADR base. Its location is set by the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter. If this parameter is omitted or left null, the database sets DIAGNOSTIC_DEST upon startup as follows:
If environment variable ORACLE_BASE is set, DIAGNOSTIC_DEST is set to the directory designated by
ORACLE_BASE.
If the environment variable ORACLE_BASE is not set, DIAGNOSTIC_DEST is set to ORACLE_HOME/log.
You wish to create jobs to satisfy these requirements:
1. Automatically bulk load data from a flat file.
2. Rebuild indexes on the SALES table after completion of the bulk load.
How would you create these jobs?
A. Create both jobs by using Scheduler-raised events.
B. Create both jobs using application-raised events.
C. Create one job to rebuild indexes using application-raised events and another job to perform bulk load using Scheduler raised events.
D. Create one job to rebuild indexes using Scheduler-raised events and another job to perform bulk load by using events raised by the application.
Correct Answer: C
The bulk loader would be started in response to a file watcher scheduler event and the indexes would be rebuilt in response to an application event raised by the bulk loader. Your application can raise an event to notify the Scheduler to start a job. A job started in this way is referred to as an event-based job. The job can optionally retrieve the message content of the event.
Your Oracle 12c multitenant container database (CDB) contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). In
the PDB hr_pdb, the common user c##admin and the local user b_admin have only the connect privilege.
You create a common role c##role1 with the create table and select any table privileges.
You then execute the commands:
SQL> GRANTc##role1 TO##Madmin CONTAINER=ALL;
SQL>CONNsys/oracle@HR_PDB as sysdba
SQL> GRANTc##role1TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;
Which two statements are true?
A. C##admin can create and select any table, and grant the c##role1 role to users only in the root container.
B. B_admin can create and select any table in both the root container and Hr_pdb.
C. c##admin can create and select any table in the root container and all the PDBs.
D. B_admin can create and select any table only in hr_pdb.
E. The grant c##role1 to b_admin command returns an error because the container should be set to ALL.
Correct Answer: CD
Question 12:
Examine the commands executed in the root container of your multitenant container database (CDB) that
has multiple pluggable databases (PDBs):
SQL> CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123;
SQL> CREATE ROLE c##role1 CONTAINER=ALL;
SQL> GRANT CREATE VIEW TO C##roleI CONTAINER=ALL;
SQL> GRANT c##role1 TO c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL;
SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin;
What is the result of the revoke command?
A. It executes successfully and the c##role1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user only in the root container.
B. It fails and reports an error because the container=all clause is not used.
C. It executes successfully and the c##rocl1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user in the root database and all the PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the comtainer=current clause is not used.
Correct Answer: B
SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin; REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin * ERROR at line 1: ORA – 01951: ROLE `C##ROLE1\’ not granted to `C##A_ADMIN\’ SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL; Revoke succeeded. SQL> This CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123; will create a common user event container that is not specified.
Question 13:
Examine the RMAN command:
RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVE LOG;
Which prerequisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?
A. The password for the encryption must be set up.
B. Oracle wallet for the encryption must be set up.
C. All the tablespaces in the database must be encrypted.
D. Oracle Database Vault must be enabled.
Correct Answer: B
Configuration encryption will be used by Transparent encryption. For transparent encryption, you will need to create a wallet, and it must be open. Transparent encryption will then occur automatically after you have issued the CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON or CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR TABLESPACE ON command.
CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION: You can use this command to persistently configure transparent encryption. You cannot persistently configure dual mode or password mode encryption.
SET ENCRYPTION: You can use this command to configure dual mode or password mode encryption at the RMAN session-level.
A database is running in archive log mode. The database contains locally managed tablespaces. Examine the RMAN command:
RMAN> BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUP SET SECTION SIZE 1024M DATABASE;
Which statement is true about the execution of the command?
A. The backup succeeds only if all the tablespaces are locally managed.
B. The backup succeeds only if the RMAN default device for backup is set to disk.
C. The backup fails because you cannot specify the section size for a compressed backup.
D. The backup succeeds and only the used blocks are backed up with a maximum backup piece size of 1024 MB.
Correct Answer: D
COMPRESSED enables binary compression.
RMAN compresses the data written into the backup set to reduce the overall size of the backup set. All backups that create backup sets can create compressed backup sets. Restoring compressed backup sets is no different from restoring uncompressed backup sets.
RMAN applies a binary compression algorithm as it writes data to backup sets. This compression is similar to the compression provided by many media manager vendors. When backing up to a locally attached tape device, compression provided by the media management vendor is usually preferable to the binary compression provided by BACKUP AS COMPRESSED BACKUPSET.
Therefore, use uncompressed backup sets and turn on the compression provided by the media management vendor when backing up to locally attached tape devices. You should not use RMAN binary compression and media manager compression together. Some CPU overhead is associated with compressing backup sets. If the target database is running at or near its maximum load, then you may find the overhead unacceptable.
In most other circumstances, compressing backup sets saves enough disk space to be worth the CPU overhead. SECTION SIZE sizeSpec Specifies the size of each backup section produced during a data file backup.
By setting this parameter, RMAN can create a multisection backup. In a multisection backup, RMAN creates a backup piece that contains one file section, which is a contiguous range of blocks in a file. All sections of a multisection backup are the same size.
You can create a multisection backup for a data file, but not a data file copy. File sections enable RMAN to create multiple steps for the backup of a single large data file. RMAN channels can process each step independently and in parallel, with each channel producing one section of a multisection backup set.
If you specify a section size that is larger than the size of the file, then RMAN does not use a multisection backup for the file. If you specify a small section size that would produce more than 256 sections, then RMAN increases the section size to a value that results in exactly 256 sections.
Depending on where you specify this parameter in the RMAN syntax, you can specify different section sizes for different files in the same backup job. Note: You cannot use SECTION SIZE with MAXPIECESIZE or with INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1.
Question 15:
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to
20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds the TBS percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: BC
The threshold for activating tiering policies is based on two parameters: TBS PERCENT USED and TBS PERCENT FREE Both values can be controlled by the DBMS_ILM_ADMIN package. TBS PERCENT USED and TBS PERCENT FREE default to 85 and 25, respectively.
Hence, whenever the source tablespace\’s usage percentage goes beyond 85 percent, any tiering policy specified on its objects will be executed and objects will be moved to the target tablespace until the source tablespace becomes at least 25 percent free.
Note that it is possible to add a custom condition to tiering policies to enable the movement of data based on conditions other than how full the tablespace is. In addition, the READ ONLY option must be explicitly specified for the target tablespace.
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Question 1:
Identify three reasons for using a recovery catalog with Recovery Manager (RMAN). (Choose three.)
A. to store backup information of multiple databases in one place
B. to restrict the amount of space that is used by backups
C. to maintain a backup for an indefinite period of time by using the KEEP FOREVER clause
D. to store RMAN scripts that are available to any RMAN client that can connect to the target database registered in the recovery catalog
E. to automatically delete obsolete backups after a specified period of time
Correct Answer: ACD
Question 2:
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independently of the Data Pump clients.
C. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
D. Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Utility.
E. EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands.
Which two statements are true about making RMAN image copies of a database? (Choose two.)
A. They can only be written to disk.
B. They can be made only when the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
C. They can be made only when the database is in the MOUNT state.
D. They consist of all used and unused blocks in the data files.
E. They can be made only when the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Correct Answer: AD
An image copy can be written only to disk.
An image copy is the same as data file. The disadvantage of image copy backup mode is that it occupies much space and does not skip unused data blocks. References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_rman_10_image_copies.htm
Question 4:
The CATDB12C database contains an Oracle Database 12c catalog schema owned by the RC12C user. The CATDB11 database contains an Oracle Database l1g catalog schema owned by the RC11 user.
A database with DBID=1423241 is registered in the CATDB11 catalog. Both the recovery catalog databases are open.
In the CATDB12c database, you execute the commands:
What is the outcome of the import?
A. It fails because the target database and recovery catalog database are of different versions.
B. It succeeds and all global scripts in the RC11 catalog that have the same name as existing global scripts in the RC12C catalog are automatically renamed.
C. It succeeds but the database is not automatically registered in the RC12c catalog.
D. It fails because RMAN is not connected to the target database with DBID=1423241.
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
You issue the command:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROL FILE TO TRACE;
Which statement is true about the command?
A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specified in the diagnostic_dest initialization parameter.
B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.
C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.
D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.
Correct Answer: B
Question 6:
Examine the commands executed in CDB$ROOT of your multitenant container database (CDB) that has multiple pluggable databases (PDB):
Which statement is true about granting the select privilege on the DBA_users view to the c##ROLE1 role?
A. The command fails and gives an error because object privileges cannot be granted to a common user.
B. The command fails because the container is not set to current.
C. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session and query the DBA_users view in cdb$root and all the PDBs.
D. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session in cdb$root and all the PDBs, but can only query the dba_users view in cdb$root.
E. The command succeeds and the common user c##admin can create a session and query the DBA_users view only in cdb$root.
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
You plan to duplicate the multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that contains the pluggable database (PDB) SALES:
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The root and seed databases are included in the duplication.
B. Only the SALES PDB is duplicated as the non-CDB CDBDUP.
C. A backup of the SALES PDB must exist before the execution of the command.
D. An auxiliary instance must have been started with the initialization parameter ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE set to TRUE.
E. RMAN must be connected to a recovery catalog for the execution of the command.
Correct Answer: AD
D: When duplicating a whole CDB or one more PDBs:
You must create the auxiliary instance as a CDB. To do so, start the instance with the following declaration in the initialization parameter file: enable_pluggable_database=TRUE
A: To duplicate PDBs, you must create the auxiliary instance as a CDB. To do so, start the instance with
the declaration enable_pluggable_database=TRUE in the initialization parameter file. When you duplicate one or more PDBs, RMAN also duplicates the root (CDB$ROOT) and the seed database (PDB$SEED). The resulting duplicate database is a fully functional CDB that contains the root, the seed database, and the duplicated PDBs.
You create a new database by using the CREATE DATABASE command in SQL *Plus, with the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause specified.
Which statement is true about the database that is created?
A. It is created as a container database (CDB) with CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and a pluggable database (PDB).
B. It is created as a non-CDB that becomes a CDB after the first PDB is plugged in.
C. It is created as a PDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
D. It is created as a CDB with the CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED databases.
Correct Answer: D
The CREATE DATABASE command with the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause indicates that a CDB is being created. The CDB will contain a root (CDB$ROOT) and a seed (PDB$SEED).
Your database is running on the host OUSERVER. You back up your database regularly using RMAN and the backups are cataloged in a recovery catalog. For testing purposes, you want to replicate your database to another host, OUSERVER1, with the same directory structure. So, you copy the backups to the new host.
What must you do to make the database operational in OUSERVER1?
A. Restore the control file from the backup by using the CATALOG option, restore the data files by using the SET NEWNAME command, and recover the data files.
B. Restore the data files by using the CATALOG option and use the SET NEWNAME command to change the location.
C. Restore the control file from the backup by using the CATALOG option, and then restore and recover the data files.
D. Restore the data files from the backup by using the recovery catalog, use the SWITCH command to change the location, and recover the data files.
Correct Answer: A
Catalog any backups not recorded in the repository with the CATALOG command.
Restore the data files to their original locations. If volume names have changed, then run SET NEWNAME commands before the restore operation and perform a switch after the restore operation to update the control file with the new locations for the data files, as shown in the following example.
Note: One way to name duplicate data files is to use the SET NEWNAME command before executing the DUPLICATE command. RMAN supports the following commands, listed in order of precedence:
1. SET NEWNAME FOR DATAFILE and SET NEWNAME FOR TEMPFILE
Examine the list of possible steps to transport a tablespace across platforms that have the same compatibility level, character sets, and endian format:
1. Make the tablespace read-only at the source database.
2. Export metadata from the source database.
3. Import metadata into the target database.
4. Transfer the dump file and data files to the target machine.
5. Convert data files by using Recovery Manager (RMAN).
6. Make the tablespace read-write at the target database.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 2, 4, and 3
B. 2, 4, 3, and 5
C. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3, and 6
D. 1, 2, 4, 3, and 6
Correct Answer: D
Step 1 (1): To copy tablespaces from one database to another using transportable tablespace, the source tablespaces are first kept in READ-ONLY mode (to ensure data consistency). Once the tablespaces are in READ-ONLY mode, the actual datafiles belonging to the source tablespaces are copied from the source database to the target database (using any available methods like scp, sftp, rcp, etc).
Step 2 (2): Once the tablespace is kept in READ-ONLY mode, we need to generate the metadata export of the tablespaces that need to transport using the DataPump export utility.
Step 3 (4): Once the metadata export is generated on the source database for all the tablespaces that need to be transported, we need to copy the Export Dump file as well as all the datafiles belonging to the tablespaces to be transported to the target database server.
In which three situations must you use a recovery catalog? (Choose three.)
A. when you want to store RMAN global scripts that can be used across multiple databases
B. when you want to restrict the amount of space used by backups
C. when you want to perform incremental backups by using a block change tracking file
D. when you want to list data files that were in a target database at a given time by using the AT clause with the REPORT SCHEMA command
E. when you want to maintain backup metadata longer than the period specified by the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter
Correct Answer: ADE
A: Some RMAN features function only when you use a recovery catalog. For example, you can store RMAN scripts in a recovery catalog. The chief advantage of a stored script is that it is available to any RMAN client that can connect to the target database and recovery catalog. Command files are only available if the RMAN client has access to the file system on which they are stored.
A locally stored script is associated with the target database to which RMAN is connected when the script is created, and can only be executed when you are connected to this target database. A global stored script can be run against any database registered in the recovery catalog.
D: If you use a recovery catalog, then you can use the clause to specify a past time, SCN, or log sequence number, as shown in these examples of the command:
RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT TIME \’SYSDATE-14\’; # schema 14 days ago RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT SCN 1000; # schema at scn 1000 RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA AT SEQUENCE 100 THREAD 1; # schema at sequence 100 RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA FOR DB_UNIQUE_NAME standby1;
E: The CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME initialization parameter determines the minimum number of days that records are retained in the control file before they are candidates for being overwritten. Thus, you must ensure that you resynchronize the recovery catalog with the control file records before these records are erased.
Which three requirements should be successfully met by an Oracle Secure Backup (OSB) user so that OSB performs RMAN backup or restore requests? (Choose three.)
A. RMAN preauthorization on the host
B. OSB encryption for data in transport and on tape
C. matching the OS user identity of the Oracle instance associated with the database username
D. assigned to a class with rights to back up or restore the Oracle database
E. scheduling of the RMAN backup to occur automatically at user-defined intervals
F. assigned to a class with rights to browse all directories and catalogs
Correct Answer: ADF
A: Performing Oracle database backups using RMAN requires RMAN user preauthorization within OSB
D: The preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user must also be assigned to an Oracle Secure Backup
class possessing the following rights:
access Oracle backups (set to the owner, class, or all)
perform Oracle backups and restores
F: The preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user must be mapped to operating system privileges to
access the files to be backed up or restored. the preauthorized Oracle Secure Backup user can perform
RMAN operations only on the host where it has access to files.
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Question 1:
Which MySQL utility program should you use to process and sort the Slow Query Log based on query time or average query time?
A. mysqldumpslow
B. mysqldump
C. MySQL access
D. MySQL show
E. MySQL slow
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
Consider: Which statement best describes the meaning of the value for the key_len column?
A. It shows how many bytes will be used from each index row.
B. It shows the number of characters indexed in the key.
C. It shows the total size of the index row.
D. It shows how many columns in the index are examined.
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
A particular government\’s security policy is to have very strict data encryption and safety settings. This is done by restricting access based on their own CA authority and limiting access to particular users within a department. Which method could be used to restrict access as required?
A. using GRANT … REQUIRE X509 AND REQUIRE ISSUER `/C=…..\’ AND REQUIRE SUBJECT `/C=…..\’
B. using GRANT USAGE, X509, …….ON *.* TO user@remotehost IDENTIFIED BY `secret_password\’
C. using GRANT … REQUIRE SSL for a secure connection
D. using GRANT USAGE, SSL, …..ON *.* TO user@remotehost IDENTIFIED BY `secret_password\’
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
What does the possible_keys column in this output denote?
A. if it is possible for you to include any indexes in your query
B. whether there are any indexes on the tables that you are querying
C. if there are any indexes that may be used to solve this query
D. whether you are using any indexes in your query
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
You have a consistent InnoDB backup created with mysqldump, the largest table is 50 GB in size.
You start to restore your backup with this command; shell> MySQL –u root –p < backup.sql
After 30 minutes, you notice that the rate of restoration seems to have slowed down. No other processes or external factors are affecting server performance.
Which is the most likely explanation for this slowdown?
A. The MySQL server has stopped inserting data to check index consistency.
B. InnoDB is doing CRC32 checks over the tablespace data as it grows.
C. The MySQL server is taking a periodical snapshot of data so it can resume the restore if it is interrupted mid-way.
D. InnoDB has filled the redo log and now must flush the pages.
E. Secondary indexes no longer fit into the buffer pool.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
Which two options describe how MySQL Server allocates memory? (Choose two.)
A. Each connection may have its own per-thread memory allocations.
B. Thread memory is pre-allocated up to thread_cache_size for performance.
C. Each thread allocates memory from a global pool.
D. Global memory resources are allocated at server startup.
Correct Answer: AD
Question 7:
Which three are the key advantages of standard MySQL replication? (Choose three.)
A. supports native automatic failover
B. enables automatic resync of databases when discrepancies are detected
C. provides arbitrary geographic redundancy with minimal overhead to master
D. synchronously guarantees identical slave copy
E. is easy to configure and has low-performance overhead
F. can easily add slaves for read scaling
Correct Answer: BEF
Question 8:
You are contacted by a user who does not have permission to access a database table. You determine after an investigation that this user should be permitted to have access and so you execute a GRANT statement to enable the user to access the table.
Which statement describes the activation of that access for the user?
A. The access does not take effect until the user logs out and back in.
B. The access does not take effect until the next time the server is started.
C. access is available immediately.
D. The access does not take effect until you issue the FLUSH PRIVILEGES statement.
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
You have a MySQL replication setup and you intentionally stop the SQL thread on the slave.
What are two reasons that you may stop the SQL thread on the slave while keeping the I/O thread running? (Choose two.)
A. to allow the remaining events to be processed on the slave while not receiving new events from the master
B. to allow a backup to be created under a reduced load
C. to allow for point-in-time recovery on the slave
D. to prevent schema changes from propagating to the slave before they are validated
E. to prevent any transaction from experiencing a deadlock
Correct Answer: BC
Question 10:
Which two methods accurately monitor the size of your total database size over time? (Choose two.)
A. monitoring the Innodb_rows_inserted status variable
B. monitoring the innodb_redo_log_size variable
C. monitoring the information_schema.TABLES table
D. monitoring data-dir size in the operating system
E. monitoring cumulative Innodb_page_size increase
F. monitoring the performance_schema_hosts_size variable
Correct Answer: CF
Question 11:
Consider the index information for the dept_emp table in the employee\’s schema:
Which two conclusions can be made based on the output of the query? (Choose two.)
A. There are three indexes in the table.
B. There is a redundant index on the dept_no column.
C. The secondary indexes are optimized for unique key lookups.
D. The values on the emp_no column must be unique.
E. The selectivity of the dept_no column is the best of the indexed columns.
F. There is a redundant index on the emp_no column.
Correct Answer: CF
Question 12:
Which two statements are true about InnoDB auto-increment locking? (Choose two.)
A. InnoDB never uses table-level locks.
B. InnoDB always protects auto-increment updates with a table-level lock
C. InnoDB does not use locks to enforce auto-increment uniqueness.
D. The auto-increment lock can be a table-level lock.
E. Some settings for innodb_autoinc_lock_mode can help reduce locking.
Correct Answer: DE
Question 13:
You want to create a temporary table named OLD_INVENTORY in the OLD_INVENTORY database on the master server. This table is not to be replicated on the slave server.
Which two changes would ensure that the temporary table does not propagate to the slave? (Choose two.)
A. Set binlog_format=MIXED with the –replicate-ignore-temp-table option.
B. Use the –replicate-do-db, –replicate-do-table, or –replicate-wild-do-table option with the value equal to OLD_INVENTORY.
C. Change the binlog_format option to ROW and restart myself before you create the OLD_INVENTORY table.
D. Stop SQL_THREAD on the slave until you have finished using the OLD_INVENTORY temporary table.
E. Use the –replicate-ignore-table option with the value equal to OLD_INVENTORY.OLD_INVENTORY and restart me before creating the temporary table.
Correct Answer: BE
Question 14:
Which three allocate memory per thread in MySQL? (Choose three.)
Suppose you are adding rows to a MyISAM table and the –data-dir location runs out of disk space. What will happen when this occurs?
A. The server will crash.
B. The server suspends that INSERT operation until space becomes available.
C. An error message will be returned to the client. Server Error: ER_IO
D. The server suspends operations for all storage engines until space becomes available.
Correct Answer: B
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Question 1:
Which statement about CDB architecture is true?
A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.
B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.
C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.
As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:
Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin srvctl stop database -d myDb chopt enable dm srvctl start database -d my
What does this do?
A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.
B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.
C. It generates a Client Static Library.
D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.
E. It configures Oracle Net Services.
F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see 4.4)
Question 3:
Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?
A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.
B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).
C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).
D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.
E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.
Correct Answer: AD
A: The PGA is memory specific to an operating process or thread that is not shared by other processes or threads on the system. Because the PGA is process-specific, it is never allocated in the SGA.
The PGA is a memory heap that contains session-dependent variables required by a dedicated or shared server process. The server process allocates memory structures that it requires in the PGA.
D: The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles. In a shared server architecture, the library cache also contains private SQL areas.
Incorrect:
Not B: The SGA is a read/write memory area that, along with the Oracle background processes, form a
database instance. All server processes that execute on behalf of users can read the information in the instance SGA. Several processes write to the SGA during database operation.
Not C: A private SQL area (PGA) holds information about a parsed SQL statement and other session-specific information for processing. When a server process executes SQL or PL/SQL code, the process uses the private SQL area to store bind variable values, query execution state information, and query execution work areas.
Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?
A. Hosts and databases
B. Hosts, databases, and application servers
C. Application servers and web applications
D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)
E. Databases, application servers, and web applications
F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-best- practicesv21493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)
Question 5:
Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus?
A. It has commands for performing database administration operations.
B. It can be used in interactive but not batch mode for SQL commands.
C. It has to be installed separately after the Oracle Database 12c installation.
D. Operating system commands can be executed from the SQL*Plus command prompt.
Correct Answer: AC
C: how to start SQL*Plus:
1- Make sure that SQL*Plus has been installed on your computer.
2. Log on to the operating system (if required).
3. Enter the command, SQLPLUS, and press Return.
Etc.
Not B: In the SQL*Plus command line, the use of an external editor in combination with the @, @@, or START commands is an effective method of creating and executing generic scripts. You can write scripts that contain SQL*Plus, SQL, and PL/SQL commands, which you can retrieve and edit. This is especially useful for storing complex commands or frequently used reports.
Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files, and control files for a pluggable database?
A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
B. OS file system
C. logical volume (LVM)
D. clustered file system
E. RAW
Correct Answer: E
Question 10:
Which two statements about ADDM are true?
A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.
B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH’s recent activity from SGA data.
C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.
D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.
Correct Answer: CD
C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases. Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions, and many other exceptional situations that today force the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. ‘
Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and recommend a resolution
Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs, and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exceptional situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.
D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.
Question 11:
Which two items are key for maintaining data consistency in Oracle Database 12c?
A. undo data
B. isolation level
C. lock mechanism
D. serializability
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25789/consist.htm#CNCPT88969 (overview of the oracle database locking mechanism)
Question 12:
You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Which logical storage relationship is correct?
A. Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock
B. B) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace
C. Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock
D. Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock
Which two statements about multitenant architecture are true?
A. Multiple PDBs on a single server need multiple database instances and multiple sets of database files.
B. Although consolidated into a single physical database, PDBs mimic the behavior of non-CDBs.
C. A PDB administrator can use Oracle Flashback or point-in-time recovery to retrieve lost data from a PDB, only by shutting down all the PDBs from the CDB.
D. It is easier to collect performance metrics for many databases in a CDB than individual non-CDB databases.
E. It takes more time to apply a patch to one CDB that holds hundreds of PDBs than to hundreds of non-CDB databases.
Correct Answer: BD
B: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
D: Ease of performance tuning
It is easier to collect performance metrics for a single database than for multiple databases. It is easier to size one SGA than 100 SGAs.
Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation
Which three statements represent the benefits of multitenant architecture for database consolidation?
A. You can unplug a PDB from a development CDB and plug it into a production CDB, which allows for easier and more rapid movement of data and code.
B. You can consolidate shared database memory by combining multiple PDBs in a single CDB.
C. Patching individual PDBs requires the same amount of time as patching individual databases.
D. Consolidating separate databases into a single CDB requires the same amount of storage allocation.
E. In multitenant architecture, a PDB behaves the same as a non-CDB as seen from a client connecting with Oracle Net. No client modification is required.
Correct Answer: ADE
A: By design, you can quickly plug a PDB into a CDB, unplug the PDB from the CDB, and then plug this
PDB into a different CDB. The implementation technique for plugging and unplugging is similar to the
transportable tablespace technique.
D: The process of consolidating data from multiple databases into one database on one computer is
known as database consolidation. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the Oracle Multitenant option enables
you to consolidate data and code without altering existing schemas or applications.
By consolidating hardware and sharing database memory and files, you reduce costs for hardware,
storage, availability, and labor. For example, 100 PDBs on a single server share one database instance
and one set of database files, thereby requiring less hardware and fewer personnel.
E: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and non schema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation
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Question 1:
You need to develop a chat application, which allows the display of emoticons and images together with text messages.
How should you configure WebSocket endpoints to receive both text and binary messages?
A. Create two @onMessage methods in the same endpoint with appropriate parameter types.
B. Define the @onMessage methods in your endpoint with Object as a parameter and check the actual type in your code.
C. You can achieve this only by creating separate WebSocket endpoints for each message type.
D. Create two @onMessage methods, each with an appropriate decoder attribute in the same endpoint.
Which interface should you implement if you want to be alerted to the lifecycle events surrounding your task being executed by a ManagedExecutorService?
Given the code fragment: Which code can be added to register both of these methods to receive BankEvent notifications only if an instance of BankActivityService is already instantiated in the current context?
A. @Observes(notifyObserver=IF_EXISTS) on line 3 and line 6
B. @Observes(during=IN_PROGRESS) on line 1
C. @Observes(during=AFTER_COMPLETION) on line 1
D. @Observes(notifyObserver=IF_EXISTS) on line 4 and line 7 before method parameter declaration
Java EE\’s support for WS-Security includes handling which two types of security credentials? (Choose two.)
A. X.509 certificates
B. SAML tokens
C. OAuth Bearer tokens
D. Two-factor authentication tokens
Correct Answer: AB
Question 9:
Given the code fragment from a Facelet page: On Line 1, you are asked to insert a search box that displays the text “Search Here” via a placeholder. Assume searchMB is a valid Managed Bean.
Which two options enable you to create a search box with a placeholder attribute on Line 1? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: CE
Question 10:
Given the code fragment:
Which method should be used on line 3 to enable the default validation mechanism?
If an exception is thrown inside the if block, what effect will it have on the transaction?
A. The transaction will be committed.
B. The transaction will be suspended.
C. The transaction will be rolled back.
Correct Answer: C
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