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Question 1:

Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)

A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.

B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.

C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.

D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.

E. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.

F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.

Correct Answer: CEF

Question 2:

A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales orders with distributor key strokes.

Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)

A. Defaulting rules

B. Transaction types

C. OM: invoice source

D. Processing constraints

E. Automatic attachments rules

F. OM: invoice transaction type

G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions

Correct Answer: ABEG

Question 3:

ACME has offices in various countries, and its customers and suppliers are based around the globe.

Given that addresses are formatted differently in each country, how would you set up the system to handle this situation?

A. Set up the address as a context-sensitive key flex field.

B. Set up the address as a free format segmented value set.

C. Set up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive flex field D. Set up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)

A. Accrual is a valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.

B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.

C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.

D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using only Basic pricing.

E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.

F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.

Correct Answer: BEF

Question 5:

Which option identifies the requirements to ship and confirm a sales order line?

A. The item attribute is shippable and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

B. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Picked and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

C. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Booked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

D. The item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Entered, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is Awaiting Shipping, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types.

Identify five valid item types. (Choose five)

A. Ship Only

B. Order Only

C. OM Standard

D. Order Header

E. OM Price Only

F. Return for Credit

G. OM change Order

H. OM blanket Header

Correct Answer: BCDGH

Question 7:

An order has five lines with line status of Staged/Pick Confirmed.

There is no record on the Delivery tab in the Shipping Transaction form for this order.

What could be the possible resolution?

A. Resolve the shipping exception.

B. Enable shipping privileges for the user.

C. Autocreate delivery from the Pick Release form.

D. Autocreate delivery from the Delivery Transaction form.

E. Autocreate delivery from the Shipping Transaction form.

Correct Answer: E

Question 8:

ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.

All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using Configurator, which makes it intuitive for configuring PTO models.

Which statement is true?

A. A routing needs to be defined for the PTO model.

B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.

C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.

D. After selecting all the options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured part.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on collection data. (Choose four)

A. Define price-lists

B. Define ATP rules

C. Setup stock locators

D. Setup transit lead time

E. Set up pricing modifiers

F. Select the ATP item attribute

G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise

H. Set up Inventory Organization Hierarchy

Correct Answer: BDFG

Question 10:

Identify three correct statements about Cascading Attributes. (Choose three)

A. Enable Quick Code OM_Header_to_Line_Cascade.

B. Enable the Key Profile option OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade Header Changes to Line.

C. The Cascading Attributes feature is applicable to User Interface, but not for any API (Process Order)

D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint still allows updates to other lines.

E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the Profile OM: Sales Order Form Cascade Header change to the line.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 11:

Allowing a negative on-hand balance is set at _________.

A. The Entity Level

B. The Subinventory Level

C. The operating Unit Level

D. The Item master inventory level

E. The Inventory organization level

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three) A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.

B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.

C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.

D. The system parameter OM Employee for self-service orders has been changed to an OM system parameter with the same name.

E. The system parameter name OM employee for self-service order in single OM system parameter which has not changed to an OM profile.

F. The profile OM employee for self-service orders is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship orders created by external users.

Correct Answer: ACF

Question 13:

Choose the correct statement that applies to LPNs.

A. LPNs are organization independent.

B. Deliveries must exist before creating LPNs.

C. No container item is required to create LPNs.

D. LPN number can be defined with a prefix, starting number, and suffix.

E. The delivery line status should be picked and released before it can be assigned to LPNs.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Which three statements are true about the intercompany drop ship process across different operating units? (Choose three)

A. Customer\’s addresses are visible across the ledger.

B. Customer addresses are not visible across the ledger.

C. The shipping organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.

D. The procurement organization generates an intercompany payable invoice.

E. The shipping organization creates an intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.

F. The procurement organization creates an intercompany Receivables invoice for the goods

Correct Answer: ACF

Question 15:

Which statement best describes locator Control? (Choose two)

A. Cannot be changed after it is specified

B. Can be specified at the item master level

C. Can be specified at the operating unit level

D. Can be specified at the inventory organization level

Correct Answer: BD

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Question 1:

When you enter a receipt, you first use the Find Expected Receipts window to locate the source document

for the receipt.

Select four valid source documents for a receipt. (Choose four.)

A. An approved internal requisition line

B. An in-transit shipment within your inventory

C. A shipment from a supplier based on a purchase order

D. A move order from inventory for material storage relocation

E. A return from a customer based on a return material authorization (RMA)

F. A shipment from inventory backed by an internal safes order generated by an internal requisition

Correct Answer: BCEF

Question 2:

Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window?

A. Viewer: Text

B. Concurrent: Report Copies

C. Flexfields: Open Key Window

D. Concurrent Report: Access Level

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)

A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.

B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as other entities.

C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best practice to do so.

D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.

E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you cannot have it default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would default when you log in the next time.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 4:

Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.

A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link

B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link

C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation

D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation, and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Which three financial options can default when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)

A. Ship Via

B. Default Buyer

C. RFQ-Only Site

D. Bill-To Location

E. Supplier Classification

F. Payment Bank Account

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 6:

Which window in Purchasing would you use to copy on the existing global Approved Supplier List entry and make it local to your organization?

A. Supplier Status

B. Request For Quotation

C. Supplier-Item Attribute

D. Approved Supplier List Statuses

E. Sourcing Rule/Bill of Distribution Assignments

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which two statements are true about using foreign currency? (Choose two)

A. Requisition total is expressed in foreign currency.

B. Currency can be changed even after a requisition is approved.

C. Currency cannot be changed once a purchase order is approved.

D. A foreign currency reference can be specified for each purchase order line.

E. Requisition can automatically source blanket agreements or catalog quotations with foreign currency information.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 8:

A recent shipment of item A was routed to the inspection department according to standard practice, but

no receipt for item A is available in the system for inspection.

What might have happened?

A. Requester set the receipt routing to Direct Delivery in the requisition,

B. Receiving clerk created an express receipt instead of a standard one.

C. Buyer changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt in the purchase order line.

D. Buyer changed the routing to Direct Delivery at the supplier site level for this supplier.

E. Receiving clerk changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt at the time of receiving.

Correct Answer: E

Question 9:

Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.

A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

B. Prepare for the period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post journal entries in GL

C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. > Close the AP period.

D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL > Close the PO period.

E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source

inventory items across different organizations.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL

B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.

C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.

D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing document.

E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local level assignment takes precedence.

Correct Answer: BE

Question 11:

An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment. Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.

B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.

C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.

D. Company X has set up Planning and would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can be set to New or Approved.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 12:

The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase

agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option

to update and create blanket purchase sourcing rules.

Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?

A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing

B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set

C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules

D. PO: Allow Auto creation of Oracle Sourcing Documents

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

A medium-sized multinational company based in the US has two business groups (BG), BG1 (for the US) and BG2 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies H1 and H2, respectively. The company has a policy that only the Controllers and those above them can approve capital Items on requisitions and purchase orders.

However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must also be able to authorize capital purchases. The account range for capital items is 2000-2599. The relevant approval limits are:

1) Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000 2) Controller in BG1: $500,000 3) Controller in BG2: $200,000

Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)

A. An employee in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee\’s manager and forwarded to the group Controller in BG1 who approves it.

B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee\’s manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.

C. The buyer hi BG1 raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BG1 who approves it.

D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with a charge for inventory items to be stocked in an asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.

E. The shop floor supervisor in BG1 raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The supervisor\’s manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BG1 for final approval.

F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in BG2 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2 places the order on the supplier.

Correct Answer: CF

Question 14:

When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)

A. entering suppliers twice

B. issuing specific invoices

C. generating inaccurate returns

D. generating inaccurate receipts

E. generating accurate supplier reports

F. issuing more payments than necessary

G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary

Correct Answer: AFG

Question 15:

Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?

A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.

B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.

C. Manually enter RFQs and Data Load Quotations.

D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.

E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,

F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.

Correct Answer: F

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Latest 1Z0-821 Exam Study Guide 1Z0-821 Dumps 100% Free Exam Questions

Question 1:

Review the boot environments displayed on your system:

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 1

Which option describes the Solaris-1 BE?

A. It is active on the next reboot.

B. It is active now.

C. It is inactive.

D. It is unbootable.

E. It is active now and on reboot.

F. It has been removed and will no longer be available after the next reboot.

Correct Answer: E

In the below output, NR (now running) means the BE is active now and will be the active BE on reboot.

Example:

Display your existing BE information.

# beadm list

BE Active Mountpoint Space Policy Created

solaris NR / 12.24G static 2011-10-04 09:42

Question 2:

View the Exhibit and review the disk configuration.

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 2

The following command is executed on the disk:

zpool create pool1 c3t3d0s0

What is the result of executing this command?

A. A zpool create error is generated.

B. A 1-GB ZFS file system named /pool1 is created.

C. A 15.97-GB storage pool named pool1 is created.

D. The disk will contain an EFI disk label.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

View the Exhibit and review the zpool and ZFS configuration information from your system.

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 3

Identify the correct procedure for breaking the /prod_data mirror, removing c4t0d0 and c4t2d0, and making the data on c4t0d0 and c4t2d0 accessible under the dev_data mount point.

A. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0zpool import pool2zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/ prod_data

B. zpool detach pool1 pool2zpool attach pool2zfs set mountpoint=/dev_data pool2/prod_data

C. zpool split pool1/prod_data -n pool2/dev_datazfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data

D. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0zpool import pool2

Correct Answer: D

In this Solaris release, you can use the zpool split command to split a mirrored storage pool, which

detaches a disk or disks in the original mirrored pool to create another identical pool.

After the split operation, import the new pool.

Question 4:

The storage pool configuration on your server is:

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 4

You back up the /pool1/data file system, creating a snapshot and copying that snapshot to tape (/dev/ rmt/0). You perform a full backup on Sunday night and Incremental backups on Monday through Saturday night at 11:00 pm. Each incremental backup will copy only the data that has been modified since the Sunday backup was started.

On Thursday, at 10:00 am, you had a disk failure. You replaced the disk drive (c4t0d0). You created pool (pool1) on that disk.

Which option would you select to restore the data in the /pool1/data file system?

A. zfs create pool1/data load the Monday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0Load the Wednesday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0

B. Load the Sunday tape and restore the Sunday snapshot:zfs recv pooll/data < /dev/rmt/0zfs rollback pool1/data@monLoad the Wednesday tape and restore the Wednesday snapshot:zfs recv pool/ data < /dev/mt/0zfs rollback pool1/data@wed

C. zfs create pool/data load the Wednesday tape and enter:zfs recv -F pool1/data < /dev/rmt/0

D. Load the Sunday tape and enter:zfs recv pool1/data < /dev/mt/0Load the Wednesday tape and enter:* commands missing*

Correct Answer: D

First, the full backup must be restored. This would be the Sunday backup. Then the last incremental backup

must be restored. This would be the Wednesday backup. Before restoring the Wednesday incremental file

system snapshot, the most recent snapshot must first be rolled back.

By exclusion D) would be the best answer even though it is incomplete.

Question 5:

To assist in examining and debugging running processes, Solaris 11 has a utility that returns pro arguments and the names and values of environment variables.

What is the name of this utility?

A. ppgsz

B. pargs

C. pmap D. pgrep

Correct Answer: B

The parts utility examines a target process or processes the core file and prints arguments, environment variables, and values, or the process auxiliary vector.

Question 6:

You are installing Oracle Solaris 11 on a SPARC-based system by using the Test Installer. Which three statements are true?

A. The ROOT user will always be configured as a role.

B. The root filesystem will always be deployed on ZFS.

C. The root filesystem will always be located on a local disk.

D. The network can be configured using DHCP.

E. The set of packages that will be installed is server based.

F. You must always create one regular user when installing the system.

Correct Answer: BDE

Question 7:

You are planning group names for a new system. You decide to use a numbering convention that includes the year and month the project began, to form the group number and name for work associated with that project.

So, for example, a project targeted to begin in January 2013 would have the number (name):

201301(Pr20l301)

What are the two problems with your plan?

A. Group names may not contain a numeric character

B. Group names may be no longer than 7 characters.

C. Group numbers should not be larger than 60000.

D. Group names should be all lowercase.

Correct Answer: CD

C: The Group ID (GID) field contains the group\’s numerical ID. GIDs can be assigned whole numbers between 100 and 60000.

D: Group names contain only lowercase characters and numbers.

Question 8:

You have installed software updates to a new boot environment (BE) and have activated the booting to the new BE, you notice system errors. You want to boot to the last known good configuration. Which option would you use on a SPARC system to boot to the current boot environment?

A. boot -L currentBE

B. boot -Z rpool/ROOT/currentBE

C. boot -a Enter the currentBE dataset name when prompted.

D. boot rpool/ROOT/currentBE

E. boot -m currentBE

F. beadm activate currentBE

Correct Answer: F

You can change an inactive boot environment into an active boot environment. Only one boot environment can be active at a time. The newly activated boot environment becomes the default environment upon reboot.

How to Activate an Existing Boot Environment

1. Use the following command to activate an existing, inactive boot environment:

beam activate beName

beName is a variable for the name of the boot environment to be activated.

Note the following specifications.

beam activate beName activates a boot environment by setting the bootable pool property, boots, to the

value of the ROOT dataset of the boot environment that is being activated.

beam activate sets the newly activated boot environment as the default in the menu.lst file.

2. Reboot.

The newly activated boot environment is now the default on the x86 GRUB menu or SPARC boot menu.

Question 9:

You are troubleshooting network throughput on your server.

To confirm that the load balancing among aggregated links is functioning properly, you want to examine

the traffic statistics on the links comprising the aggregation.

The correct command is ___________.

A. distant – aggr

B. distant show-aggr

C. distant show-link -r

D. distant show-link -aggr

E. distant show-phys -aggr

Correct Answer: B

distant show-aggr [-r | -t] [-I interval] [-p] [ -o field[, …]] [-u R|K|M|G|T|P] [link] Display per-port statistics for an aggregation.

Question 10:

You suspect a problem with the OpenLDAP package and want to make sure that the files have not to be modified or otherwise tampered with.

Which command would validate all of the files contained in the openldap package and report any problems?

A. pkgchk OpenLDAP

B. pkg info OpenLDAP

C. pkg contents OpenLDAP

D. pkg verify openldap

E. pkg set-property signature-policy verify

Correct Answer: A

pkgchk checks the accuracy of installed files or, by using the -l option, displays information about package files. pkgchk checks the integrity of directory structures and files. Discrepancies are written to standard error along with a detailed explanation of the problem.

Question 11:

Which three options describe the purpose of the zonep2vchk command?

A. Used on a Solaris 10 global zone to access the system for problems before migrating that system to a Solaris 10 branded zone.

B. Used to access a Solaris 10 global zone for problems before migrating that zone to a Solaris 11 global zone

C. Used to create zonecfg template for a Solaris 10 global zone that will be migrated to a solaris10 branded zone.

D. Used to migrate an Oracle Solaris 11 global zone to a non-global zone.

E. Used to migrate a Solaris 10 global zone to a non-global zone on the same server; the non-global zone can then be migrated to a Solaris 11 server as a Solaris 10 branded zone.

Correct Answer: CDE

zonep2vchk

-check a global zone\’s configuration for physical to virtual migration into a non-global zone

The zonep2vchk utility is used to evaluate a global zone\’s configuration before the process of physical-to-virtual (p2v) migration into a non-global zone. The p2v process involves archiving a global zone (source) and then installing a non-global zone (target) using that archive Zonep2vchk serves two functions. First, it can be used to report issues on the source which might prevent a successful p2v migration. Second, it can output a template zonecfg, which can be used to assist in configuring the non-global zone target.

Zonep2vchk can be executed on a Solaris 10 or later global zone. To execute on Solaris 10, copy the zonep2vchkutility to the Solaris 10 source global zone. When running on Solaris 10, a target release of S11 can be specified, which will check for p2v into a Solaris 10 Branded zone.

Question 12:

You are going to create live zones on your server. Disk space is critical on this server so you need to reduce the amount of disk space required for these zones. Much of the data required for each of these zones is identical, so you want to eliminate the duplicate copies of data and store only data that is unique to each zone.

Which two options provide a solution for eliminating the duplicate copies of data that is common between all of these zones?

A. Create the zones by using sparse root zones.

B. Set the dedup property to on and the dedupe ratio to at least 1.5 for the pool.Create a separate ZFS file system for each zone in the zpool.

C. Put all of the zones in the same ZFS file system and set the dedupratio property for the ZFS file system to at least 1.5.

D. Put all of the zones in the same ZFS file system and set the dedup property for the file system to on.

E. Put each zone in a separate ZFS file system within the same pool. Set the dedup property to one for each ZFS file system.

Correct Answer: DE

n Oracle Solaris 11, you can use the deduplication (dedupe) property to remove redundant data from your ZFS file systems. If a file system has the dedup property enabled, duplicate data blocks are removed synchronously. The result is that only unique data is stored, and common components are shared between files.

Question 13:

The crash dump notification on your server is:

Free 1Z0-821 Exam Questions 13

The documentation states that there should be two core files for each crash dump in the /var/crash directory named vmdump.0

Which command should you choose to display these two files?

A. save core -f vmdump.0

B. dumped uncompressed

C. gunzip vmdump.0

D. dumped -z off

Correct Answer: A

Decompress using savecore -f vmdump.0

savecore – save a crash dump of the operating system

-f dump file Attempt to save a crash dump from the specified file instead of from the system\’s current dump device. This option may be useful if the information stored on the dump device has been copied to an on-disk file by means of the dd(1M) command.

Question 14:

To confirm the IP addresses and netmasks have been correctly configured on the network interfaces, which command(s) should you use?

A. ipadm show-if

B. ipadm show-nic

C. ipadm show-addr

D. ipadm show-addripadm show-mask

E. ipadm show-ipipadm show-mask

F. ipadm show-config

Correct Answer: C

Show address information, either for the given addrobj or all the address objects configured on the specified interface, including the address objects that are only in the persistent configuration.

Example: # ipadm show-and ADDROBJ TYPE STATE ADDR lo0/v4 static ok 127.0.0.1/8

lo0/v6 static ok ::1/128

Question 15:

You have been asked to do an orderly shutdown on a process with a PID of 1234, with the kill command.

Which command is best?

A. kill -2 1234

B. kill -15 1234

C. kill -9 1234

D. kill -1 1234

Correct Answer: B

On POSIX-compliant platforms, SIGTERM is the signal sent to a process to request its termination. The symbolic constant for SIGTERM is defined in the header file signal. h. Symbolic signal names are used because signal numbers can vary across platforms, however, on the vast majority of systems, SIGTERM is signal #15.

SIGTERM is the default signal sent to a process by the kill or kill all commands. It causes the termination of a process, but unlike the SIGKILL signal, it can be caught and interpreted (or ignored) by the process. Therefore, SIGTERM is akin to asking a process to terminate nicely, allowing cleanup and closure of files.

For this reason, on many Unix systems during the shutdown, init issues SIGTERM to all processes that are not essential to powering off, waits a few seconds, and then issues SIGKILL to forcibly terminate any such processes that remain.

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Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 free dumps

Question 1:

Which modification needs to be made to the Service Management Facility before you publish a new package to the IPS repository?

A. The pkg. depot must be disabled.

B. The pkg/read-only property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to false

C. The pkg/writable_root property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to true.

D. The pkg/image_root property for the application/pkg/server service must be set to the location of the repository.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: pkg/image_root

(string) The path to the image whose file information will be used as a cache for file data.

Reference: man pkg. depot

Question 2:

You run the command distant show-link -r.

Select the two correct statements regarding the information displayed in the INTRS column.

A. No value is listed for virtual network interfaces.

B. A value of 0 is listed for virtual interfaces and ether stubs.

C. The number of Interrupts is listed, which indicates network efficiency.

D. A number equal to the number of transmitted Ethernet frames is listed for physical links.

E. The number of packets that were interrupted by a collision is listed, which may indicate hardware problems.

Correct Answer: CE

Explanation: In this output, the statistics for interrupt (INTRS) are significant. Low interrupt numbers indicate greater efficiency in performance. If the interrupt numbers are high, then you might need to add more resources to the specific link.

Example: # dlstat -r -I 1 LINK IPKTS RBYTES INTRS POLLS CH50

e1000g0 101.91K 32.86M 87.56K 14.35K 3.70K 205 5

nxge1 9.61M 14.47G 5.79M 3.82M 379.98K 85.66K 1.64K

vnic1 8 336 0 0 0 0 0

e1000g0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

nxge1 82.13K 123.69M 50.00K 32.13K 3.17K 724 24

vnic1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Note: distant show-link [-r [-F] | -t] [-i interval] [-a] [-p] [ -o field[,…]] [-u R|K|M|G|T|P] [link] Display statistics for

a link.

-r

Display receive-side statistics only. Includes bytes and packets received, hardware and software drops,

and so forth.

List of supported RX fields:

link

Tuesday

bytes

pets

intros

polls

hydrops: Hardware drops

drops: software drops (owing to bandwidth enforcement) ch<10: number of packet chains of length < 10

ch10-50: number of packet chains of length between 10 and 50 ch>50: number of packet chains of length

> 50

Reference: man distant

Question 3:

You want to deploy Oracle Solans 11 with the Automated Installer (Al). You need to make sure that your server and network meet the requirements for using Al Choose the three options that describe the requirements for using Al. (Choose three.)

A. You must set up DHCP. The DHCP server and Al install server can be the same machine or two different machines.

B. You can create only one manifest per install service. If you need more than one manifest, create multiple install services.

C. The minimum requirement to operate as an Al install server is 1 GB of memory.

D. If two client machines have different architectures and need to be installed with the same version of the Oracle Solaris 11 OS( then create two Al manifests and a single install service.

E. Load the install/installed package on the Al server.

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

The resource control in your zone is:

roll

name: zone.CPU-shares

value: (pnv=phvJleged,limit=20,aclion=none)

When you boot the zone, this message is displayed:

WARNING: The zone.cpu-shares rctl is set but FSS is not the default scheduling class for this zone. FSS

will be used for processes in the zone but to get the full benefit of FSS, it should be the default scheduling

class.

Which option will resolve this issue?

A. in the global zone, run this command to change the process scheduler for the global zone dispadmin -d FSS

B. in the non-global zone, run this command to change the process scheduler for this specific zone: dispadmin -d FSS

C. Change the zone resource control to: value: (priv=privileged,limit=20,action=none, default)

D. Use svccfg to modify the general/scheduler property in the svc:/system/zones: default service: svccfg -s system/zones: default editprop general/scheduler=FSS

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

You are setting up an automated installer (AI) install server and issuing the following command:

installed create-service -n prod_ai -s /repo/prod_ai.iso \

-I 192.168.1.100 -c 5 -d /export/repo

Which four options describe the install server that you have configured?

A. The service name is prod_ai.

B. DHCP base IP address is 192.168.1.100

C. The initial IP address for the install clients will be 192.168.1.100. This IP address is temporary. After the client is booted, it will use IP addresses in the following range: 192.168.1.101-105.

D. Five IP addresses are allocated for DHCP clients, starting with 192.168.1.100.

E. The Install server will support up to five clients.

F. The AI net image ISO file is located in /repo/prod and the net image ISO will be unpacked in /export/ repo.

G. The AI net image ISO file is located in /repo/repo and is named /repo/prod/_ai.iso.

Correct Answer: ABDF

Explanation: A: -n

Uses this install service name instead of the default

service name.

B: -i

Sets up a new DHCP server. The IP addresses,

starting from dhcp_address_start, are set up.

D: -c

Sets up a total number of IP addresses in the

DHCP table equal to the value of the

count_of_ipaddr. The first IP address is the

value of dhcp_ip_start that is provided by the

-I option.

F: -s

Specifies the location of the AI ISO image to use for

setting up the install service.

Required: Specifies the location to set up the net image.

Reference: man installed

Question 6:

You have already generated a 256-bit AES raw key and named the keystore file /mykey. You need to use the key to create an encrypted file system.

Which command should you use to create a ZFS encrypted file system named pool1/encrypt using the / mykey keystore?

A. zfs create – o encryption = /mykey pool1/encrypt

B. zfs create – o encryption = 256-ccm – o key source = raw, file : ///my key pool1/encrypt

C. zfs create – o encryption = AES key source = /mykey pool1/encrypt

D. zfs create – o encryption = on key store = /mykey pool1/encrypt

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Example: Encrypting a ZFS File System by Using a Raw Key

In the following example, an aes-256-ccm encryption key is generated by using the petrol command and is

written to a file, /cindykey.file.

# pktool genkey keystore=file outkey=/cindykey.file keytype=aes keylen=256 Then, the /cindykey.file is

specified when the tank/home/Cindy file system is created.

# zfs create -o encryption=aes-256-ccm -o keysource=raw,file:///cindykey.file tank/home/Cindy

Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Examples of Encrypting ZFS File Systems

Question 7:

Which three statements are true for the Oracle Solans 111mage Packaging System (IPS)? (Choose three.)

A. a local repository should be stored on a 2FS file system.

B. Network access to an IPS repository is provided to client systems using NFS.

C. Network access to an IPS repository is provided to client systems using NFS and HTTP.

D. The distribution constructor can get packages from a local IPS to build an installation image.

E. A mirror repository contains all of the metadata and content for software packages.

F. Clients access a mirror repository to obtain a publisher\’s catalog and software packages.

Correct Answer: DEF

Question 8:

New features wore added to ZFS in Oracle Solaris11. Your justification to upgrade from Solaris10 to oracle Solaris11 is that it will be possible to take advantage of the enhancements that were made to ZFS.

Identify the three ZFS functions and features that are included in Oracle Solaris 11, but not in Solaris 10.

A. Encrypted ZFS datasets

B. Ability for ZFS to detect and remove redundant data from the tile system

C. Shadow Data Migration

D. Ability to split a mirrored ZFS storage pool

E. Ability to use ZFS on the boot drive and boot to a ZFS root file system.

F. elimination of the swap file system when using ZFS on the root disk

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation: A: ZFS encryption was introduced in ZFS Pool Version Number 30, Solaris Nevada b149.

Filesystem encryption since Solaris 11 Express

B: Deduplication was introduced in ZFS Pool Version Number 21, Solaris Nevada b128.

E: Booting From a ZFS Root File System Both SPARC-based and x86-based systems use the new style of booting with a boot archive, which is a file system image that contains the files required for booting. When a system is booted from a ZFS root file system, the path names of both the boot archive and the kernel file are resolved in the root file system that is selected for booting.

Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Booting From a ZFS Root File System

Question 9:

Which three Installation options allow for a “hands-free” and “unattended\'” Installation of the Solaris 11 environment?

A. Jumpstart

B. LiveCD

C. A text Installation over the network

D. An Automated Installation performed on an x86 client

E. An Automated Installation using media from a local DVD or USB drive

F. An Automated Installation using a networked repository

Correct Answer: DEF

Explanation: Oracle Solaris 11 uses Automated Installer (AI) for unattended installations.

Unattended installations are possible by placing the contents of the AI Image media (or ISO image contents from a download) on an AI server.

Reference: Differences between Oracle Solaris 10 and 11 for System Administrators http:// www.oracle.com/technetwork/server-storage/solaris11/overview/solaris-matrix- 1549264.html

Question 10:

View the Exhibit and review the pool and ZFS configuration information from your system.

Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q10Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q10

Identify the correct procedure for breaking the /prod_data mirror, removing c4t0d0 and c4t2d0, and making the data on c4t0d0 and c4t2d0 accessible under the dev_data mount point.

A. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0 zpool import pool2 zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data

B. zpool detach pool1 pool2 zpool attach pool2 zfs set mountpoint=/dev_data pool2/prod_data

C. zpool split pool1/prod_data -n pool2/dev_data zfs set mount point = /dev_data pool2/prod_data

D. zpool split pool1 pool2 c4t0d0 c4t2d0 zpool import pool2

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: In this Solaris release, you can use the pool split command to split a mirrored storage pool, which detaches a disk or disks in the original mirrored pool to create another identical pool. After the split operation, import the new pool.

Reference: Oracle Solaris ZFS Administration Guide, Creating a New Pool By Splitting a Mirrored ZFS Storage Pool

Question 11:

View the Exhibit

Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q11

To simplify the administration of a network, the decision was made to use bridging rather than routing Your

the network includes three Oracle Solaris 11 systems,

en-tiny cib uiiuyo yiuviumy reuunuaiu pauiways.

You previously created the bridges on each system with the following commands:

SystemA#dladmcreate-bridge-1 net -1 net2 bridge

SystemB # dladm create-bridge -1 netl -1 net2 bndgeB

SystemC # dladm create-bridge -1 netl -1 net2 bndgeC

You notice that network performance is less than expected, and packets between networks X and Z are

being forwarded by bridge A and bridge B, rather than being forwarded directly by budget.

Select the solution

A. SystemC # dladm modify-bndge -p stp bridges

B. SystemA # dladm modify-bridge -p stp bridge SystemB # dladm modify-bridge -p stp budget SystemC # dladm modify-bridge -p stp bridges

C. SystemC # dladm modify-bridge -p trill bridges

D. SystemA # dladm modify-bridge -p trill bridge SystemB # dladm modify-bridge -p trill budget SystemC # dladm modify-bridge -p trill budget

E. SystemC # ipadm set-prop -p forwarding=on bridges

F. SystemC # dladm set-link prop -p promiscuous=on bridges

Correct Answer: E

Question 12:

You have been asked to troubleshoot the initial configuration of a virtual network connecting two local zones with the outside world.

View the exhibit.

Sample questions of the 1Z0-820 q12

The command dladm create-vnic -1 vswitch192.168.1 vnic1 fails with the error dladm: invalid link name `vswitch192.168.1\’ What is the reason for this error?

A. The name vswitch192.168.1 is not legal.

B. The zone must be specified with dladm create-vnic -z zone3 vnic1.

C. The virtual interface must be specified with dladm create-vnic -z zone3 vnic1.

D. The virtual interface must be created with ipadm create-vnic -1 switch192.168.1.

E. The virtual switch must be created first with dladm create -etherstub vswitch192.168.1.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation: There is no data link named vswitch192.168.

We need to create an etherstub first.

See the Note and example below for details.

Note: Create a VNIC in the system\’s global zone.

# dladm create-vnic -l data-link vnic-name

data-link is the name of the interface where the VNIC is to be configured.

-l link, –link=link

link can be a physical link or an other stub.

vnic-name is the name that you want to give the VNIC.

For example, to create a VNIC named vnic0 on interface e1000g0, you would type the following:

# dladm create-vnic -l e1000g0 vnic0

Example: Creating a Virtual Network Without a Physical NIC

First, create an etherstub with the name stub1:

# dladm create-etherstub stub1

Create two VNICs with the names hello0 and test1 on the etherstub. This operation implicitly creates a virtual

switch connecting hello0 and test1. # dladm create-vnic -l stub1 hello0 # dladm create-vnic -l stub1 test1 Reference: man dladm

Question 13:

You have set up the task. max-was resource control on your Solaris 11 system.

Which option describes how to configure the system so that syslogd notifies you when the resources control the threshold value for the task? max-lips resource has been exceeded?

A. Use the rctladm command to enable the global action on the task.max-lwpa resource control.

B. Modify the /etc/syslog.conf file to activate system logging of all violations of the task.max- lwps and then refresh then svc: /system/system-log: default service.

C. Activate system logging of all violations of task.max-lwpp in the /etc/rctldm.conf file and then execute the rctladm-u command.

D. Use the prct1 command to set the logging of all resource control violations at the time the task. max was resource control is being set up.

E. Use the setrct1 command to set the logging of all resource control violations for the task.max-was resource control.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: rctladm – display and/or modify the global state of system resource controls The following command activates system logging of all violations of the task. max-lips. # rctladm -e syslog task.max-lips

# Reference: man rctladm

Question 14:

You are using Wireshark or snoop to observe network traffic, by using the observability node /dev/net/budget. The bridge was created with: dladm create-bridge -1 net -1 net2 bridge

The captured packets are those__________.

A. sent, prior to VLAN tag modifications

B. received, after VLAN tag modifications

C. received, prior to VLAN tag modifications

D. sent and received, after VLAN tag modifications

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Identify three options that describe the new Oracle Solaris 11 zone features.

A. There are boot environments for zones.

B. Administrators can delegate common administration tasks by using RBAC.

C. Oracle Solaris 11 supports Solaris 8, 9, and 10 branded zones.

D. You can migrate a physical Solaris 10 system and its non-global zones to a solaris10 branded zone running on an Oracle Solaris 11 system.

E. It is possible to change the host ID of a zone.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation: A: The beam utility includes support for creating and administering non-global zone boot environments. Note: A boot environment is a bootable instance of the Oracle Solaris operating system image plus any other application software packages installed into that image. System administrators can maintain multiple boot environments on their systems, and each boot environment can have different software versions installed.

B: Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security feature for controlling user access to tasks that would normally be restricted to the root role. By applying security attributes to processes and to users, RBAC can divide up superuser capabilities among several administrators.

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